Menu

Question 321

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During open reduction and internal fixation of a posterior wall acetabular fracture via a Kocher-Langenbeck approach, the surgeon identifies a large area of marginal impaction of the articular cartilage. What is the most appropriate management of this impacted fragment?

. Excision of the impacted fragment and discarding the bone
. Fixation of the fragment in its currently impacted, depressed position
. Elevation of the fragment to match the femoral head and grafting the underlying defect
. Immediate conversion to primary total hip arthroplasty
. Resection of the segment and substitution with a porous metal augment

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Elevation of the fragment to match the femoral head and grafting the underlying defect


Explanation

Marginal impaction refers to articular segments that are driven into the underlying cancellous bone. To restore joint congruity and prevent post-traumatic osteoarthritis, these fragments must be meticulously elevated and the resulting void filled with bone graft.

Question 322

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 55-year-old female undergoes a primary total hip arthroplasty via a direct anterior approach. Postoperatively, she reports a burning numbness over the anterolateral aspect of her proximal thigh. Motor function is completely intact. Which nerve was most likely stretched or injured during the superficial surgical dissection?

. Sciatic nerve
. Femoral nerve
. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve
. Obturator nerve
. Superior gluteal nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve


Explanation

The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve (LFCN) is a purely sensory nerve at high risk during the superficial dissection of the direct anterior approach to the hip. Injury results in meralgia paresthetica, presenting as numbness or burning over the anterolateral thigh.

Question 323

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 58-year-old male, who has been living with HIV for 20 years and is on a stable antiretroviral therapy (ART) regimen, presents with debilitating right hip pain and radiographic evidence of severe osteoarthritis. His last CD4 count was 450 cells/µL, and his viral load has been undetectable for the past 18 months. He is otherwise healthy with well-controlled comorbidities. He is considering total hip arthroplasty (THA). Historically, HIV was considered a significant contraindication to major elective orthopedic procedures. Based on current evidence and the provided case, what is the most accurate statement regarding THA in this patient?

. Elective THA is absolutely contraindicated due to the inherent risk of periprosthetic joint infection (PJI) in immunocompromised patients.
. The patient's HIV status necessitates a two-stage revision protocol for primary THA to mitigate infection risk.
. With well-controlled HIV, this patient is expected to achieve comparable clinical outcomes and PJI rates to HIV-negative counterparts.
. The patient's CD4 count is too low, and surgery should be deferred until it exceeds 700 cells/µL.
. THA can proceed, but the patient should discontinue ART perioperatively to reduce drug interactions.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. With well-controlled HIV, this patient is expected to achieve comparable clinical outcomes and PJI rates to HIV-negative counterparts.


Explanation

Correct Answer: CThe case explicitly states that 'contemporary evidence robustly challenges historical perceptions' and that 'with proper patient selection and meticulous perioperative management, PLWH with well-controlled HIV infection (characterized by a suppressed viral load and an adequate CD4 cell count) achieve comparable clinical outcomes following TJA to their HIV-negative counterparts.' The patient's CD4 count of 450 cells/µL and undetectable viral load meet the criteria for well-controlled HIV (CD4 >200-350 cells/µL and undetectable viral load).Option A is incorrectbecause modern ART has transformed HIV into a manageable chronic condition, and it is no longer an absolute contraindication for elective TJA in well-controlled patients.Option B is incorrectas a two-stage revision protocol is typically reserved for chronic PJI, not for primary arthroplasty in patients with well-controlled HIV.Option D is incorrectbecause a CD4 count >200-350 cells/µL is generally considered safe, and 450 cells/µL is well within this range. Waiting for 700 cells/µL is not supported by the evidence.Option E is incorrectand dangerous. The case emphasizes 'strict adherence to ART throughout the perioperative period' and warns that 'discontinuation of ART perioperatively can lead to viral rebound and immune compromise.'

