This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee). Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 3721
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 55-year-old man undergoes cementless total hip arthroplasty with a ceramic-on-ceramic bearing. At his 2-year follow-up, he complains of an audible squeaking sound during certain activities, though he has no pain. Radiographs (
) show well-fixed components. What is the most significant risk factor associated with this phenomenon?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Acetabular cup retroversion
Explanation
Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic hips is most strongly associated with component malpositioning, particularly acetabular cup retroversion or steep inclination. This leads to edge loading, stripe wear, and subsequent micro-separation and audible noise.
Question 3722
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 68-year-old woman presents with persistent hip pain 3 years after a primary THA. Her ESR is 45 mm/hr and CRP is 25 mg/L. Aspiration yields a synovial WBC count of 3,500 cells/uL with 75% PMNs. Based on the 2018 International Consensus Meeting (ICM) criteria, what is the next best step to establish the diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Synovial alpha-defensin test
Explanation
According to the 2018 ICM criteria, this patient has an inconclusive minor score based on her ESR, CRP, synovial WBC, and PMN percentage. Adding a synovial alpha-defensin test or synovial CRP serves as an adjunct to definitively confirm or rule out periprosthetic joint infection.
Question 3723
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 32-year-old man on chronic corticosteroids presents with bilateral hip pain. MRI (
) reveals pre-collapse avascular necrosis of the femoral head (Ficat stage II). Core decompression is planned. What is the primary mechanism by which core decompression provides pain relief and attempts to halt disease progression?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Reduction of intraosseous venous pressure
Explanation
Core decompression primarily aims to relieve elevated intraosseous pressure caused by venous stasis and edema within the femoral head. By reducing this pressure, it provides pain relief and facilitates the ingrowth of new vascularity.
Question 3724
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 72-year-old woman presents for revision THA due to aseptic loosening. Intraoperatively, complete separation of the superior and inferior hemipelvis through the acetabulum is noted, along with significant host bone compromise. What is the most appropriate reconstructive technique for this pelvic discontinuity?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Cup-cage construct
Explanation
Pelvic discontinuity with massive bone loss requires rigid fixation bridging the superior and inferior pelvic segments to allow healing. A cup-cage construct or custom triflange provides the necessary mechanical stability across the defect.
Question 3725
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A 65-year-old man experiences recurrent posterior dislocations after a primary THA. Radiographs (
) show the acetabular component in 30 degrees of inclination and 5 degrees of retroversion. The femoral stem is neutrally versioned. Which surgical intervention is most likely to resolve the instability?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Revision of the acetabular component to 15 degrees of anteversion
Explanation
The primary cause of the recurrent posterior instability is acetabular component retroversion. Revising the cup to the safe zone (roughly 40 degrees inclination and 15-20 degrees anteversion) directly addresses the structural root cause of the dislocations.
Question 3726
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 72-year-old woman with a history of recurrent instability following a revision THA is treated with a dual-mobility construct. Two years later, she presents with an acute inability to bear weight after a minor fall. Radiographs show eccentric position of the femoral head within the larger polyethylene liner.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Intraprosthetic dislocation
Explanation
Intraprosthetic dislocation is a complication unique to dual-mobility bearings, occurring when the small femoral head dislocates from the captive polyethylene liner. It classically presents with eccentric positioning of the metallic head within the liner on radiographs.
Question 3727
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A 45-year-old active male underwent a cementless THA with a ceramic-on-ceramic bearing. Three years postoperatively, he complains of a new, audible squeaking sound from his hip during deep flexion. Radiographs demonstrate well-fixed components with the acetabular cup placed at 60 degrees of inclination and 30 degrees of anteversion.
What is the most likely cause of the squeaking?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Edge loading due to component malposition
Explanation
Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic THA is often associated with edge loading, which disrupts the fluid film lubrication. This is most commonly caused by component malposition, such as excessive cup inclination or anteversion.
Question 3728
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 55-year-old man presents with groin pain and a palpable anterior hip mass 7 years after a metal-on-metal resurfacing arthroplasty. Cobalt and chromium levels are significantly elevated. MRI reveals a thick-walled cystic collection communicating with the joint.
Histological examination of the periprosthetic tissue is most likely to show which of the following?
Adverse local tissue reactions (ALTR) or pseudotumors in metal-on-metal arthroplasty are characterized histologically by Aseptic Lymphocytic Vasculitis Associated Lesions (ALVAL). This represents a Type IV delayed hypersensitivity response to metal wear debris.
Question 3729
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 65-year-old man presents with a painful THA 2 years postoperatively. His ESR is 45 mm/hr and CRP is 2.5 mg/dL. Hip aspiration yields 4,500 WBC/mcL with 85% neutrophils. An alpha-defensin test is positive.
According to the 2018 International Consensus Meeting (ICM) criteria, what is the diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Definitive periprosthetic joint infection
Explanation
The 2018 ICM criteria assign points for minor criteria including elevated serum CRP, elevated synovial WBC/PMN%, and positive alpha-defensin. A combined score of 6 or greater definitively diagnoses a periprosthetic joint infection.
Question 3730
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A 55-year-old active man presents with an audible squeaking sound originating from his hip that occurs when bending or walking.
He underwent a primary total hip arthroplasty (THA) 4 years ago utilizing a ceramic-on-ceramic bearing. Which of the following factors is most strongly associated with the development of this complication?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Malposition of the acetabular component leading to edge loading
Explanation
Squeaking is a known complication of ceramic-on-ceramic THA bearings, occurring in up to 10% of patients. It is most strongly associated with component malposition, specifically acetabular cup steepness or malversion, which leads to edge loading and loss of fluid film lubrication.
