This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee). Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 4141
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A patient develops anterolateral thigh numbness following a direct anterior approach to the hip. The injured nerve typically exits the pelvis in which relation to the ASIS?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Medial to the ASIS under the inguinal ligament
Explanation
The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve typically exits the pelvis deep to the inguinal ligament, just medial to the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS). Identifying and protecting this nerve is critical during the anterior approach to the hip.
Question 4142
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
During the posterior approach to the hip for a total hip arthroplasty, the short external rotators are divided. To protect the primary blood supply to the femoral head in a joint-preserving procedure (e.g., surgical hip dislocation), the surgeon must understand the course of the medial circumflex femoral artery (MCFA). The deep branch of the MCFA passes consistently between which two muscles?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Obturator externus and quadratus femoris
Explanation
The deep branch of the MCFA is the primary blood supply to the femoral head. It passes posteriorly between the obturator externus and quadratus femoris, making preservation of the obturator externus critical during surgical dislocation.
Question 4143
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 45-year-old patient sustains a displaced femoral neck fracture. To counsel the patient regarding the risk of avascular necrosis, the surgeon considers the vascular anatomy. Which artery provides the primary blood supply to the weight-bearing portion of the adult femoral head?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Medial circumflex femoral artery
Explanation
The medial circumflex femoral artery gives rise to the lateral epiphyseal artery branches, which provide the majority of the blood supply to the weight-bearing, posterosuperior aspect of the adult femoral head.
Question 4144
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A patient undergoes a regional block in the adductor canal (Hunter's canal) for postoperative pain control following a total knee arthroplasty. Which of the following muscles forms the anterolateral boundary of this anatomical canal?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Vastus medialis
Explanation
The adductor canal is bounded anterolaterally by the vastus medialis, posteriorly by the adductor longus and magnus, and its anteromedial roof is formed by the sartorius muscle.
Question 4145
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Avascular necrosis of the scaphoid proximal pole is a well-known complication of scaphoid waist fractures. This occurs due to the retrograde intraosseous blood supply of the scaphoid, with the major blood vessels entering at which anatomic location?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Dorsal ridge
Explanation
The major blood supply to the scaphoid comes from branches of the radial artery that enter the bone via the dorsal ridge in 70-80% of individuals. The vessels then course in a retrograde fashion to supply the proximal pole.
Question 4146
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 7-year-old boy with Ellis-van Creveld syndrome requires surgical intervention for bilateral severe genu valgum with lateral patellar tracking. Which surgical strategy is most appropriate to correct the deformity while addressing the underlying pathoanatomy?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Proximal tibial medial opening wedge osteotomy with patellar realignment
Explanation
The genu valgum in EVC is primarily due to lateral tibial plateau hypoplasia. Correction must be directed at the proximal tibia (via osteotomy or guided growth) and combined with extensor mechanism realignment to correct the lateral tracking.
Question 4147
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 70-year-old male with widespread Paget's disease is scheduled for a total hip arthroplasty due to severe secondary osteoarthritis. Which of the following is a major intraoperative and perioperative anesthetic concern specific to his underlying bone disease?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Increased risk of high-output cardiac failure and massive intraoperative bleeding
Explanation
Pagetoid bone is highly vascular, particularly in the mixed osteoclastic-osteoblastic phase. This significantly increases the risk of massive intraoperative hemorrhage and exacerbates the risk of high-output cardiac failure.
Question 4148
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
When performing a total knee arthroplasty in a patient with advanced Paget's disease of the tibia, which of the following statements regarding the expected surgical outcome and technical considerations is most accurate?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Aseptic loosening rates are similar to primary osteoarthritis, but intraoperative blood loss is higher.
Explanation
TKA in Paget's disease yields long-term outcomes and aseptic loosening rates comparable to primary osteoarthritis when cemented implants are used. However, surgeons must anticipate higher intraoperative blood loss and challenges with bone deformity.