Question 324

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 42-year-old female with a 15-year history of HIV, well-controlled on ART, presents with severe, bilateral hip pain that has progressively worsened over the past year. She denies any history of trauma. Radiographs reveal bilateral femoral head collapse and subchondral sclerosis. Her infectious disease specialist confirms a CD4 count of 380 cells/µL and an undetectable viral load. Given her presentation, which of the following is the most likely primary indication for total hip arthroplasty (THA) in this patient, and what are common contributing factors in PLWH?

. Rheumatoid arthritis; primarily due to direct viral effects on synovial tissue.
. Post-traumatic arthritis; secondary to occult fractures related to osteopenia.
. Avascular necrosis (AVN) of the femoral head; associated with ART-induced dyslipidemia, corticosteroid use, and chronic inflammation.
. Accelerated osteoarthritis; due to increased mechanical stress from lipodystrophy.
. Septic arthritis; secondary to opportunistic infection in an immunocompromised state.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Avascular necrosis (AVN) of the femoral head; associated with ART-induced dyslipidemia, corticosteroid use, and chronic inflammation.


Explanation

Correct Answer: CThe case states, 'Avascular necrosis (AVN), particularly affecting the femoral head, is notably prevalent in PLWH, driven by factors such as ART-induced dyslipidemia, direct viral effects, corticosteroid use, and chronic inflammation.' The patient's presentation of severe, bilateral hip pain with femoral head collapse is highly characteristic of AVN. The absence of trauma rules out post-traumatic arthritis as the primary cause.Option A is incorrect. While inflammatory arthritis can occur, the specific radiographic findings of femoral head collapse are more indicative of AVN than typical rheumatoid arthritis.Option B is incorrectas the patient denies trauma, and while osteopenia is common, occult fractures are not the primary cause of this presentation.Option D is incorrect. While accelerated osteoarthritis is observed, the description of femoral head collapse points more specifically to AVN. Lipodystrophy's impact on mechanical stress leading to OA is not a primary driver of femoral head collapse.Option E is incorrect. Septic arthritis would typically present with acute pain, fever, and signs of infection, which are not described. Furthermore, the bilateral nature and chronic progression make septic arthritis less likely as the primary indication.

Question 325

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During a total hip arthroplasty (THA) on a 65-year-old male with well-controlled HIV, the orthopedic surgeon notes that the femoral bone feels unusually soft and porous during reaming and broaching. The patient's preoperative DEXA scan had indicated osteopenia. This finding raises concerns about primary implant stability. Which of the following is the most appropriate intraoperative adaptation to address this HIV-specific biomechanical consideration?

. Proceed with standard cementless implant fixation, as bone quality issues are rarely clinically significant in PLWH.
. Switch to a smaller femoral stem size to minimize stress on the compromised bone.
. Consider using a cemented femoral stem or augmented fixation (e.g., screws for acetabular component) to enhance stability.
. Perform prophylactic cerclage wiring around the proximal femur before broaching.
. Abandon the procedure and refer the patient for medical management of bone quality.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Consider using a cemented femoral stem or augmented fixation (e.g., screws for acetabular component) to enhance stability.


Explanation

Correct Answer: CThe case highlights that 'PLWH may exhibit reduced bone mineral density (osteopenia/osteoporosis) due to chronic inflammation, ART side effects... and direct viral effects. This can compromise primary implant stability, especially for cementless components, and increase the risk of intraoperative and periprosthetic fractures. Bone fragility should inform implant choice (cemented vs. uncemented) and surgical technique (gentle reaming, prophylactic cerclage wires).' If bone quality is severely compromised, a cemented stem offers immediate stability independent of bone ingrowth, and augmented screw fixation for the acetabular component can provide additional purchase.Option A is incorrectbecause bone quality issues are indeed clinically significant and require adaptation, as stated in the case.Option B is incorrect. Using a smaller stem size would reduce fill and potentially compromise stability further, leading to subsidence or loosening.Option D is incorrect. While prophylactic cerclage wires are mentioned as a consideration for bone fragility, they are typically used to prevent or manage intraoperative fractures, not as the primary method to enhance implant stability in soft bone for a press-fit component. Cemented stems or augmented fixation are more direct solutions for stability.Option E is incorrect. The procedure should not be abandoned if the patient is optimized and the indication is clear. Intraoperative adaptations are necessary.