Question 3731
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A 71-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with severe hip pain and inability to bear weight after bending over to pick up an object from the floor.
She underwent a primary THA via a posterior approach 6 weeks ago. Which specific combination of hip movements most commonly precipitates this specific complication?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Hip flexion, adduction, and internal rotation
Explanation
Posterior dislocation is the most common direction of instability following a THA performed via a posterior approach. The classic mechanism of injury involves a combination of hip flexion, adduction, and internal rotation, which levers the femoral head out posteriorly.
Question 3732
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 62-year-old man presents with progressive groin pain and swelling 6 years after a metal-on-polyethylene THA with a modular titanium stem and cobalt-chromium head.
Laboratory studies show an elevated serum cobalt level but a normal chromium level. Aspiration is negative for infection. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Trunnionosis refers to mechanically assisted crevice corrosion at the modular head-neck junction. It is classically associated with metal-on-polyethylene bearings presenting with elevated cobalt relative to chromium, leading to an adverse local tissue reaction (pseudotumor).
Question 3733
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
Following a primary THA performed via a direct lateral (Hardinge) approach, a patient presents with a persistent Trendelenburg gait at 6 months postoperatively.
Which nerve and corresponding muscle group are most at risk of injury with excessive superior splitting of the muscle in this approach?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Superior gluteal nerve innervating the gluteus medius
Explanation
The direct lateral approach involves splitting the gluteus medius and minimus. Proximal extension of this split greater than 3 to 5 cm from the greater trochanter places the superior gluteal nerve at high risk, resulting in denervation of the abductors and a Trendelenburg lurch.
Question 3734
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 38-year-old woman with a history of corticosteroid use for systemic lupus erythematosus presents with a 4-month history of groin pain.
Radiographs and MRI confirm Ficat Stage II osteonecrosis of the right femoral head with no crescent sign and no subchondral collapse. What is the most appropriate initial joint-preserving surgical intervention?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Core decompression
Explanation
Core decompression is the standard initial joint-preserving surgical treatment for early-stage (Ficat I and II) osteonecrosis prior to subchondral collapse. It aims to reduce intraosseous pressure, improve venous drainage, and stimulate revascularization.
Question 3735
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A polished, double-tapered, collarless cemented femoral stem is chosen for an 80-year-old patient undergoing THA.
On which biomechanical principle does this specific stem design rely to achieve and maintain stability?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Force-closed (taper-slip) fixation
Explanation
Polished, double-tapered stems act as a wedge and rely on force-closed (taper-slip) mechanics, allowing the stem to subside slightly within the cement mantle to increase radial compressive forces. In contrast, shape-closed designs rely on a roughened surface bonding to the cement.
Question 3736
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
An 82-year-old woman sustains a fall and incurs a periprosthetic femur fracture around a cemented femoral stem.
Radiographs demonstrate a fracture at the tip of the stem. The cement mantle is fractured, and the stem is clearly loose. The patient has adequate distal bone stock. According to the Vancouver classification, what is the recommended treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Revision total hip arthroplasty with a long uncemented diaphyseal-fitting stem
Explanation
This is a Vancouver B2 periprosthetic fracture (fracture around the stem, loose stem, good bone stock). The standard of care is revision arthroplasty, typically utilizing a long uncemented diaphyseal-fitting stem to bypass the fracture and achieve stable distal fixation.
Question 3737
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Highly cross-linked polyethylene (HXLPE) has significantly reduced the incidence of wear-induced osteolysis in THA.
During the manufacturing process, irradiation is followed by a heating process (remelting or annealing). What is the primary biomechanical purpose of the remelting process?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. To extinguish free radicals and improve oxidation resistance
Explanation
Irradiation creates cross-links but leaves behind free radicals, which can lead to long-term oxidation and material degradation. Remelting (heating above the melting point) effectively extinguishes these trapped free radicals, drastically improving oxidation resistance at a slight cost to fatigue strength.
Question 3738
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 55-year-old patient undergoes revision THA for a failed metal-on-metal implant presenting with a large pseudotumor.
Histopathological examination of the periprosthetic tissue demonstrates an aseptic lymphocytic vasculitis-associated lesion (ALVAL). What is the classic histological hallmark of this reaction?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Perivascular lymphocytic infiltrate with distinct areas of tissue necrosis
Explanation
ALVAL is a delayed-type (Type IV) hypersensitivity reaction primarily mediated by T-lymphocytes responding to metal ions. The pathognomonic histological findings include extensive perivascular lymphocytic infiltration, macrophage accumulation, and marked tissue necrosis.
Question 3739
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A patient is evaluated for a painful total hip arthroplasty 2 years postoperatively.
According to the Musculoskeletal Infection Society (MSIS) and International Consensus Meeting (ICM) criteria, which of the following is considered a definitive "major" criterion for the diagnosis of periprosthetic joint infection (PJI)?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Two positive periprosthetic cultures yielding the same microorganism
Explanation
Under the MSIS/ICM criteria, definitive diagnosis of PJI is established if there is a sinus tract communicating with the joint or two distinct periprosthetic samples yielding the same phenotypically identical organism. Biomarkers like CRP, ESR, and synovial WBC are considered minor criteria.
Question 3740
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
Proper orientation of the acetabular component is critical to minimize the risk of dislocation after THA.
According to the historically established "Lewinnek safe zone", what are the optimal target angles for acetabular inclination (abduction) and anteversion?
Lewinnek famously described a radiographic safe zone for acetabular cup placement consisting of an inclination (abduction) of 40 ± 10 degrees and an anteversion of 15 ± 10 degrees. While modern dynamic spinopelvic parameters adjust these targets, Lewinnek's values remain a foundational concept.
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