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Question 3401

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

The primary mode of wear in a well-functioning metal-on-highly cross-linked polyethylene total hip arthroplasty is:

. Abrasive wear
. Adhesive wear
. Third-body wear
. Corrosive wear
. Fatigue wear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Abrasive wear


Explanation

Adhesive wear is the predominant mode of wear in standard metal-on-polyethylene bearings, producing submicron particles that can lead to osteolysis. Abrasive wear occurs when a harder surface or third body scratches a softer one.

Question 3402

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

During a direct lateral (Hardinge) approach to the hip, the gluteus medius is split longitudinally. To prevent denervation of the anterior portion of the gluteus medius and minimus, the proximal split should not extend beyond what distance from the tip of the greater trochanter?

. 1 cm
. 3 cm
. 5 cm
. 7 cm
. 9 cm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 1 cm


Explanation

The superior gluteal nerve innervates the gluteus medius, minimus, and TFL. Its inferior branch runs approximately 3 to 5 cm proximal to the tip of the greater trochanter; splitting the muscle beyond 5 cm risks denervating the anterior portion of the abductors.

Question 3403

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

When inserting screws into the acetabulum during a total hip arthroplasty, the "safe zone" for screw placement to avoid major neurovascular injury is which quadrant?

. Anterosuperior
. Anteroinferior
. Posterosuperior
. Posteroinferior
. Central

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterosuperior


Explanation

The posterosuperior quadrant is considered the "safe zone" for screw placement in the acetabulum, as it generally avoids the external iliac vessels anteriorly and the sciatic nerve and inferior gluteal vessels posteroinferiorly.

Question 3404

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

The medial circumflex femoral artery (MCFA) is at risk during a posterior approach to the hip if the dissection extends too far inferiorly. The MCFA typically passes between which two muscles before entering the hip capsule?

. Quadratus femoris and obturator externus
. Piriformis and superior gemellus
. Obturator internus and inferior gemellus
. Gluteus minimus and medius
. Pectineus and adductor longus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Quadratus femoris and obturator externus


Explanation

The main branch of the medial circumflex femoral artery runs posteriorly and passes superior to the upper border of the quadratus femoris and deep to the obturator externus before entering the capsule.

Question 3405

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

During a posterior approach to the hip, the surgeon identifies the medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA) to protect the blood supply to the femoral head. What is the correct anatomic course of the main branch of the MFCA?

. Posterior to the quadratus femoris and anterior to the obturator externus
. Anterior to the quadratus femoris and posterior to the obturator externus
. Superior to the piriformis and posterior to the gluteus minimus
. Anterior to the pectineus and posterior to the iliopsoas
. Posterior to the piriformis and anterior to the superior gemellus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior to the quadratus femoris and anterior to the obturator externus


Explanation

The MFCA passes anterior to the quadratus femoris and posterior to the obturator externus. Protecting the obturator externus during a posterior approach helps preserve the primary blood supply to the femoral head.

Question 3406

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

When placing screws into the acetabulum during a total hip arthroplasty, which quadrant is considered the 'safe zone' to avoid major neurovascular injury?

. Anterosuperior
. Anteroinferior
. Posterosuperior
. Posteroinferior
. Central

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterosuperior


Explanation

According to Wasielewski's quadrant system, the posterosuperior quadrant is the safe zone for screw placement. The anterosuperior quadrant risks the external iliac vessels, and the anteroinferior risks the obturator neurovascular bundle.

Question 3407

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

During a direct lateral (Hardinge) approach to the hip, proximal splitting of the gluteus medius must be limited to avoid denervating the anterior portion of the muscle. What is the generally accepted safe distance from the tip of the greater trochanter?

. 1 cm
. 3-5 cm
. 7-9 cm
. 10-12 cm
. 15 cm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 1 cm


Explanation

The superior gluteal nerve courses approximately 3 to 5 cm proximal to the tip of the greater trochanter. Splitting the gluteus medius more proximally risks denervating its anterior fibers and the tensor fasciae latae.

Question 3408

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

When placing acetabular screws during a total hip arthroplasty, the acetabulum is divided into four quadrants using a line from the anterior superior iliac spine through the center of the acetabulum and a second perpendicular line. A misdirected screw in the anterosuperior quadrant places which of the following structures at greatest risk?