Question 326

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 35-year-old male with HIV presents with end-stage left knee osteoarthritis, refractory to conservative management. He is a candidate for total knee arthroplasty (TKA). His infectious disease specialist reports his current CD4 count is 180 cells/µL, and his viral load is 1500 copies/mL. He has also had a recent episode of oral candidiasis. Based on the provided guidelines, what is the most appropriate recommendation regarding his TKA?

. Proceed with TKA as planned, as HIV status is no longer a contraindication.
. Defer elective TKA and optimize HIV status with ART, aiming for a CD4 count >200-350 cells/µL and an undetectable viral load.
. Perform TKA but use a prophylactic antibiotic regimen for an extended duration (e.g., 6 weeks post-op).
. Consider TKA only if the patient agrees to a one-stage revision protocol in case of PJI.
. TKA is absolutely contraindicated due to the detectable viral load and recent opportunistic infection.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Defer elective TKA and optimize HIV status with ART, aiming for a CD4 count >200-350 cells/µL and an undetectable viral load.


Explanation

Correct Answer: BThe case clearly outlines HIV-specific contraindications: 'Uncontrolled HIV Disease: CD4 count <200 cells/µL, detectable or high viral load. These patients are at higher risk for opportunistic infections and overall perioperative morbidity. Elective surgery should be deferred until optimization of HIV status with ART, in close consultation with an infectious disease specialist.' The patient's CD4 count of 180 cells/µL is below the recommended threshold, and his viral load is detectable. The recent oral candidiasis further suggests poor immune control.Option A is incorrectbecause while controlled HIV is not a contraindication, uncontrolled HIV (as in this patient) is a relative contraindication requiring optimization.Option C is incorrect. While extended antibiotic prophylaxis might be considered in some high-risk scenarios, the primary and most effective strategy is to optimize the patient's immune status before surgery, not to proceed with surgery under suboptimal conditions and rely solely on extended antibiotics.Option D is incorrect. A one-stage revision protocol is for managing existing PJI, not a preoperative condition for elective surgery.Option E is incorrect. While the patient's current status is a contraindication, it is arelativecontraindication, meaning surgery should be deferred until optimization, not absolutely ruled out forever. The goal is to optimize, then proceed.

Question 327

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 50-year-old male with HIV, who has a history of well-controlled disease (CD4 count 600 cells/µL, undetectable viral load for 2 years), is scheduled for an elective total knee arthroplasty (TKA). As part of his preoperative workup, the orthopedic surgeon is reviewing the necessary consultations and tests. Which of the following is considered a mandatory and critical step in the preoperative planning for this patient, specifically due to his HIV status?

. Routine cardiac catheterization to assess for ART-induced cardiomyopathy.
. Mandatory infectious disease consultation to verify HIV status, optimize ART, and advise on perioperative prophylaxis.
. Preoperative bone biopsy of the knee to rule out osteomyelitis.
. A psychological evaluation to assess for compliance with rehabilitation.
. Discontinuation of all ART medications 7 days prior to surgery to prevent drug interactions.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Mandatory infectious disease consultation to verify HIV status, optimize ART, and advise on perioperative prophylaxis.


