This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee). Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 4521
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 62-year-old male with a history of a metal-on-metal total hip arthroplasty presents with a painful, swollen hip. Aspiration yields sterile, thick, cloudy fluid.
The pathogenesis of this adverse local tissue reaction (ALTR) involves a hypersensitivity response mediated primarily by which of the following cell types?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. T-lymphocytes
Explanation
Adverse local tissue reactions (ALTR) or pseudotumors in metal-on-metal hip arthroplasty are typically driven by a delayed, Type IV cell-mediated hypersensitivity reaction. This reaction is primarily mediated by T-lymphocytes (specifically, a lymphocyte-dominated immune response leading to ALVAL - Aseptic Lymphocytic Vasculitis-Associated Lesions) responding to metal ions (cobalt and chromium).
Question 4522
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 32-year-old male sustains a displaced intracapsular femoral neck fracture. To understand the risk of avascular necrosis, an understanding of the adult femoral head blood supply is required.
The predominant blood supply to the weight-bearing dome of the femoral head in an adult arises from which of the following vessels?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lateral epiphyseal branches of the medial femoral circumflex artery
Explanation
In adults, the predominant blood supply to the femoral head, particularly the weight-bearing superior portion, comes from the lateral epiphyseal artery system, which is the terminal branch of the Medial Femoral Circumflex Artery (MFCA). The artery of the ligamentum teres supplies only a small, clinically insignificant volume of the medial head in adults.
Question 4523
Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)
During a primary total knee arthroplasty (TKA) using a measured resection technique, trial components are inserted. The surgeon notes that the knee is excessively tight in flexion but symmetrical and perfectly balanced in extension. Which of the following is the most appropriate next intraoperative step to balance the knee?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Release the posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) or increase the posterior slope of the tibial cut
Explanation
A tight flexion gap with a balanced extension gap requires modifications that exclusively or primarily affect flexion. Increasing the posterior slope of the tibia or releasing the PCL (if retaining) will open the flexion gap without significantly altering the extension gap. Milling more distal femur would loosen the extension gap. Upsizing the femur tightens the flexion gap further. Downsizing the tibial insert would loosen both gaps.
Question 4524
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
In total hip arthroplasty (THA), cross-linking of ultra-high-molecular-weight polyethylene (UHMWPE) is performed to dramatically reduce adhesive and abrasive wear. However, irradiation used to create cross-links also produces free radicals. Historically, how are these free radicals most effectively eliminated to prevent long-term oxidative degradation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Remelting or annealing the polyethylene
Explanation
Irradiation causes cross-linking of UHMWPE but leaves residual free radicals. If exposed to oxygen in vivo, these free radicals cause oxidative degradation, weakening the material. Thermal treatments such as remelting (heating above the melting point) or annealing (heating just below the melting point) quench these free radicals. Modern alternatives include Vitamin E doping, which acts as an antioxidant without the need for thermal treatment.
Question 4525
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 65-year-old male undergoes a revision total hip arthroplasty. Intraoperatively, extensive black metallic debris and tissue necrosis are found around the modular head-neck junction. Which of the following processes is primarily responsible for this finding?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Galvanic and fretting corrosion (trunnionosis)
Explanation
Trunnionosis is the clinical manifestation of fretting and galvanic corrosion at the modular head-neck junction. It is most commonly associated with a cobalt-chromium head on a titanium stem, leading to adverse local tissue reactions (ALTR).
Question 4526
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
When utilizing a cementless titanium component in total joint arthroplasty, optimizing the surface topography is critical for long-term biological fixation. What is the optimal pore size range required to promote maximal bone ingrowth?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 50 - 300 micrometers
Explanation
Extensive biomechanical and histological studies show that the optimal pore size for biological bone ingrowth into porous-coated implants is between 50 and 300 micrometers. Pores smaller than this do not allow adequate vascularization, while larger pores lead to fibrous tissue formation.
Question 4527
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 55-year-old male underwent a total hip arthroplasty 3 years ago utilizing a ceramic-on-ceramic bearing surface
. He presents to the clinic complaining of a new, audible 'squeaking' sound originating from his hip when walking. What is the most common mechanical etiology for this phenomenon?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Stripe wear secondary to edge loading
Explanation
Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic (CoC) total hip arthroplasty is a known complication. It is most commonly associated with edge loading caused by component malposition (such as a vertically placed or excessively anteverted cup). Edge loading disrupts the fluid lubrication film, leading to localized stripe wear on the ceramic head and resulting in the audible squeak.
Question 4528
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
During a primary total knee arthroplasty (TKA) for a patient with a severe, fixed valgus deformity
, the surgeon employs an "inside-out" lateral release technique to balance the knee. In the classical stepwise sequence described for valgus release, which of the following structures is typically released first?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Iliotibial band (ITB)
Explanation
In the stepwise "inside-out" release for a fixed valgus knee in TKA, the iliotibial band (ITB) is generally the first structure released, particularly to balance tightness in extension. If the knee remains tight in both flexion and extension, the posterolateral capsule or LCL may subsequently be sequentially released according to the specific gaps.
