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Question 4061

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A healthy 65-year-old man is scheduled for an elective THA for primary osteoarthritis. He has no personal or family history of venous thromboembolism. According to the AAOS clinical practice guidelines, which of the following regimens is highly utilized and acceptable for VTE prophylaxis in this patient?

. Warfarin titrated to an INR of 2.5-3.5
. Aspirin
. Unfractionated heparin continuous infusion
. Clopidogrel
. Placement of a prophylactic IVC filter

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Aspirin


Explanation

Current AAOS guidelines support the use of aspirin for VTE prophylaxis in standard-risk patients undergoing total joint arthroplasty. Aspirin provides adequate protection against VTE while minimizing the risk of postoperative bleeding complications.

Question 4062

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During revision of a metal-on-metal THA for a symptomatic pseudotumor, tissue samples are sent for histopathology. Which of the following histologic findings is characteristic of an adverse local tissue reaction (ALTR/ALVAL) associated with this bearing surface?

. Abundant sheets of polymorphonuclear leukocytes with fibrin exudate
. Perivascular lymphocytic infiltrate with extensive tissue necrosis
. Birefringent polymeric particles with multinucleated giant cells
. Caseating granulomas with Langhans giant cells
. Monosodium urate crystals surrounded by macrophages

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Perivascular lymphocytic infiltrate with extensive tissue necrosis


Explanation

Aseptic Lymphocyte-Dominated Vasculitis-Associated Lesions (ALVAL), a form of ALTR seen in metal-on-metal implants, classically present with a perivascular lymphocytic infiltrate and areas of extensive macroscopic tissue necrosis on histology.

Question 4063

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A 60-year-old woman is 6 weeks post-primary THA. She complains her operative leg feels 1 cm longer. Clinical examination and standing radiographs confirm a 1 cm lengthening on the operative side. Her hip is completely stable. What is the most appropriate initial management?

. Immediate revision THA to shorten the neck length
. Prescription of a 1 cm shoe lift for the contralateral leg
. Reassurance and observation for up to 6 months
. Botulinum toxin injection to the abductors
. Closed manipulation under anesthesia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Reassurance and observation for up to 6 months


Explanation

Perceived leg length discrepancy is very common in the early postoperative period after THA, often due to pelvic obliquity and resolving muscle contractures. Reassurance and observation for 3-6 months is appropriate, as most patients accommodate over time.

Question 4064

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 72-year-old woman presents to the emergency department after a fall. Radiographs show a displaced fracture around the distal aspect of a cemented femoral stem placed 8 years ago. The cement mantle is fractured, and the stem has subsided 2 cm. What is the most appropriate management?

. Open reduction internal fixation with a locking plate
. Revision to a fully porous-coated long cementless stem
. Revision to a standard length cemented stem
. Open reduction internal fixation with strut allografts
. Nonoperative management with protected weight-bearing

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Revision to a fully porous-coated long cementless stem


Explanation

This is a Vancouver B2 periprosthetic femur fracture, characterized by a fracture around or just below a loose stem with adequate bone stock. The standard of care is revision arthroplasty using a diaphyseal-engaging, long cementless stem with cables or cerclage wires.

Question 4065

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 68-year-old man presents with progressive groin pain and a palpable mass 6 years after a metal-on-polyethylene total hip arthroplasty. Laboratory testing reveals normal ESR and CRP, but elevated serum cobalt levels with normal chromium levels. MRI demonstrates a large cystic fluid collection. What is the most likely etiology of his symptoms?

. Galvanic corrosion at the head-neck junction
. Polyethylene wear-induced osteolysis
. Low-grade periprosthetic joint infection
. Metal-on-metal bearing surface wear
. Impingement of the iliopsoas tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Galvanic corrosion at the head-neck junction


Explanation

Trunnionosis results from mechanically assisted crevice corrosion at the modular head-neck junction (taper), releasing cobalt out of proportion to chromium. It can cause an adverse local tissue reaction (ALTR) presenting as a pseudotumor, even in metal-on-polyethylene implants.

Question 4066

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 62-year-old woman is evaluated for a painful total hip arthroplasty. Hip aspiration yields synovial fluid with a WBC count of 2,800 cells/mcL and 60% polymorphonuclear cells. The synovial fluid alpha-defensin immunoassay is positive. Which of the following accurately describes the utility of the alpha-defensin test in this setting?

. It is a marker of osteolysis and aseptic loosening
. It is highly sensitive and specific for periprosthetic joint infection
. It has high specificity but low sensitivity for acute infections only
. It is invalidated by the presence of blood in the synovial fluid
. It requires 7 days of incubation to yield a reliable result

Correct Answer & Explanation

. It is highly sensitive and specific for periprosthetic joint infection


Explanation

Alpha-defensin is an antimicrobial peptide released by neutrophils in response to pathogens. In the setting of periprosthetic joint infection (PJI), the synovial fluid alpha-defensin test is highly sensitive and specific, and it is not adversely affected by the prior use of antibiotics or bloody aspirates.