Explanation

Correct Answer: BThe case states under 'HIV-Specific Pre-Operative Planning': 'Infectious Disease Consultation: Mandatory for all PLWH considering elective TJA. This specialist will: Verify HIV status (CD4 count, viral load, ART regimen, resistance profiles). Optimize ART regimen and ensure compliance. Advise on perioperative antibiotic prophylaxis, considering potential drug interactions with ARTs. Manage opportunistic infections or reactivations.'Option A is incorrect. While cardiovascular assessment is important due to higher rates of cardiovascular disease in PLWH, routine cardiac catheterization is not mandatory for all elective TJA patients and would only be indicated based on specific cardiac symptoms or findings.Option C is incorrect. A bone biopsy is not a routine preoperative step for elective TKA unless there is a specific suspicion of osteomyelitis, which is not indicated in this patient's vignette.Option D is incorrect. While patient motivation and compliance are important, a mandatory psychological evaluation is not a specific HIV-related requirement for TJA, though general patient counseling is emphasized.Option E is incorrect. This is a dangerous practice. The case explicitly warns against discontinuing ART: 'Reinforce strict adherence to ART pre- and post-operatively. Missed doses can lead to viral rebound and immune compromise.'

Question 328

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 62-year-old male, 3 months post-total knee arthroplasty (TKA), presents with increasing knee pain, swelling, and warmth. He has a history of HIV, well-controlled preoperatively (CD4 500 cells/µL, undetectable viral load), but admits to missing several doses of his ART regimen in the past month due to financial difficulties. Aspiration of the knee joint confirms periprosthetic joint infection (PJI). What is the most critical HIV-specific consideration in the management of this patient's PJI?

. The choice of surgical approach (e.g., one-stage vs. two-stage revision) is the sole determinant of success.
. The patient's history of missing ART doses is irrelevant to PJI management, as the infection is local.
. Mandatory infectious disease consultation for organism identification, considering opportunistic pathogens, and ART-compatible antibiotic selection.
. Immediate lifelong suppressive antibiotic therapy without surgical intervention.
. The PJI is likely due to the patient's age and not related to HIV, so standard protocols apply without modification.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Mandatory infectious disease consultation for organism identification, considering opportunistic pathogens, and ART-compatible antibiotic selection.


Explanation

Correct Answer: CThe case's 'HIV-Specific Complication Profile & Management' table explicitly states for PJI in PLWH: 'Same as general, but with crucial infectious disease consult for organism identification (considering opportunistic pathogens, though rare) and ART-compatible antibiotic selection. Prolonged IV antibiotics often favored.' The patient's missed ART doses suggest potential immune compromise, making the ID consult even more critical for comprehensive management.Option A is incorrect. While the surgical approach is important, it is not thesoledeterminant of success, and the HIV-specific considerations are paramount.Option B is incorrect. The patient's history of missing ART doses is highly relevant. It indicates potential viral rebound and immune compromise, which increases the risk of infection and may influence the type of pathogen or the patient's ability to fight the infection. The case emphasizes 'Strict adherence to ART throughout the perioperative period' to prevent 'viral rebound and immune compromise.'Option D is incorrect. Immediate lifelong suppressive antibiotic therapy without surgical intervention is generally not the primary management for acute PJI, especially in a patient who might be a candidate for debridement and implant retention (DAIR) or revision surgery. Surgical intervention is almost always required.Option E is incorrect. While age is a risk factor for PJI, dismissing the HIV status, especially with a history of non-adherence to ART, is inappropriate. HIV-specific considerations are crucial.

Question 329

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 48-year-old female with HIV, on a complex ART regimen including a protease inhibitor, undergoes an elective total hip arthroplasty. Postoperatively, she experiences significant pain and requires strong analgesia. The orthopedic team plans to prescribe a potent opioid for pain control. Based on the case information, what is the most important consideration when selecting and dosing perioperative medications for this patient?

. The patient's HIV status necessitates higher doses of opioids due to altered pain perception.
. Potential drug interactions between ARTs (especially protease inhibitors) and perioperative medications via cytochrome P450 pathways.
. Opioids are contraindicated in PLWH due to increased risk of respiratory depression.
. The choice of analgesic should be based solely on the patient's reported pain level, without regard for ART.
. All ART medications should be temporarily held to prevent any possible drug interactions with analgesics.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Potential drug interactions between ARTs (especially protease inhibitors) and perioperative medications via cytochrome P450 pathways.