. Sciatic nerve
. Superior gluteal nerve
. External iliac artery
. Obturator nerve
. Internal pudendal artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sciatic nerve


Explanation

The anterosuperior quadrant is often termed the 'death quadrant' due to the proximity of the external iliac artery and vein. The safest area for screw placement is the posterosuperior quadrant, followed by the posteroinferior quadrant.

Question 3409

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A surgeon uses the direct lateral (Hardinge) approach to the hip, which involves splitting the gluteus medius. To avoid denervating the anterior portion of the gluteus medius and tensor fasciae latae, the split should not extend proximally from the tip of the greater trochanter more than:

. 1 cm
. 3 cm
. 5 cm
. 7 cm
. 9 cm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 1 cm


Explanation

The superior gluteal nerve innervates the gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, and TFL. Its branches cross approximately 3 to 5 cm proximal to the tip of the greater trochanter, making 5 cm the absolute maximum safe limit for proximal splitting.

Question 3410

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Following a total hip arthroplasty via an anterior approach, a patient complains of burning pain and numbness over the anterolateral aspect of the operative thigh. The nerve responsible for this complication typically exits the pelvis in which location?

. Medial to the anterior superior iliac spine under the inguinal ligament
. Lateral to the anterior superior iliac spine over the iliac crest
. Through the obturator foramen
. Through the greater sciatic foramen superior to the piriformis
. Between the anterior inferior iliac spine and the acetabular rim

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medial to the anterior superior iliac spine under the inguinal ligament


Explanation

The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve (LFCN) is entirely sensory and commonly exits the pelvis approximately 1-2 cm medial to the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS), passing under or through the inguinal ligament. It is at significant risk during the anterior approach to the hip.

Question 3411

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

During a posterior approach to the hip, the short external rotators must be identified and tagged. Which of the following structures exits the pelvis through the lesser sciatic foramen?

. Piriformis tendon
. Superior gluteal nerve
. Obturator internus tendon
. Pudendal nerve
. Inferior gluteal artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Piriformis tendon


Explanation

The obturator internus originates inside the pelvis and exits through the lesser sciatic foramen to insert on the greater trochanter. The piriformis, superior gluteal nerve, and inferior gluteal artery exit through the greater sciatic foramen.

Question 3412

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

When placing screws into the acetabulum during a total hip arthroplasty, the quadrant system is used to identify safe zones. Placement of a screw into the anterosuperior quadrant places which structure at highest risk of injury?

. Sciatic nerve
. Obturator nerve
. Internal pudendal artery
. External iliac artery and vein
. Superior gluteal nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sciatic nerve


Explanation

The anterosuperior quadrant of the acetabulum overlies the external iliac artery and vein. Screw penetration in this quadrant can cause catastrophic vascular injury, making it a 'danger zone'.

Question 3413

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

To avoid denervation of the hip abductors during a direct lateral (Hardinge) approach to the hip, the proximal split of the gluteus medius should be limited to what maximum distance from the tip of the greater trochanter?

. 1 cm
. 3 cm
. 5 cm
. 8 cm
. 10 cm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 1 cm


Explanation

The superior gluteal nerve traverses the gluteus medius approximately 5 cm proximal to the tip of the greater trochanter. Splitting the muscle proximal to this point risks denervating the anterior portion of the gluteus medius and the tensor fasciae latae.

Question 3414

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

During a total hip arthroplasty, the surgeon uses a high-offset femoral stem to restore the patient's native anatomy. What is the primary biomechanical effect of increasing femoral offset on hip kinematics and joint reaction forces?

. Decreases the abductor moment arm and increases joint reaction forces
. Increases the abductor moment arm and decreases joint reaction forces
. Decreases the body weight moment arm and decreases joint reaction forces
. Increases both the abductor moment arm and joint reaction forces
. Has no effect on moment arms but shifts the center of rotation superiorly

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Decreases the abductor moment arm and increases joint reaction forces


Explanation

Increasing femoral offset lateralizes the greater trochanter, which increases the abductor moment arm. This mechanical advantage requires less force from the abductor muscles to maintain pelvic stability, thereby decreasing the overall joint reaction force across the hip.

