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Question 381

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 58-year-old female complains of localized anterior groin pain starting 6 months after a cementless total hip arthroplasty. The pain is exacerbated by straight leg raising and transitioning from a seated to a standing position. A diagnostic image-guided injection of anesthetic into the iliopsoas bursa provides complete temporary relief. Cross-sectional imaging is most likely to show which of the following?

. Anterior overhang of the acetabular component
. Excessive retroversion of the femoral stem
. Posterior overhang of the acetabular component
. Significant trunnionosis with pseudotumor
. Subsidence of the femoral stem

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior overhang of the acetabular component


Explanation

Iliopsoas impingement after THA classically presents with anterior groin pain exacerbated by active hip flexion. It is most frequently caused by an anteriorly prominent or overhanging acetabular component mechanically irritating the iliopsoas tendon.

Question 382

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 62-year-old male undergoes revision shoulder arthroplasty for unexplained pain and subtle loosening 2 years after his primary surgery. Intraoperative cultures are taken. Fourteen days later, the lab reports growth of Cutibacterium (Propionibacterium) acnes. What are the microbiologic characteristics of this organism?

. Gram-negative, aerobic bacillus
. Gram-positive, aerobic coccus
. Gram-positive, anaerobic bacillus
. Gram-negative, anaerobic coccus
. Acid-fast, aerobic bacillus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Gram-positive, anaerobic bacillus


Explanation

Cutibacterium acnes is a Gram-positive, anaerobic (to microaerophilic) bacillus that is part of the normal skin flora, particularly in the shoulder region. Because it is slow-growing, cultures must often be held for up to 14 days to detect it in cases of prosthetic joint infection.

Question 383

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

A 1-year-old presents with a short right lower limb and foot deformities. The image below is obtained during the initial evaluation to assess the overall limb. The clinical team suspects fibular deficiency.

Based on the comprehensive assessment principles outlined in the case, what is the MOST critical next step in accurately evaluating this child's limb length discrepancy and overall mechanical alignment?

. Immediate Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) of the entire limb
. Standing full-length AP/Lateral radiographs (LLDograms)
. Genetic testing for associated syndromes
. Bone biopsy of the distal tibia
. Surgical exploration of the ankle joint

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Standing full-length AP/Lateral radiographs (LLDograms)


Explanation

Correct Answer: BThe correct answer is standing full-length AP/Lateral radiographs (LLDograms). The case emphasizes the importance of radiographic imaging, stating: 'Standing Full-Length AP/Lateral Radiographs (LLDograms): Essential for accurate LLD measurement and assessment of overall mechanical alignment of the lower extremity. These are critical for quantifying angular deformities and planning osteotomies.' While MRI is useful for soft tissue and growth plate assessment, and genetic testing may be considered for associated syndromes, LLDograms are the most critical and standard initial imaging modality for precisely quantifying LLD and overall mechanical alignment, which are fundamental for diagnosis and treatment planning in fibular deficiency. Bone biopsy and surgical exploration are invasive procedures not indicated as initial diagnostic steps for LLD and alignment.

Question 384

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Following neoadjuvant chemotherapy, the patient underwent restaging MRI, which demonstrated a reduction in peritumoral edema and no evidence of neurovascular encasement. Given the patient's age, skeletal maturity, and family preference, limb salvage with wide en bloc resection and modular distal femoral replacement was chosen. Which of the following factors was a primary reason *against* recommending a rotationplasty (Van Nes procedure) in this specific patient?

. The patient's young age, making long-term prosthesis durability a concern.
. The extensive neurovascular encasement by the tumor, precluding rotationplasty.
. The inability of rotationplasty to achieve adequate oncologic margins for distal femoral tumors.
. The significant cosmetic and psychological challenges associated with the procedure.
. The high risk of deep infection and aseptic loosening compared to endoprosthetic reconstruction.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The significant cosmetic and psychological challenges associated with the procedure.


Explanation

Correct Answer: DThe case states that rotationplasty 'was discussed extensively with the patient and family, but they opted for endoprosthetic reconstruction' and that it 'is associated with significant cosmetic and psychological challenges.' This indicates that the patient and family's preference, influenced by the cosmetic and psychological impact, was the primary reason it was not chosen, despite its functional advantages. Option A is incorrect; rotationplasty offers excellent long-term durability, often superior to endoprostheses, especially in young, active patients. Option B is incorrect; the restaging MRI showed no neurovascular encasement, making limb salvage (including rotationplasty) feasible. Option C is incorrect; rotationplasty is an oncologically sound procedure that allows for wide margins. Option E is incorrect; rotationplasty generally has a lower risk of long-term mechanical failure, aseptic loosening, and deep infection compared to massive endoprostheses.

Question 385

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

Which of the following surgical approaches to the hip carries the highest risk of injury to the superior gluteal nerve?