Explanation

Correct Answer: BThe case explicitly highlights 'Drug Interactions' as an HIV-specific complication: 'Crucial, as ARTs can interact with perioperative medications (analgesics, antibiotics, anticoagulants) via cytochrome P450 pathway. Mandatory infectious disease and pharmacy consultation for medication review, dose adjustments, and alternative drug selection. Close monitoring of drug levels and patient response.' Protease inhibitors are well-known for their significant interactions via the cytochrome P450 system.Option A is incorrect. There is no evidence presented in the case to suggest that PLWH require higher doses of opioids due to altered pain perception. Pain management should be individualized.Option C is incorrect. Opioids are not absolutely contraindicated in PLWH, but their use requires careful consideration of drug interactions.Option D is incorrect. While patient-reported pain is crucial, ignoring potential drug interactions with ARTs is unsafe and can lead to adverse events or subtherapeutic treatment.Option E is incorrect. This is a dangerous practice. The case strongly emphasizes 'Strict adherence to ART throughout the perioperative period' and warns that 'discontinuation of ART perioperatively can lead to viral rebound and immune compromise.'

Question 330

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 70-year-old male with a long history of well-controlled HIV (CD4 count 550 cells/µL, undetectable viral load) undergoes a successful total hip arthroplasty for severe osteoarthritis. He is progressing well in the immediate postoperative period. During discharge planning, the physical therapist is reviewing the patient's home exercise program and activity restrictions. Which of the following is the most critical HIV-specific instruction to reinforce for this patient during his post-operative rehabilitation?

. Strict adherence to ART without interruption throughout the rehabilitation period.
. Avoid all weight-bearing on the operated limb for at least 6 weeks.
. Discontinue all pain medications as soon as possible to prevent addiction.
. Limit physical therapy sessions to once a week to prevent fatigue.
. Avoid all social contact to prevent opportunistic infections.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Strict adherence to ART without interruption throughout the rehabilitation period.


Explanation

Correct Answer: AUnder 'HIV-Specific Considerations in Rehabilitation,' the case states: 'Strict ART Adherence: Emphasize the critical importance of continuing ART without interruption throughout the perioperative and rehabilitation period. Education should be reinforced at every encounter.' This is paramount to maintaining immune control and preventing complications.Option B is incorrect. Early mobilization and weight-bearing (as tolerated/directed by surgeon) are general principles of TJA rehabilitation. While specific restrictions may apply based on surgical factors, a blanket 'avoid all weight-bearing' is not a universal or HIV-specific instruction.Option C is incorrect. While judicious use of pain medication is important, abruptly discontinuing all pain medication can hinder rehabilitation progress. Multimodal analgesia is preferred, and the focus should be on effective pain management to facilitate therapy.Option D is incorrect. Rehabilitation programs are individualized. Limiting sessions to once a week might be insufficient for optimal recovery, especially if the patient can tolerate more. The case mentions that some PLWH may experience chronic fatigue, but this requires individualized, progressive programs, not a blanket reduction in therapy.Option E is incorrect. While infection surveillance is important, avoiding all social contact is an extreme and unnecessary measure for a patient with well-controlled HIV and would negatively impact their psychosocial well-being.

Question 331

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 52-year-old male with well-controlled HIV (CD4 count 480 cells/µL, undetectable viral load) is 6 months post-total knee arthroplasty. He reports excellent pain relief and functional improvement. However, his orthopedic surgeon emphasizes the importance of long-term follow-up. Based on the case, what is a key long-term consideration for PLWH following TJA, particularly related to their underlying medical condition?