Question 3415

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

During a posterior approach to the hip (Kocher-Langenbeck), the blood supply to the femoral head via the deep branch of the medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA) is at risk. Which of the following structures acts as the primary anatomic barrier protecting the MFCA and should generally be preserved?

. Piriformis
. Obturator internus
. Obturator externus
. Quadratus femoris
. Superior gemellus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Piriformis


Explanation

The deep branch of the MFCA runs anterior to the short external rotators and posterior to the obturator externus tendon. Preserving the obturator externus helps protect the MFCA from iatrogenic transection.

Question 3416

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 65-year-old female sustains a displaced femoral neck fracture. The primary blood supply to the weight-bearing dome of the adult femoral head is at high risk of disruption. Which of the following vessels provides this dominant vascular supply?

. Artery of the ligamentum teres
. Lateral circumflex femoral artery
. Inferior gluteal artery
. Medial circumflex femoral artery
. Superior gluteal artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Artery of the ligamentum teres


Explanation

The medial circumflex femoral artery (MFCA) supplies the majority of the blood to the adult femoral head via its lateral epiphyseal branches. Disruption of these retinacular vessels significantly increases the risk of avascular necrosis.

Question 3417

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

An 80-year-old woman with a well-functioning posterior-stabilized total knee arthroplasty (TKA) sustains a closed distal femur fracture above the prosthesis (Su Type II). Radiographs show the femoral component remains well-fixed. What is the preferred surgical treatment?

. Revision to a distal femoral replacement
. Open reduction and internal fixation with a lateral locking plate
. Nonoperative management in a hinged knee brace
. Retrograde intramedullary nailing through the femoral component
. Revision to a hinged TKA

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Revision to a distal femoral replacement


Explanation

For a periprosthetic distal femur fracture with a well-fixed TKA component and a closed box (posterior-stabilized), retrograde nailing is typically contraindicated due to implant design. Open reduction and internal fixation with a lateral locking plate is the standard of care.

Question 3418

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A 55-year-old female sustains a Dubberley Type 3B capitellum-trochlea fracture, characterized by a highly comminuted articular fragment involving the posterior condyle with complete loss of soft tissue attachment. Which surgical approach provides the best exposure for internal fixation?

. Extended lateral approach (Kocher)
. Standard medial approach
. Posterior approach with an olecranon osteotomy
. Anterior approach to the cubital fossa
. Percutaneous pinning under fluoroscopy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Extended lateral approach (Kocher)


Explanation

Complex capitellar-trochlear fractures with posterior comminution (Dubberley Type 3) require extensive visualization of the articular surface and the posterior column. A posterior approach utilizing an olecranon osteotomy provides the optimal exposure for rigid fixation.

Question 3419

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 72-year-old woman sustains an intertrochanteric femur fracture. Radiographs show the fracture line exiting the lateral cortex below the vastus ridge, indicating an incompetent lateral wall. Which of the following fixation implants is biomechanically optimal for this specific fracture pattern?

. Sliding hip screw
. Cephalomedullary nail
. Three parallel cancellous screws
. Bipolar hemiarthroplasty
. Total hip arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sliding hip screw


Explanation

Intertrochanteric fractures with an incompetent lateral wall (reverse obliquity or lateral wall blowout) have a high rate of excessive medialization and failure if treated with a sliding hip screw. A cephalomedullary nail provides an intramedullary buttress that prevents excessive sliding and lateral wall collapse.

Question 3420

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 78-year-old woman presents with a periprosthetic femur fracture around a total hip arthroplasty implanted 10 years ago. Radiographs show a spiral fracture extending just distal to the tip of the stem. The stem is radiographically loose, but the proximal femoral bone stock is well-preserved. According to the Vancouver classification, how should this be managed?

. Open reduction and internal fixation with a locking plate
. Revision to a long cemented stem
. Revision to a standard-length uncemented stem
. Revision to a long uncemented diaphyseal-engaging stem
. Strut allograft alone

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Open reduction and internal fixation with a locking plate


Explanation

This is a Vancouver B2 periprosthetic fracture, characterized by a fracture around or just below the stem, a loose prosthesis, and good remaining bone stock. The standard of care is revision arthroplasty using a long, uncemented, extensively porous-coated or fluted tapered stem that bypasses the fracture.