. Direct anterior approach
. Posterior approach
. Direct lateral approach (Hardinge)
. Anterolateral approach (Watson-Jones)
. Transtrochanteric approach

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Direct lateral approach (Hardinge)


Explanation

Correct Answer: CThe direct lateral approach (Hardinge approach) involves incising the fascia lata and splitting the gluteus medius abductor insertion, which places the superior gluteal nerve at risk. The superior gluteal nerve innervates the gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, and tensor fascia lata. Injury to this nerve can lead to a Trendelenburg gait. While all approaches have specific nerve risks, the direct lateral approach is particularly known for this risk due to its dissection plane. The posterior approach risks the sciatic nerve, the direct anterior approach risks the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve, and the anterolateral approach carries a lower risk of superior gluteal nerve injury compared to the direct lateral but still involves the abductors.

Question 386

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During a primary total knee arthroplasty, the surgeon notes the knee is balanced in extension but is tight in flexion. Which of the following steps is the most appropriate next maneuver to balance the knee?

. Recut the distal femur
. Decrease the posterior tibial slope
. Release the posterior capsule
. Upsize the femoral component
. Translate the femoral component anteriorly or downsize the femoral component

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Translate the femoral component anteriorly or downsize the femoral component


Explanation

A tight flexion gap with a balanced extension gap implies the posterior condyles of the femoral component are excessively prominent. Downsizing the femoral component or translating it anteriorly will increase the flexion gap without affecting the extension gap.

Question 387

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 55-year-old active male undergoes a total hip arthroplasty using a ceramic-on-ceramic bearing surface. Which of the following is the most commonly cited specific complication unique to this hard-on-hard bearing articulation?

. Trunnionosis
. Stripe wear
. Squeaking
. Metallosis
. Pseudotumor formation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Squeaking


Explanation

Squeaking is a unique and potentially bothersome complication of ceramic-on-ceramic total hip arthroplasties, occurring in up to 10% of patients. While stripe wear can occur, squeaking is the classic clinical manifestation distinct to this bearing.

Question 388

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A 65-year-old male presents with groin pain 4 years after a total hip arthroplasty utilizing a titanium stem and a 36-mm cobalt-chromium head. Inflammatory markers are normal, but metal ion levels (cobalt) are elevated. What is the most likely source of the elevated metal ions?

. Femoral stem loosening
. Acetabular component wear
. Corrosion at the head-neck junction
. Polyethylene debris
. Third-body wear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Corrosion at the head-neck junction


Explanation

Trunnionosis (fretting and corrosion at the modular head-neck junction) is associated with large-diameter cobalt-chromium heads on titanium stems. It leads to elevated serum cobalt levels and adverse local tissue reactions.

Question 389

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 65-year-old female presents 1 year after a posterior-stabilized total knee arthroplasty with a painful catching sensation when extending her knee from a flexed position. What is the underlying etiology of this condition?

. Oversized femoral component
. Fibrous nodule impingement in the intercondylar box
. Patellar component loosening
. Undersized tibial component
. Aseptic loosening of the femoral stem

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Fibrous nodule impingement in the intercondylar box


Explanation

Patellar clunk syndrome occurs in posterior-stabilized TKA when a fibrous nodule forms on the undersurface of the distal quadriceps tendon. This nodule catches in the intercondylar box of the femoral component during extension from a flexed position.

Question 390

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 45-year-old male undergoes a total hip arthroplasty using a ceramic-on-ceramic bearing. At a 2-year follow-up, he complains of an audible squeaking noise with hip flexion but denies pain. Radiographs show a well-fixed implant. What is the most common cause of this phenomenon?

. Aseptic component loosening
. Polyethylene wear debris
. Edge loading due to component malposition
. Subclinical periprosthetic joint infection
. Iliopsoas impingement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Edge loading due to component malposition


Explanation

Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic THA is typically related to edge loading, often resulting from cup malposition (excessive anteversion or inclination). If asymptomatic and well-fixed, no immediate revision is necessary, but the patient should be monitored.

Question 391

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

According to the Musculoskeletal Infection Society (MSIS) criteria, which of the following is considered a major criterion for diagnosing a periprosthetic joint infection (PJI)?

. Elevated serum C-reactive protein (CRP) > 10 mg/L
. Elevated synovial fluid white blood cell count > 3,000 cells/uL
. A single positive intraoperative tissue culture
. Presence of a sinus tract communicating with the joint
. Purulence in the joint space noted by the surgeon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Presence of a sinus tract communicating with the joint


Explanation

The major diagnostic criteria for PJI include a sinus tract communicating with the prosthesis or two positive periprosthetic cultures with phenotypically identical organisms. The other listed options represent minor criteria.