. The need for annual revision surgery due to accelerated implant wear in PLWH.
. Lifelong monitoring of implant integrity and bone health due to altered bone metabolism and potential osteopenia/osteoporosis.
. Routine prophylactic antibiotic courses every 6 months to prevent late PJI.
. Discontinuation of ART 1 year post-surgery, as the immune system is fully reconstituted.
. The expectation of significantly higher rates of aseptic loosening compared to the general population.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lifelong monitoring of implant integrity and bone health due to altered bone metabolism and potential osteopenia/osteoporosis.


Explanation

Correct Answer: BThe case mentions under 'HIV-Specific Considerations in Rehabilitation' and 'Summary of Key Literature': 'Long-Term Follow-up: Emphasize the need for lifelong orthopedic follow-up to monitor implant integrity, bone health, and detect late complications.' It also notes 'Potentially higher risk [of aseptic loosening/wear] due to altered bone metabolism, osteopenia/osteoporosis, and chronic inflammation impacting bone-implant interface.' Therefore, monitoring bone health and implant integrity is a crucial long-term consideration.Option A is incorrect. The literature review states that 'Rates of aseptic loosening, dislocation, periprosthetic fracture, and revision surgery are generally not significantly different between well-controlled PLWH and HIV-negative controls.' Annual revision is not expected.Option C is incorrect. Routine prophylactic antibiotic courses are not recommended for preventing late PJI in the absence of specific risk factors or procedures. This practice could lead to antibiotic resistance.Option D is incorrect. ART is a lifelong treatment for HIV. Discontinuation would lead to viral rebound and immune compromise, negating all the benefits achieved. The case emphasizes 'Continuous ART Adherence: Emphasize uninterrupted ART throughout the perioperative period and long-term.'Option E is incorrect. While there might be atrendtowards slightly higher rates of aseptic loosening, the literature review states that rates are 'generally not significantly different' in well-controlled PLWH. It is not anexpectationof significantly higher rates.

Question 332

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 68-year-old male with a 25-year history of HIV, well-controlled on ART, is being evaluated for a revision total hip arthroplasty due to aseptic loosening of his femoral component. His current CD4 count is 420 cells/µL, and viral load is undetectable. He has a history of mild chronic kidney disease (CKD) and dyslipidemia, both managed medically. Based on the provided case, which of the following statements best summarizes the current evidence regarding TJA outcomes in well-controlled PLWH?

. PLWH consistently experience significantly higher rates of periprosthetic joint infection (PJI) and aseptic loosening compared to HIV-negative individuals, regardless of HIV control.
. With effective ART leading to suppressed viral load and robust CD4 count, PLWH achieve comparable functional outcomes and PJI rates to the general population.
. TJA in PLWH is associated with a universally higher risk of neurovascular injury due to direct viral effects on peripheral nerves.
. The primary concern in PLWH is accelerated implant wear, necessitating earlier revision surgery in all cases.
. Functional outcomes in PLWH are generally poorer than in HIV-negative patients, even with well-controlled disease, due to chronic fatigue.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. With effective ART leading to suppressed viral load and robust CD4 count, PLWH achieve comparable functional outcomes and PJI rates to the general population.


Explanation

Correct Answer: BThe 'Summary of Key Literature / Guidelines' section unequivocally states: 'Numerous meta-analyses and large cohort studies have demonstrated that PJI rates in PLWH with well-controlled HIV (CD4 count >200-350 cells/µL and undetectable viral load) are comparable to those in the HIV-negative population... Rates of aseptic loosening, dislocation, periprosthetic fracture, and revision surgery are generally not significantly different... Functional Outcomes: Patient-reported outcomes and functional scores... demonstrate significant improvement post-TJA in PLWH, comparable to the general population...' The 'Role of ART' is highlighted as the 'single most important factor in achieving favorable outcomes.'Option A is incorrect. This contradicts the core message of the case, which debunks the historical perception of universally higher complication rates in well-controlled PLWH.Option C is incorrect. While peripheral neuropathy can occur in PLWH, the case does not state a universally higher risk ofneurovascular injuryduring TJA due to direct viral effects on peripheral nerves. Neurovascular injury is a rare complication in all TJA patients.Option D is incorrect. While there might be a trend towards slightly higher rates of periprosthetic fracture or aseptic loosening, the case does not support 'universally higher risk' or 'necessitating earlier revision surgery in all cases' due to accelerated implant wear.Option E is incorrect. The case states that functional outcomes are 'comparable to the general population,' directly contradicting this statement. While some PLWH may experience chronic fatigue, it does not translate to generally poorer functional outcomes post-TJA in well-controlled patients.

