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Question 3721

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 55-year-old man undergoes cementless total hip arthroplasty with a ceramic-on-ceramic bearing. At his 2-year follow-up, he complains of an audible squeaking sound during certain activities, though he has no pain. Radiographs (

) show well-fixed components. What is the most significant risk factor associated with this phenomenon?

. Acetabular cup retroversion
. High body mass index
. Femoral stem subsidence
. Short, thick femoral neck
. Use of an elevated rim liner

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Acetabular cup retroversion


Explanation

Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic hips is most strongly associated with component malpositioning, particularly acetabular cup retroversion or steep inclination. This leads to edge loading, stripe wear, and subsequent micro-separation and audible noise.

Question 3722

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 68-year-old woman presents with persistent hip pain 3 years after a primary THA. Her ESR is 45 mm/hr and CRP is 25 mg/L. Aspiration yields a synovial WBC count of 3,500 cells/uL with 75% PMNs. Based on the 2018 International Consensus Meeting (ICM) criteria, what is the next best step to establish the diagnosis?

. Synovial alpha-defensin test
. Proceed to one-stage revision
. Proceed to two-stage exchange arthroplasty
. Start empiric intravenous antibiotics
. Bone scintigraphy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Synovial alpha-defensin test


Explanation

According to the 2018 ICM criteria, this patient has an inconclusive minor score based on her ESR, CRP, synovial WBC, and PMN percentage. Adding a synovial alpha-defensin test or synovial CRP serves as an adjunct to definitively confirm or rule out periprosthetic joint infection.

Question 3723

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 32-year-old man on chronic corticosteroids presents with bilateral hip pain. MRI (

) reveals pre-collapse avascular necrosis of the femoral head (Ficat stage II). Core decompression is planned. What is the primary mechanism by which core decompression provides pain relief and attempts to halt disease progression?

. Stimulation of endochondral ossification
. Reduction of intraosseous venous pressure
. Ablation of sensory nerve endings
. Disruption of the sclerotic rim
. Introduction of multipotent stem cells

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Reduction of intraosseous venous pressure


Explanation

Core decompression primarily aims to relieve elevated intraosseous pressure caused by venous stasis and edema within the femoral head. By reducing this pressure, it provides pain relief and facilitates the ingrowth of new vascularity.

Question 3724

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 72-year-old woman presents for revision THA due to aseptic loosening. Intraoperatively, complete separation of the superior and inferior hemipelvis through the acetabulum is noted, along with significant host bone compromise. What is the most appropriate reconstructive technique for this pelvic discontinuity?

. Jumbo hemispherical cup
. Cup-cage construct
. High hip center with standard cup
. Bipolar hemiarthroplasty
. Resection arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cup-cage construct


Explanation

Pelvic discontinuity with massive bone loss requires rigid fixation bridging the superior and inferior pelvic segments to allow healing. A cup-cage construct or custom triflange provides the necessary mechanical stability across the defect.

Question 3725

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A 65-year-old man experiences recurrent posterior dislocations after a primary THA. Radiographs (

) show the acetabular component in 30 degrees of inclination and 5 degrees of retroversion. The femoral stem is neutrally versioned. Which surgical intervention is most likely to resolve the instability?

. Exchange to a longer femoral head
. Placement of an elevated rim liner posteriorly
. Revision of the acetabular component to 15 degrees of anteversion
. Revision of the femoral stem to 15 degrees of retroversion
. Conversion to a constrained liner

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Revision of the acetabular component to 15 degrees of anteversion


Explanation

The primary cause of the recurrent posterior instability is acetabular component retroversion. Revising the cup to the safe zone (roughly 40 degrees inclination and 15-20 degrees anteversion) directly addresses the structural root cause of the dislocations.