Question 392

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 60-year-old male presents with an audible squeaking sound from his right hip, which underwent a ceramic-on-ceramic total hip arthroplasty 3 years ago. What biomechanical phenomenon is most frequently associated with squeaking in this specific bearing surface?

. Head-neck taper corrosion (trunnionosis)
. Stripe wear from edge loading
. Polyethylene oxidation
. Stem subsidence
. Galvanic corrosion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Stripe wear from edge loading


Explanation

Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic THA is highly associated with edge loading due to component malposition (e.g., excessive cup anteversion or steep inclination). This edge loading leads to stripe wear and subsequent loss of fluid-film lubrication.

Question 393

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During a total knee arthroplasty (TKA), the surgeon inadvertently places the femoral component in excessive internal rotation. What is the most likely biomechanical consequence of this specific malpositioning?

. Lateral patellar subluxation and maltracking
. Medial patellar subluxation
. A tight extension gap
. A loose flexion gap
. Increased femoral rollback during deep flexion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral patellar subluxation and maltracking


Explanation

Internal rotation of the femoral component moves the trochlear groove medially relative to the patella. This effectively increases the Q-angle dynamically, leading to lateral patellar maltracking, tilt, and potential subluxation.

Question 394

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

Which of the following anatomic factors is most strongly associated with an increased risk of non-contact ACL ruptures in female athletes?

. Decreased Q angle
. Wider intercondylar notch
. Decreased posterior tibial slope
. Increased posterior tibial slope
. Genu varum alignment

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increased posterior tibial slope


Explanation

An increased posterior tibial slope increases anterior tibial translation under axial loading, significantly raising the risk of ACL rupture. Other risk factors in females include a narrow intercondylar notch and increased Q angle.

Question 395

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During the initial surgical debridement of a high-pressure injection injury to the ring finger, the surgeon needs to achieve wide exposure of the flexor tendon sheath, neurovascular bundles, and joint capsule while minimizing damage to critical structures and reducing the risk of secondary contractures. Based on the detailed surgical approach described in the case, which incision type is the most appropriate choice for this procedure?

. A. A dorsal longitudinal incision along the midline of the digit.
. B. A fish-mouth (racquet) incision extending from the fingertip to the palm.
. C. Mid-axial incisions along the non-weight-bearing surfaces of the digit.
. D. A zigzag (Brunner) incision across the volar aspect of the digit.
. E. A transverse incision at the level of the DIP joint.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C. Mid-axial incisions along the non-weight-bearing surfaces of the digit.


Explanation

Correct Answer: CExplanation:The case explicitly states under 'Incisions for Initial Debridement': 'Mid-axial Incisions: The preferred incision for digital HPII. These incisions are made along the non-weight-bearing surfaces of the digits... Advantages: Provide excellent exposure of the neurovascular bundles, flexor tendon sheath, extensor mechanism, and joint capsules. They minimize damage to the volar skin and preserve dorsal lymphatic drainage.'A. A dorsal longitudinal incision along the midline of the digit:This would not provide adequate exposure to the volar structures (flexor sheath, neurovascular bundles) which are most commonly involved in HPII.B. A fish-mouth (racquet) incision extending from the fingertip to the palm:The case states, 'Fish-mouth (racquet) or Zigzag (Brunner) Incisions: While useful for wide exposure in certain hand injuries, they are generally avoided in acute HPII unless extensive skin necrosis dictates their use, due to the increased risk of skin edge necrosis, scarring, and secondary contractures.'D. A zigzag (Brunner) incision across the volar aspect of the digit:Similar to the fish-mouth incision, Brunner incisions are generally avoided in acute HPII due to the risk of skin edge necrosis and secondary contractures, unless extensive skin necrosis is already present.E. A transverse incision at the level of the DIP joint:A transverse incision would provide very limited exposure and would not allow for adequate debridement of the entire flexor sheath or tracking of injectate proximally or distally.

Question 396

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 68-year-old male undergoes a total hip arthroplasty (THA) for severe osteoarthritis. Postoperatively, he develops sudden onset severe hip pain and inability to bear weight. Radiographs show no obvious dislocation or fracture, but laboratory studies reveal an elevated ESR and CRP. Aspiration yields cloudy fluid with a white cell count of 80,000/ยตL and 90% neutrophils. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics and observation
. Immediate irrigation and debridement with component retention if stable
. Conservative management with pain control and restricted weight-bearing
. Referral for a two-stage revision arthroplasty
. Repeat aspiration in 24 hours to confirm findings

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Immediate irrigation and debridement with component retention if stable


Explanation

Correct Answer: BThis patient presents with acute periprosthetic joint infection (PJI) following THA, evidenced by the sudden onset of severe pain, inability to bear weight, elevated inflammatory markers, and a highly positive aspirate. The white cell count of 80,000/ยตL with 90% neutrophils is highly suggestive of infection. For acute PJI (symptoms <3-4 weeks, well-fixed components), the gold standard is surgical irrigation and debridement (I&D) with component retention and exchange of modular components (liner, head), followed by targeted intravenous antibiotics. Delaying surgical intervention significantly reduces the success rate of component retention. Two-stage revision is typically reserved for chronic PJI or failed acute management. Antibiotics alone are insufficient for established infection with pus.