Question 333

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 45-year-old male with a history of HIV on highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) presents with atraumatic, progressive groin pain. Radiographs demonstrate focal subchondral collapse of the femoral head. Which of the following components of his medical management is most strongly associated with the pathogenesis of this condition?

. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs)
. Protease inhibitors
. Integrase strand transfer inhibitors
. Prophylactic trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Protease inhibitors


Explanation

Protease inhibitors used in HAART can induce hyperlipidemia and lipodystrophy, significantly increasing the risk of avascular necrosis (AVN) of the femoral head. HIV-positive patients have a much higher incidence of AVN compared to the general population.

Question 334

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 50-year-old HIV-positive patient is evaluated for an elective total knee arthroplasty due to severe osteoarthritis. Preoperative laboratory results show a CD4 count of 140 cells/mm3 and a detectable viral load. What is the most appropriate perioperative recommendation?

. Proceed with surgery under standard antibiotic prophylaxis.
. Proceed with surgery but add antifungal prophylaxis.
. Delay surgery until the CD4 count is greater than 200 cells/mm3 and viral load is optimized.
. Delay surgery until the CD4 count is greater than 500 cells/mm3.
. Perform the procedure in two stages to minimize surgical time.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Delay surgery until the CD4 count is greater than 200 cells/mm3 and viral load is optimized.


Explanation

Elective arthroplasty in HIV-positive patients is generally contraindicated if the CD4 count is below 200 cells/mm3 or if the viral load is high. These factors significantly increase the risk of postoperative opportunistic infections and prosthetic joint infection.

Question 335

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

An HIV-positive patient with severe hemophilic arthropathy undergoes a total hip arthroplasty. Compared to patients with primary osteoarthritis, this patient is at the highest disproportionate risk for which of the following postoperative complications?

. Aseptic loosening
. Periprosthetic fracture
. Prosthetic joint infection (PJI)
. Sciatic nerve palsy
. Heterotopic ossification

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Prosthetic joint infection (PJI)


Explanation

Patients with both HIV and hemophilia have an exceptionally high risk of prosthetic joint infection, reported to be between 10% and 20% in some series. This is due to a combination of immunosuppression and frequent intra-articular bleeding.

Question 336

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 55-year-old patient with well-controlled HIV (CD4 > 500 cells/mm3, undetectable viral load) undergoes an elective total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following best describes the expected long-term implant survivorship compared to matched non-HIV patients?
. Significantly lower due to premature polyethylene wear
. Significantly lower due to high rates of aseptic loosening
. Similar implant survivorship and functional outcomes
. Superior survivorship due to decreased patient activity levels
. Significantly lower due to inevitable progression to AIDS

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Similar implant survivorship and functional outcomes


Explanation

In the era of HAART, HIV-positive patients with well-controlled disease (high CD4, undetectable viral load) have mid- to long-term implant survivorship and functional outcomes that are comparable to those of the non-HIV population.

Question 337

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

In an HIV-positive patient presenting for an elective joint replacement, which organism remains the most commonly isolated pathogen in cases that develop early postoperative prosthetic joint infection?