Question 3726

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 72-year-old woman with a history of recurrent instability following a revision THA is treated with a dual-mobility construct. Two years later, she presents with an acute inability to bear weight after a minor fall. Radiographs show eccentric position of the femoral head within the larger polyethylene liner.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Extra-articular dislocation
. Intraprosthetic dislocation
. Polyethylene wear
. Metallosis
. Component loosening

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Intraprosthetic dislocation


Explanation

Intraprosthetic dislocation is a complication unique to dual-mobility bearings, occurring when the small femoral head dislocates from the captive polyethylene liner. It classically presents with eccentric positioning of the metallic head within the liner on radiographs.

Question 3727

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A 45-year-old active male underwent a cementless THA with a ceramic-on-ceramic bearing. Three years postoperatively, he complains of a new, audible squeaking sound from his hip during deep flexion. Radiographs demonstrate well-fixed components with the acetabular cup placed at 60 degrees of inclination and 30 degrees of anteversion.

What is the most likely cause of the squeaking?

. Normal bearing noise
. Edge loading due to component malposition
. Third-body wear
. Impingement of the psoas tendon
. Femoral stem loosening

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Edge loading due to component malposition


Explanation

Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic THA is often associated with edge loading, which disrupts the fluid film lubrication. This is most commonly caused by component malposition, such as excessive cup inclination or anteversion.

Question 3728

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 55-year-old man presents with groin pain and a palpable anterior hip mass 7 years after a metal-on-metal resurfacing arthroplasty. Cobalt and chromium levels are significantly elevated. MRI reveals a thick-walled cystic collection communicating with the joint.

Histological examination of the periprosthetic tissue is most likely to show which of the following?

. Abundant neutrophils and bacterial organisms
. Sheets of plasma cells and Russell bodies
. Extensive perivascular lymphocytic infiltrate (ALVAL)
. Birefringent polyethylene particles
. Malignant spindle cells with high mitotic rate

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Extensive perivascular lymphocytic infiltrate (ALVAL)


Explanation

Adverse local tissue reactions (ALTR) or pseudotumors in metal-on-metal arthroplasty are characterized histologically by Aseptic Lymphocytic Vasculitis Associated Lesions (ALVAL). This represents a Type IV delayed hypersensitivity response to metal wear debris.

Question 3729

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 65-year-old man presents with a painful THA 2 years postoperatively. His ESR is 45 mm/hr and CRP is 2.5 mg/dL. Hip aspiration yields 4,500 WBC/mcL with 85% neutrophils. An alpha-defensin test is positive.

According to the 2018 International Consensus Meeting (ICM) criteria, what is the diagnosis?

. Aseptic loosening
. Indeterminate for periprosthetic joint infection
. Definitive periprosthetic joint infection
. Inflammatory arthropathy
. Metallosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Definitive periprosthetic joint infection


Explanation

The 2018 ICM criteria assign points for minor criteria including elevated serum CRP, elevated synovial WBC/PMN%, and positive alpha-defensin. A combined score of 6 or greater definitively diagnoses a periprosthetic joint infection.

Question 3730

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A 55-year-old active man presents with an audible squeaking sound originating from his hip that occurs when bending or walking.

He underwent a primary total hip arthroplasty (THA) 4 years ago utilizing a ceramic-on-ceramic bearing. Which of the following factors is most strongly associated with the development of this complication?

. Short femoral neck length
. Malposition of the acetabular component leading to edge loading
. High body mass index (BMI)
. Use of an oversized femoral stem
. Impingement of the iliopsoas tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Malposition of the acetabular component leading to edge loading


Explanation

Squeaking is a known complication of ceramic-on-ceramic THA bearings, occurring in up to 10% of patients. It is most strongly associated with component malposition, specifically acetabular cup steepness or malversion, which leads to edge loading and loss of fluid film lubrication.

Question 3731

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A 71-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with severe hip pain and inability to bear weight after bending over to pick up an object from the floor.

She underwent a primary THA via a posterior approach 6 weeks ago. Which specific combination of hip movements most commonly precipitates this specific complication?