Question 4529
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
In total hip arthroplasty, aseptic loosening due to osteolysis is primarily driven by the biological reaction to wear debris. In a well-functioning, accurately aligned metal-on-polyethylene articulation, which specific mechanism of wear is predominantly responsible for generating the submicron polyethylene particles that trigger this cascade?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Adhesive wear
Explanation
Adhesive wear occurs when two surfaces rub together and micro-bonds form and break, leading to the transfer or liberation of small particles. In well-functioning metal-on-polyethylene joints without third-body interposition, adhesive wear is the most significant source of the submicron (0.1 to 1.0 micrometer) particles most actively engulfed by macrophages to incite osteolysis.
Question 4530
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A new diagnostic biomarker is evaluated for the detection of periprosthetic joint infection (PJI). Out of 100 patients confirmed to not have PJI via gold-standard criteria, the new test correctly identifies 90 of them as negative. What statistical measure does this result (90%) directly represent?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Specificity
Explanation
Specificity is defined as the true negative rate, or the proportion of patients without the disease who test negative (True Negatives / [True Negatives + False Positives]). Since 90 out of 100 disease-free patients tested negative, the specificity is 90%.
Question 4531
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 65-year-old female experiences recurrent posterior dislocations following a primary total hip arthroplasty via a posterior approach. To optimize stability, what is the ideal orientation for the acetabular component according to Lewinnek's safe zone?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 15 degrees of anteversion and 40 degrees of inclination
Explanation
Lewinnek's safe zone dictates an inclination (abduction) of 40 degrees +/- 10 degrees, and an anteversion of 15 degrees +/- 10 degrees. Positioning the cup within this range minimizes posterior impingement and dislocation.
Question 4532
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 70-year-old male presents with a painful total knee arthroplasty 2 years post-operation. Joint aspiration reveals a synovial white blood cell (WBC) count of 4,500 cells/uL with 85% polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs).
Based on MSIS criteria, what is the most appropriate definitive management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Two-stage exchange arthroplasty with an antibiotic spacer
Explanation
A synovial WBC > 3,000 cells/uL or PMN% > 80% is diagnostic for chronic PJI in a knee > 4 weeks post-op. The gold standard treatment for chronic PJI in North America is a two-stage exchange arthroplasty.
Question 4533
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
In total hip arthroplasty, which bearing surface combination is associated with the lowest volumetric wear rate?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Ceramic on ceramic
Explanation
Ceramic-on-ceramic bearing surfaces exhibit the lowest volumetric wear rates in total hip arthroplasty. However, they carry risks of component squeaking and catastrophic brittle fracture.
Question 4534
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Following a displaced intracapsular femoral neck fracture, which artery provides the predominant residual blood supply to the femoral head?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Medial femoral circumflex artery
Explanation
The medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA) provides the primary blood supply to the femoral head via the lateral epiphyseal artery branches. Disruption of this blood supply leads to a high risk of avascular necrosis.
Question 4535
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
During a posterior approach to the hip, protecting the deep branch of the medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA) is critical to prevent avascular necrosis. Anatomically, this vessel consistently runs between which two muscles before entering the capsule?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Quadratus femoris and obturator externus
Explanation
The deep branch of the MFCA consistently travels posterior to the obturator externus and anterior to the quadratus femoris. Protecting the obturator externus and the inferior border of the quadratus femoris ensures the preservation of this vital vessel.
Question 4536
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Following a displaced subcapital femoral neck fracture, avascular necrosis frequently occurs due to the disruption of retinacular vessels. Which specific group of retinacular vessels provides the primary terminal blood supply to the weight-bearing dome of the femoral head?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterosuperior retinacular vessels
Explanation
The posterosuperior retinacular vessels are the terminal branches of the deep branch of the MFCA. They course along the posterosuperior femoral neck to supply the critical weight-bearing superior dome of the femoral head.
Question 4537
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 75-year-old community-dwelling female sustains a non-displaced, valgus-impacted femoral neck fracture (Garden I). Which of the following is the most appropriate definitive management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. In situ fixation with multiple cannulated screws
Explanation
For non-displaced or valgus-impacted femoral neck fractures (Garden I and II) in the elderly, in situ fixation with multiple cannulated screws is the standard of care. It minimizes surgical morbidity while effectively preventing secondary displacement.
Question 4538
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
To significantly decrease the incidence of avascular necrosis (AVN) of the femoral head following a traumatic posterior hip dislocation, within what critical time frame should the hip be ideally reduced?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Within 6 hours
Explanation
Expeditious reduction of a traumatic hip dislocation within 6 hours is critically important. Prolonged dislocation beyond 6 hours significantly increases the risk of avascular necrosis due to sustained disruption or kinking of the vulnerable intracapsular blood supply.
Question 4539
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Which of the following arteries provides the predominant blood supply to the weight-bearing portion of the femoral head in an adult?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Medial circumflex femoral artery
Explanation
The deep branch of the medial circumflex femoral artery (MFCA) is the primary blood supply to the adult femoral head. It supplies the superior, weight-bearing aspect of the head via the lateral epiphyseal artery. Disruption of this vessel in femoral neck fractures highly increases the risk of avascular necrosis.
Question 4540
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
During a posterior approach to the hip, aggressive release of the quadratus femoris muscle insertion on the proximal femur puts which of the following vascular structures at greatest risk?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Medial circumflex femoral artery
Explanation
The deep branch of the medial circumflex femoral artery runs anterior to the quadratus femoris and posterior to the obturator externus. Aggressive release or division of the quadratus femoris too close to its femoral insertion can easily sever this vital artery, jeopardizing the femoral head blood supply.
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