. Mycobacterium avium complex
. Candida albicans
. Staphylococcus aureus
. Pneumocystis jirovecii
. Toxoplasma gondii

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Staphylococcus aureus


Explanation

Although HIV-positive patients have a higher relative risk for atypical and opportunistic infections, standard bacterial pathogens, particularly Staphylococcus aureus and coagulase-negative staphylococci, remain the most common overall causes of prosthetic joint infections.

Question 338

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 45-year-old HIV-positive patient is evaluated for an elective total hip arthroplasty. To minimize the risk of periprosthetic joint infection such that it approaches the baseline risk of an HIV-negative patient, what is the optimal minimum CD4 count required preoperatively?

. 50 cells/mm3
. 100 cells/mm3
. 200 cells/mm3
. 400 cells/mm3
. 800 cells/mm3

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 400 cells/mm3


Explanation

A preoperative CD4 count greater than 400 cells/mm3 in HIV-positive patients is associated with a periprosthetic joint infection risk comparable to the general population. Elective arthroplasty is typically contraindicated if the CD4 count is below 200 cells/mm3.

Question 339

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 60-year-old male with severe hemophilia A and HIV is planned for a total knee arthroplasty. Compared to HIV-negative osteoarthritic patients, this patient is at the highest increased risk for which of the following complications?

. Aseptic loosening
. Periprosthetic joint infection
. Deep vein thrombosis
. Periprosthetic fracture
. Heterotopic ossification

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Periprosthetic joint infection


Explanation

Patients with concurrent hemophilia and HIV undergoing total joint arthroplasty have a substantially amplified risk of periprosthetic joint infection. Multidisciplinary optimization of both the coagulopathy and viral load is essential.

Question 340

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A 72-year-old female undergoes a primary total hip replacement (THR) via a posterior approach for severe osteoarthritis. Three weeks post-operatively, she presents to the emergency department with acute hip pain and inability to bear weight after attempting to pick up an object from the floor, resulting in a posterior dislocation. Radiographs confirm a posterior dislocation without periprosthetic fracture. After successful closed reduction, the surgeon reviews the case. Which of the following factors is LEAST likely to be the primary contributing cause of this early dislocation?

. Inadequate repair of the posterior capsule and short external rotators.
. Acetabular component malposition outside the Lewinnek safe zone.
. Patient non-compliance with post-operative hip precautions.
. Progressive soft tissue laxity due to implant wear.
. Use of a smaller femoral head (e.g., 28mm) leading to reduced jump distance.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Progressive soft tissue laxity due to implant wear.


Explanation

Correct Answer: DThe case describes anearly dislocation(three weeks post-operatively). The teaching case states: 'Early dislocations typically occur within the first three months post-operatively and are frequently attributed to surgical technique, component malposition, or early non-compliance with precautions. Late dislocations, occurring beyond three months, are more often associated with factors such as soft tissue laxity, component wear, neuromuscular dysfunction, or trauma.' Progressive soft tissue laxity due to implant wear (Option D) is a characteristic oflate dislocations, as significant wear typically takes a longer period to develop and contribute to laxity. Therefore, it is the least likely primary contributing cause for an early dislocation.Options A, B, C, and E are all well-established risk factors for early dislocation:A. Inadequate repair of the posterior capsule and short external rotators:The posterior approach, if not meticulously repaired, is associated with higher posterior dislocation risk. The case specifically mentions a posterior approach.B. Acetabular component malposition:Deviations from the safe zone (e.g., excessive anteversion or retroversion, high inclination) are a leading cause of early dislocation due to impingement or reduced stability.C. Patient non-compliance with post-operative hip precautions:The patient's action of bending at the waist to pick up an object is a classic violation of posterior hip precautions (avoiding hip flexion > 90° and internal rotation), which can directly lead to posterior dislocation.E. Use of a smaller femoral head:Smaller femoral heads inherently have a shorter 'jump distance,' making the hip less stable and more prone to dislocation, especially in the early post-operative period before full soft tissue healing and strength are achieved. The case emphasizes that larger femoral heads significantly enhance stability.