Question 4067

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 35-year-old woman with a history of chronic corticosteroid use presents with insidious onset of anterior hip pain. MRI reveals a well-demarcated subchondral lesion in the anterosuperior femoral head with a double-line sign on T2-weighted images, without evidence of subchondral collapse. What is the most appropriate initial surgical intervention?

. Total hip arthroplasty
. Hip resurfacing arthroplasty
. Core decompression
. Proximal femoral osteotomy
. Arthroscopic debridement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Core decompression


Explanation

The patient has pre-collapse avascular necrosis (AVN) of the femoral head (Ficat Stage I or II). Core decompression is the most appropriate surgical treatment to relieve intraosseous pressure and promote revascularization prior to the development of subchondral collapse.

Question 4068

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 70-year-old man underwent a primary right total hip arthroplasty via a direct lateral (Hardinge) approach. Postoperatively, he exhibits a pronounced Trendelenburg lurch and inability to actively abduct the right hip against gravity. Injury to which of the following structures most likely occurred during the surgical exposure?

. Sciatic nerve
. Superior gluteal nerve
. Inferior gluteal nerve
. Pudendal nerve
. Femoral nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Superior gluteal nerve


Explanation

The direct lateral (Hardinge) approach involves splitting the gluteus medius and minimus. Proximal extension of this split greater than 3 to 5 cm from the greater trochanter places the superior gluteal nerve at risk, potentially leading to abductor paralysis and a Trendelenburg gait.

Question 4069

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 42-year-old woman with advanced primary osteoarthritis of the hip desires a metal-on-metal hip resurfacing arthroplasty to maintain her high-impact athletic lifestyle. Which of the following patient factors represents an absolute contraindication to this specific procedure?

. Age under 45 years
. Male gender
. Known metal hypersensitivity
. Body Mass Index > 30
. Acetabular retroversion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Known metal hypersensitivity


Explanation

Metal-on-metal hip resurfacing requires a bearing surface containing cobalt and chromium. Known metal hypersensitivity, advanced chronic kidney disease, and severe osteopenia/osteoporosis are absolute contraindications to this procedure.

Question 4070

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

Increasing femoral offset during total hip arthroplasty, without altering leg length, results in which of the following biomechanical changes?

. Decreased abductor muscle tension
. Increased joint reaction force
. Decreased bending moment on the femoral stem
. Increased abductor moment arm
. Decreased range of motion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increased joint reaction force


Explanation

Increasing femoral offset increases the abductor moment arm, which decreases the required abductor muscle force and subsequently decreases the overall joint reaction force. However, it does increase the bending moment on the femoral stem.

Question 4071

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 62-year-old man presents with progressive groin pain 5 years after receiving a metal-on-polyethylene total hip arthroplasty. Laboratory tests reveal a serum cobalt level of 12 ppb and a normal serum chromium level. Inflammatory markers are normal. What is the most likely etiology?

. Polyethylene wear debris
. ALVAL secondary to bearing surface wear
. Mechanically assisted crevice corrosion
. Low-grade periprosthetic joint infection
. Galvanic corrosion at the stem-cement interface

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Mechanically assisted crevice corrosion


Explanation

Trunnionosis occurs via mechanically assisted crevice corrosion at the modular head-neck junction. This typically presents with isolated elevations of serum cobalt with normal chromium in metal-on-polyethylene implants.

Question 4072

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 70-year-old woman with a T10-to-pelvis posterior spinal fusion undergoes a total hip arthroplasty. Because of her spinal fusion, her pelvis is unable to tilt posteriorly when she transitions from standing to sitting. To minimize the risk of posterior dislocation, how should the acetabular component positioning be adjusted?

. Increase anteversion
. Decrease anteversion
. Increase inclination
. Decrease inclination
. Place in neutral version

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increase anteversion


Explanation

Patients with stiff spinopelvic constructs (unable to posteriorly tilt during sitting) fail to increase functional acetabular anteversion in flexion. Surgeons must compensate by increasing the resting anteversion of the acetabular cup to prevent posterior dislocation.

Question 4073

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 78-year-old woman sustains a periprosthetic femur fracture around a cemented femoral stem. Radiographs demonstrate a fracture at the tip of the stem with evidence of cement mantle fracture and stem subsidence. The distal bone stock is adequate. According to the Vancouver classification, what is the most appropriate management?

. Open reduction and internal fixation with a lateral locking plate
. Revision to a standard-length cemented stem
. Revision to a long fully porous-coated or fluted tapered stem
. Strut allografting alone
. Cortical windowing and impaction bone grafting

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Revision to a long fully porous-coated or fluted tapered stem


Explanation

This is a Vancouver B2 fracture, characterized by a fracture around a loose stem with adequate bone stock. The standard of care is revision arthroplasty using a long stem that bypasses the fracture by at least two cortical diameters.