. Hip extension, external rotation, and abduction
. Hip flexion, adduction, and internal rotation
. Hip flexion, abduction, and external rotation
. Hip extension, adduction, and internal rotation
. Hip flexion and neutral rotation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hip flexion, adduction, and internal rotation


Explanation

Posterior dislocation is the most common direction of instability following a THA performed via a posterior approach. The classic mechanism of injury involves a combination of hip flexion, adduction, and internal rotation, which levers the femoral head out posteriorly.

Question 3732

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 62-year-old man presents with progressive groin pain and swelling 6 years after a metal-on-polyethylene THA with a modular titanium stem and cobalt-chromium head.

Laboratory studies show an elevated serum cobalt level but a normal chromium level. Aspiration is negative for infection. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Aseptic loosening of the femoral stem
. Polyethylene wear osteolysis
. Trunnionosis (mechanically assisted crevice corrosion)
. Adverse local tissue reaction from a metal-on-metal articulation
. Low-virulence periprosthetic joint infection

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Trunnionosis (mechanically assisted crevice corrosion)


Explanation

Trunnionosis refers to mechanically assisted crevice corrosion at the modular head-neck junction. It is classically associated with metal-on-polyethylene bearings presenting with elevated cobalt relative to chromium, leading to an adverse local tissue reaction (pseudotumor).

Question 3733

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

Following a primary THA performed via a direct lateral (Hardinge) approach, a patient presents with a persistent Trendelenburg gait at 6 months postoperatively.

Which nerve and corresponding muscle group are most at risk of injury with excessive superior splitting of the muscle in this approach?

. Inferior gluteal nerve innervating the gluteus maximus
. Superior gluteal nerve innervating the gluteus medius
. Sciatic nerve innervating the hamstring musculature
. Femoral nerve innervating the quadriceps
. Obturator nerve innervating the hip adductors

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Superior gluteal nerve innervating the gluteus medius


Explanation

The direct lateral approach involves splitting the gluteus medius and minimus. Proximal extension of this split greater than 3 to 5 cm from the greater trochanter places the superior gluteal nerve at high risk, resulting in denervation of the abductors and a Trendelenburg lurch.

Question 3734

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 38-year-old woman with a history of corticosteroid use for systemic lupus erythematosus presents with a 4-month history of groin pain.

Radiographs and MRI confirm Ficat Stage II osteonecrosis of the right femoral head with no crescent sign and no subchondral collapse. What is the most appropriate initial joint-preserving surgical intervention?

. Total hip arthroplasty
. Resurfacing arthroplasty
. Core decompression
. Vascularized fibular graft
. Proximal femoral osteotomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Core decompression


Explanation

Core decompression is the standard initial joint-preserving surgical treatment for early-stage (Ficat I and II) osteonecrosis prior to subchondral collapse. It aims to reduce intraosseous pressure, improve venous drainage, and stimulate revascularization.

Question 3735

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A polished, double-tapered, collarless cemented femoral stem is chosen for an 80-year-old patient undergoing THA.

On which biomechanical principle does this specific stem design rely to achieve and maintain stability?

. Shape-closed (composite beam) fixation
. Force-closed (taper-slip) fixation
. Biological osteointegration
. Proximally coated diaphyseal fixation
. Distal cortical interference fit

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Force-closed (taper-slip) fixation


Explanation

Polished, double-tapered stems act as a wedge and rely on force-closed (taper-slip) mechanics, allowing the stem to subside slightly within the cement mantle to increase radial compressive forces. In contrast, shape-closed designs rely on a roughened surface bonding to the cement.

Question 3736

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

An 82-year-old woman sustains a fall and incurs a periprosthetic femur fracture around a cemented femoral stem.

Radiographs demonstrate a fracture at the tip of the stem. The cement mantle is fractured, and the stem is clearly loose. The patient has adequate distal bone stock. According to the Vancouver classification, what is the recommended treatment?

. Open reduction and internal fixation with a locking plate alone
. Open reduction and internal fixation with cortical strut allografts
. Revision total hip arthroplasty with a long uncemented diaphyseal-fitting stem
. Nonoperative management with a spica cast
. Proximal femoral replacement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Revision total hip arthroplasty with a long uncemented diaphyseal-fitting stem


Explanation

This is a Vancouver B2 periprosthetic fracture (fracture around the stem, loose stem, good bone stock). The standard of care is revision arthroplasty, typically utilizing a long uncemented diaphyseal-fitting stem to bypass the fracture and achieve stable distal fixation.