Question 4149
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A girl with a 3 cm right leg length discrepancy (LLD) has a skeletal bone age of 11 years. Assuming skeletal maturity at age 14, what is the most appropriate management to achieve limb equality at maturity based on the Menelaus method?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Left distal femoral epiphysiodesis immediately
Explanation
The Menelaus method estimates distal femoral growth at 10 mm per year. With 3 years of growth remaining (bone age 11 to 14), a contralateral left distal femoral epiphysiodesis will yield approximately 3 cm of relative correction, matching her discrepancy.
Question 4150
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
An 8-year-old girl has a predicted leg length discrepancy of 3.5 cm at maturity due to a prior distal femoral physeal fracture. What is the most appropriate definitive management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Contralateral distal femoral epiphysiodesis at the appropriate age
Explanation
A predicted leg length discrepancy of 2.0 to 5.0 cm at maturity is optimally treated with a precisely timed contralateral epiphysiodesis. Lengthening is generally reserved for discrepancies greater than 5 cm.
Question 4151
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
When planning a distal femoral corrective osteotomy, understanding the relationship between the mechanical and anatomic axes of the femur is critical. In a normal femur, the angle between the anatomic and mechanical axes (AMA angle) typically measures:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 5 to 7 degrees
Explanation
The anatomic-mechanical angle (AMA) of the femur normally averages 7 degrees (range 5 to 9 degrees). This relationship is foundational for both deformity correction and determining the distal femoral cut in total knee arthroplasty.
Question 4152
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
An 11-year-old girl with a skeletal age of 11 presents with a projected leg length discrepancy (LLD) of 3 cm. Assuming standard growth rates, how much length correction can be anticipated if a contralateral distal femoral epiphysiodesis is performed today?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 30 mm
Explanation
Girls typically reach skeletal maturity at age 14, leaving 3 years of growth. The distal femoral physis grows at approximately 10 mm (3/8 inch) per year, yielding 30 mm of correction over 3 years.
Question 4153
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A patient presents with a projected leg length discrepancy at maturity of 1.5 cm due to a mild congenital hemihypertrophy. What is the most appropriate management recommendation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Observation or use of a shoe lift
Explanation
Projected leg length discrepancies of less than 2.0 cm at skeletal maturity are generally asymptomatic and do not require surgical intervention. They are best managed with observation or a simple shoe lift if symptomatic.
Question 4154
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A 40-year-old patient presents with a symptomatic valgus deformity of 15 degrees originating entirely within the distal femur. To restore the mechanical axis while avoiding leg length discrepancy, which procedure is mechanically most sound if lengthening is strictly avoided?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Medial closing-wedge distal femoral osteotomy
Explanation
A femoral deformity should be corrected at the femur (avoiding compensatory deformities). A medial closing-wedge distal femoral osteotomy corrects valgus. While lateral opening-wedge is also an option, medial closing avoids lengthening and requires less grafting.
Question 4155
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A patient with a 4 cm structural right leg length discrepancy stands barefoot. To maintain truncal balance and visual gaze, which compensatory mechanism is primarily utilized by the pelvis and hips?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Left hip abduction and right hip adduction
Explanation
When standing with a short right leg, the pelvis drops on the right side. This effectively positions the right hip in relative adduction and the longer left leg in relative abduction to maintain balance.
Question 4156
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 3-week-old infant presents with fever, irritability, and pseudoparalysis of the right leg. Ultrasound confirms a large hip effusion.
If surgical drainage is delayed, what is the most severe and irreversible complication according to the Choi classification?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Complete destruction of the femoral head and neck with dislocation
Explanation
Delayed treatment of neonatal septic arthritis (coxitis) can rapidly lead to avascular necrosis and complete destruction of the cartilaginous femoral head and neck. This corresponds to the most severe types in the Choi classification, resulting in permanent instability.