Question 4074

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)



A 55-year-old woman presents with hip pain and a palpable groin mass 6 years after a metal-on-metal hip resurfacing. Histologic examination of the periarticular tissue is most likely to reveal which of the following predominant features?

. Diffuse polymorphonuclear cell infiltrate
. Acellular fibrous capsule with abundant polyethylene debris
. Perivascular lymphocytic infiltrate with tissue necrosis
. Multinucleated giant cells with birefringent particles
. Caseating granulomas with epithelioid macrophages

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Perivascular lymphocytic infiltrate with tissue necrosis


Explanation

Adverse local tissue reactions to metal debris (ALVAL) are characterized by a delayed type IV hypersensitivity response. Histology shows a predominant perivascular lymphocytic infiltrate, massive tissue necrosis, and macrophages containing metal particles.

Question 4075

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 45-year-old highly active man underwent a ceramic-on-ceramic total hip arthroplasty 3 years ago. He now complains of a loud squeaking noise from the hip when bending and walking, without significant pain. What is the most likely biomechanical cause of this phenomenon?

. Fluid film lubrication failure
. Third-body wear from retained bone cement
. Stripe wear due to edge loading
. Impingement of the femoral neck on the labrum
. Galvanic corrosion at the head-neck junction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Stripe wear due to edge loading


Explanation

Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic hips is heavily associated with edge loading, often due to component malpositioning (e.g., steep cup inclination or excessive retroversion). This edge loading causes localized stripe wear and micro-separation, leading to the audible noise.

Question 4076

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Increasing the femoral offset in total hip arthroplasty results in which of the following biomechanical changes?

. Decreased abductor lever arm
. Increased required abductor force
. Decreased joint reaction force
. Increased impingement risk
. Increased wear rates

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Decreased joint reaction force


Explanation

Increasing femoral offset lengthens the abductor moment arm. This improves abductor mechanical advantage, requiring less muscle force to stabilize the pelvis, which consequently decreases the overall joint reaction force on the hip.

Question 4077

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A 72-year-old male presents with a periprosthetic femur fracture around a cemented femoral stem 10 years post-THA. Radiographs show a fracture extending from the lesser trochanter to the distal tip of the stem, with a radiographically loose stem and poor bone stock. What is the most appropriate management?

. Open reduction and internal fixation with a lateral locking plate
. Revision to a fully porous-coated cylindrical long stem
. Revision to a fluted, tapered modular stem
. Cortical strut allograft only
. Cable fixation alone

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Revision to a fluted, tapered modular stem


Explanation

This is a Vancouver B3 fracture, characterized by a fracture around a loose stem with poor bone stock. A fluted, tapered modular stem or proximal femoral replacement is indicated to bypass the defect and achieve diaphyseal fixation.

Question 4078

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

According to the 2018 International Consensus Meeting criteria, which of the following is considered a major criterion, diagnostic in itself, for periprosthetic joint infection (PJI)?

. Elevated serum CRP and ESR
. Elevated synovial fluid leukocyte esterase
. Single positive intraoperative tissue culture
. Presence of a sinus tract communicating with the joint
. Positive alpha-defensin test

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Presence of a sinus tract communicating with the joint


Explanation

A sinus tract communicating with the joint or two positive cultures with the same organism are considered major criteria that definitively diagnose a periprosthetic joint infection.

Question 4079

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 35-year-old male with a history of systemic lupus erythematosus treated with corticosteroids presents with groin pain. An MRI confirms stage II osteonecrosis of the right femoral head with no evidence of subchondral collapse. He has a 30% involvement of the weight-bearing portion. Which is the most appropriate initial surgical intervention?

. Core decompression
. Free vascularized fibular graft
. Total hip arthroplasty
. Resurfacing arthroplasty
. Proximal femoral osteotomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Core decompression


Explanation

Core decompression is the standard, least invasive initial surgical treatment for pre-collapse (Stage I or II) osteonecrosis of the femoral head to reduce intraosseous pressure and promote revascularization.

Question 4080

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Ceramic-on-ceramic (CoC) bearing surfaces in total hip arthroplasty are characterized by which of the following compared to metal-on-polyethylene?

. Lower volumetric wear rate and higher risk of component fracture
. Higher volumetric wear rate and higher risk of component fracture
. Lower volumetric wear rate and lower risk of squeaking
. Higher incidence of osteolysis
. Decreased wetability and increased friction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lower volumetric wear rate and higher risk of component fracture


Explanation

Ceramic-on-ceramic bearings offer extremely low volumetric wear and excellent lubrication but carry a distinct risk of catastrophic ceramic fracture and joint squeaking compared to polyethylene bearings.