Question 397

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 75-year-old female with advanced Parkinson's disease falls and sustains a femoral neck fracture. She lives alone, is ambulating with a walker, and has a moderate cognitive impairment. Which of the following surgical options is generally preferred?

. Cannulated screw fixation
. Hemiarthroplasty
. Total hip arthroplasty (THA)
. Non-operative management with bed rest
. Plate and screw fixation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hemiarthroplasty


Explanation

Correct Answer: BFor elderly patients with displaced femoral neck fractures and comorbidities (like advanced Parkinson's disease with cognitive impairment) who are not expected to return to high-demand ambulation, hemiarthroplasty is generally preferred. It offers a quicker recovery, lower dislocation risk than THA in a non-compliant patient, and provides reliable pain relief and stability. Cannulated screw fixation is for non-displaced or minimally displaced fractures in younger, healthier patients. THA offers better long-term function but has a higher dislocation risk and is less suitable for patients with severe cognitive impairment or neurological conditions affecting motor control. Non-operative management leads to high mortality and complications. Plate and screw fixation is not standard for femoral neck fractures.

Question 398

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

An 80-year-old patient undergoing rehabilitation after a total hip arthroplasty develops new onset of localized lower abdominal pain and tenderness at a previous laparoscopic cholecystectomy incision site. She reports being able to pass gas but has some difficulty with defecation. Examination reveals a subtle, firm, tender lump. Given her age and recent surgery, an occult Richter hernia should be considered.

What imaging modality would be most sensitive for initial diagnosis?

. Plain abdominal radiography
. Abdominal ultrasound
. CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis with intravenous contrast
. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
. Barium enema

Correct Answer & Explanation

. CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis with intravenous contrast


Explanation

Correct Answer: CACT scan of the abdomen and pelvis with intravenous contrastis the most sensitive and specific imaging modality for diagnosing a Richter hernia. It can clearly visualize the incarcerated bowel segment, assess for mural thickening, fat stranding, and signs of ischemia (e.g., lack of enhancement, pneumatosis), and rule out other causes of abdominal pain. Its ability to provide detailed cross-sectional anatomy is crucial for identifying subtle hernias and assessing bowel viability.Option A (Plain abdominal radiography):Poor for soft tissue detail and often normal in Richter hernias without complete obstruction, making it insensitive.Option B (Abdominal ultrasound):Can be helpful for superficial hernias and assessing bowel peristalsis/vascularity, but it is operator-dependent and may miss deeper or subtle hernias, especially in obese patients.Option D (Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)):Also highly detailed but generally less available for acute emergencies and offers no significant advantage over CT for initial diagnosis of an acute hernia.Option E (Barium enema):Primarily used for colon evaluation and not suitable for acute small bowel pathology like a Richter hernia.

Question 399

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 55-year-old female with severe rheumatoid arthritis is scheduled for an elective total hip arthroplasty. She takes methotrexate and adalimumab. According to the ACR/AAHKS guidelines, what is the most appropriate perioperative management of her medications?

. Stop both medications 2 weeks prior to surgery
. Continue both medications through the perioperative period
. Stop methotrexate 1 week prior and continue adalimumab
. Continue methotrexate and withhold adalimumab for one dosing cycle prior
. Withhold both medications until complete wound healing is achieved

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Continue methotrexate and withhold adalimumab for one dosing cycle prior


Explanation

The ACR/AAHKS guidelines recommend continuing conventional DMARDs like methotrexate perioperatively to prevent disease flares. Biologics like adalimumab should be withheld for one dosing cycle prior to surgery and restarted after wound healing.

Question 400

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 65-year-old male undergoes a primary total hip arthroplasty. He has no personal or family history of venous thromboembolism (VTE). According to current clinical practice guidelines, which of the following is an acceptable strategy for postoperative VTE prophylaxis?

. Aspirin monotherapy
. Warfarin titrated to an INR target of 3.0
. Subcutaneous enoxaparin for a maximum of 5 days
. Continuous intravenous heparin infusion
. No pharmacological prophylaxis is indicated

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Aspirin monotherapy


Explanation

For standard-risk patients undergoing total joint arthroplasty, evidence supports the use of aspirin as an effective and safe method for VTE prophylaxis. It adequately balances the risk of thromboembolism with the risk of postoperative bleeding.