Question 4157
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 65-year-old female presents for her 6-week postoperative visit following a right total hip arthroplasty. She complains of a persistent limp. On physical examination, she demonstrates a positive Trendelenburg sign on the right. Radiographs reveal that the femoral offset of the right hip is 10 mm less than the contralateral, native left hip. Which of the following biomechanical consequences is most likely to occur as a direct result of this decreased femoral offset?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Increased joint reaction force
Explanation
Correct Answer: Increased joint reaction forceFemoral offset is defined as the horizontal distance from the center of rotation of the femoral head to a line bisecting the long axis of the femur. Decreasing the femoral offset shortens the abductor moment arm. Because the body weight moment arm remains constant, the abductor muscles must generate a significantly greater force to maintain a level pelvis during single-leg stance. The joint reaction force across the hip is the vector sum of the body weight and the abductor muscle force. Therefore, an increase in required abductor force directly leads to an increased overall joint reaction force. This can lead to increased polyethylene wear and a persistent Trendelenburg gait due to abductor fatigue or weakness. Increasing offset would increase the bending moment on the stem, not decreasing it.
Question 4158
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 45-year-old highly active male underwent a total hip arthroplasty utilizing a ceramic-on-ceramic bearing surface. Two years postoperatively, he presents complaining of an audible squeaking sound coming from his hip when he walks, particularly when bending or taking long strides. Radiographs show well-fixed components. Which of the following factors is most strongly associated with the development of this specific complication?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Component malpositioning leading to edge loading
Explanation
Correct Answer: Component malpositioning leading to edge loadingSqueaking is a known complication specific to ceramic-on-ceramic (CoC) total hip arthroplasties, occurring in up to 1-10% of patients. The most significant risk factor for squeaking is component malpositioning, specifically acetabular cup anteversion and inclination outside the safe zone, which leads to edge loading. Edge loading disrupts the fluid film lubrication between the ceramic surfaces, causing stripe wear, increased friction, and micro-separation, which manifests clinically as an audible squeak. Other associated factors include younger age, higher activity level, and larger femoral head sizes (not smaller), but edge loading due to malposition is the primary mechanical driver.
Question 4159
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 62-year-old female presents with groin pain one year after an uncomplicated primary total hip arthroplasty. The pain is exacerbated when she actively lifts her leg to get into a car or bed. On examination, resisted active hip flexion reproduces her anterior groin pain. Radiographs demonstrate an uncemented acetabular component with 5 mm of anterior overhang relative to the anterior column. What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Corticosteroid injection into the iliopsoas bursa
Explanation
Correct Answer: Corticosteroid injection into the iliopsoas bursaThis patient's clinical presentation is classic for iliopsoas impingement following total hip arthroplasty. Symptoms include activity-related groin pain, particularly with active hip flexion (e.g., getting into a car). It is often caused by a prominent anterior edge of the acetabular component irritating the iliopsoas tendon. The initial management for iliopsoas impingement should always be nonoperative, consisting of physical therapy, NSAIDs, and an image-guided corticosteroid injection into the iliopsoas bursa. This provides both diagnostic confirmation and therapeutic relief. If conservative measures fail after a prolonged trial, surgical intervention (such as arthroscopic or open iliopsoas tenotomy, or acetabular revision if the component is severely malpositioned or loose) may be considered.
Question 4160
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 70-year-old male presents with new-onset right hip pain 3 years after a total hip arthroplasty. He denies any recent illness or trauma. His ESR is 45 mm/hr (normal <20) and CRP is 2.5 mg/dL (normal <1.0). A diagnostic hip aspiration yields cloudy fluid with a synovial white blood cell (WBC) count of 4,500 cells/ยตL and 85% polymorphonuclear neutrophils (PMNs). An alpha-defensin test is positive. Based on the Musculoskeletal Infection Society (MSIS) criteria, what is the most appropriate definitive surgical treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Two-stage exchange arthroplasty
Explanation
This patient meets the criteria for a chronic periprosthetic joint infection (PJI). According to the MSIS criteria, a synovial WBC > 3,000 cells/ยตL or > 80% PMNs in a hip > 90 days post-op is highly indicative of infection. Elevated ESR/CRP and a positive alpha-defensin further confirm the diagnosis. Because the infection is chronic (occurring 3 years postoperatively with new-onset symptoms, not an acute hematogenous spread within 3 weeks), irrigation and debridement with modular exchange (DAIR) is contraindicated due to the presence of mature biofilm. The gold standard treatment for chronic PJI in North America is a two-stage exchange arthroplasty, which involves removal of all components, placement of an antibiotic spacer, a course of IV antibiotics, and subsequent reimplantation.
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