Question 3737

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Highly cross-linked polyethylene (HXLPE) has significantly reduced the incidence of wear-induced osteolysis in THA.

During the manufacturing process, irradiation is followed by a heating process (remelting or annealing). What is the primary biomechanical purpose of the remelting process?

. To increase the degree of cross-linking
. To extinguish free radicals and improve oxidation resistance
. To increase the ultimate tensile strength of the material
. To improve the fatigue crack propagation resistance
. To restore the crystallinity to 100 percent

Correct Answer & Explanation

. To extinguish free radicals and improve oxidation resistance


Explanation

Irradiation creates cross-links but leaves behind free radicals, which can lead to long-term oxidation and material degradation. Remelting (heating above the melting point) effectively extinguishes these trapped free radicals, drastically improving oxidation resistance at a slight cost to fatigue strength.

Question 3738

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 55-year-old patient undergoes revision THA for a failed metal-on-metal implant presenting with a large pseudotumor.

Histopathological examination of the periprosthetic tissue demonstrates an aseptic lymphocytic vasculitis-associated lesion (ALVAL). What is the classic histological hallmark of this reaction?

. Abundant neutrophilic infiltrate with acute fibrinoid necrosis
. Sheets of foamy macrophages laden with birefringent particles
. Perivascular lymphocytic infiltrate with distinct areas of tissue necrosis
. Multinucleated giant cells containing massive amounts of ceramic debris
. Granulomas containing central caseating necrosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Perivascular lymphocytic infiltrate with distinct areas of tissue necrosis


Explanation

ALVAL is a delayed-type (Type IV) hypersensitivity reaction primarily mediated by T-lymphocytes responding to metal ions. The pathognomonic histological findings include extensive perivascular lymphocytic infiltration, macrophage accumulation, and marked tissue necrosis.

Question 3739

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A patient is evaluated for a painful total hip arthroplasty 2 years postoperatively.

According to the Musculoskeletal Infection Society (MSIS) and International Consensus Meeting (ICM) criteria, which of the following is considered a definitive "major" criterion for the diagnosis of periprosthetic joint infection (PJI)?

. Elevated serum C-reactive protein (CRP) and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
. Elevated synovial fluid white blood cell count greater than 3,000 cells/µL
. Two positive periprosthetic cultures yielding the same microorganism
. A single positive intraoperative tissue culture
. Positive alpha-defensin test

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Two positive periprosthetic cultures yielding the same microorganism


Explanation

Under the MSIS/ICM criteria, definitive diagnosis of PJI is established if there is a sinus tract communicating with the joint or two distinct periprosthetic samples yielding the same phenotypically identical organism. Biomarkers like CRP, ESR, and synovial WBC are considered minor criteria.

Question 3740

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

Proper orientation of the acetabular component is critical to minimize the risk of dislocation after THA.

According to the historically established "Lewinnek safe zone", what are the optimal target angles for acetabular inclination (abduction) and anteversion?

. Inclination 40 ± 10 degrees, Anteversion 15 ± 10 degrees
. Inclination 30 ± 5 degrees, Anteversion 25 ± 5 degrees
. Inclination 50 ± 10 degrees, Anteversion 0 ± 5 degrees
. Inclination 20 ± 10 degrees, Anteversion 30 ± 10 degrees
. Inclination 45 ± 5 degrees, Retroversion 5 ± 5 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Inclination 40 ± 10 degrees, Anteversion 15 ± 10 degrees


Explanation

Lewinnek famously described a radiographic safe zone for acetabular cup placement consisting of an inclination (abduction) of 40 ± 10 degrees and an anteversion of 15 ± 10 degrees. While modern dynamic spinopelvic parameters adjust these targets, Lewinnek's values remain a foundational concept.