Menu

Question 3201

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 65-year-old man presents with progressive thigh pain 10 years after a cementless total hip arthroplasty. Radiographs demonstrate eccentric positioning of the femoral head within the acetabular shell and focal endosteal radiolucencies in Gruen zones 1 and 7. What is the primary biologic mechanism responsible for these radiographic findings?

. Lymphocyte-mediated delayed hypersensitivity reaction to metallic elements
. Phagocytosis of submicron particulate debris by macrophages, leading to osteoclast activation
. Direct toxicity of cobalt and chromium ions on osteoblasts
. Piezoelectric effect resulting from excessive component micromotion
. Complement-mediated foreign body reaction due to localized infection

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lymphocyte-mediated delayed hypersensitivity reaction to metallic elements


Explanation

Polyethylene wear debris in the 0.1 to 1.0-micron size range is phagocytosed by macrophages. These activated macrophages release inflammatory cytokines (e.g., TNF-alpha, IL-1, IL-6) that stimulate osteoclasts, ultimately leading to periprosthetic osteolysis.

Question 3202

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Following a primary total hip arthroplasty performed via a posterolateral approach, the patient develops a foot drop and decreased sensation over the dorsum of the foot. Which of the following intrinsic anatomic factors makes the affected nerve particularly susceptible to this surgical injury?

. Its superficial course anterior to the piriformis muscle belly
. Its location within the medial compartment of the sciatic nerve sheath
. Its composition of larger, fewer fascicles with less protective connective tissue
. Its rigid fixation at the sciatic notch and the fibular head
. Its obligate direct vascular supply from the inferior gluteal artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Its superficial course anterior to the piriformis muscle belly


Explanation

The peroneal division of the sciatic nerve is most commonly injured during total hip arthroplasty due to its more lateral, exposed position. Furthermore, it is structurally composed of larger and fewer fascicles with less protective epineurium compared to the tibial division, increasing its vulnerability to stretch and compression.

Question 3203

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

The primary wear mechanism responsible for generating the majority of submicron particulate debris in a well-functioning, traditional metal-on-polyethylene total hip arthroplasty is:

. Third-body wear
. Adhesive wear
. Abrasive wear
. Corrosive wear
. Fatigue wear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Third-body wear


Explanation

Adhesive wear is the fundamental mechanism where asperities on the metal head micro-weld to the polyethylene surface and shear off submicron particles. While third-body wear can cause severe damage, adhesive wear is the constant baseline generator of wear debris.

Question 3204

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

The predominant mechanism of wear in conventional ultra-high-molecular-weight polyethylene (UHMWPE) that historically contributed to osteolysis in total hip arthroplasty is:

. Abrasive wear
. Adhesive wear
. Fatigue wear
. Corrosive wear
. Fretting wear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Abrasive wear


Explanation

Adhesive wear is the primary mode of wear between the metal head and the UHMWPE liner, producing submicron polyethylene particles. These particles are engulfed by macrophages, triggering an inflammatory cascade leading to periprosthetic osteolysis.

Question 3205

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

In total joint arthroplasty, wear particles generated by the physical scratching of the polyethylene bearing surface by a harder metal or ceramic surface is best described as:

. Adhesive wear
. Abrasive wear
. Third-body wear
. Fretting wear
. Corrosive wear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Adhesive wear


Explanation

Abrasive wear occurs when a harder surface roughens or scratches a softer surface. Adhesive wear occurs when micro-welds form between surfaces and shear off, while third-body wear involves loose particles caught between articulating surfaces.

Question 3206

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

The endurance limit of an orthopedic implant material is defined as the:

. Maximum stress a material can withstand before catastrophic failure
. Maximum stress level below which the material will never fail in fatigue
. Point of transition from elastic to plastic deformation
. Amount of energy absorbed prior to failure
. Resistance to scratching or indentation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Maximum stress a material can withstand before catastrophic failure


Explanation

The endurance limit (or fatigue limit) is the highest alternating stress that a material can withstand for an infinite number of cycles without failing. It is a critical parameter for materials subjected to repetitive loading, such as joint replacements.

Question 3207

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

When selecting a biomaterial for a total hip arthroplasty femoral stem to minimize stress shielding, the surgeon should consider the elastic modulus. Which of the following orthopedic biomaterials has an elastic modulus most closely approximating that of human cortical bone?

. Cobalt-chromium alloy
. 316L Stainless steel
. Titanium alloy (Ti-6Al-4V)
. Alumina ceramic
. Tantalum

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cobalt-chromium alloy


Explanation

Titanium alloy has an elastic modulus (approximately 110 GPa) that is significantly lower than stainless steel (approx. 200 GPa) or cobalt-chromium (approx. 210-240 GPa). This closer match to human cortical bone (15-20 GPa) helps reduce stress shielding.

Question 3208

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Aseptic loosening in total joint arthroplasty is primarily driven by a biological host response to particulate wear debris. Which cell type is the primary initial responder that engulfs these particles and releases pro-inflammatory cytokines like TNF-alpha and IL-1?

. Osteoblast
. Osteoclast
. Macrophage
. T-lymphocyte
. Fibroblast

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Osteoblast


Explanation

Macrophages are the primary effectors of periprosthetic osteolysis. They phagocytose wear debris (like ultra-high-molecular-weight polyethylene) and subsequently release cytokines (TNF-alpha, IL-1, IL-6) that aggressively stimulate osteoclast-mediated bone resorption.

Question 3209

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Particle-induced osteolysis after total joint arthroplasty is primarily driven by the phagocytosis of wear debris by which of the following cells?

. Osteoblasts
. Osteocytes
. Macrophages
. T-lymphocytes
. Fibroblasts

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Osteoblasts


Explanation

Macrophages phagocytose submicron wear particles and subsequently release pro-inflammatory cytokines like TNF-alpha and IL-1. This stimulates osteoclastic bone resorption and leads to aseptic loosening.

Question 3210

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Highly cross-linked ultra-high molecular weight polyethylene (UHMWPE) reduces adhesive and abrasive wear in total hip arthroplasty primarily through which of the following mechanisms?

. Decreasing the overall crystallinity of the polymer
. Decreasing the ultimate tensile strength of the material
. Creating covalent bonds between adjacent polymer chains
. Increasing the oxidation index of the bearing surface
. Eliminating free radicals through gamma irradiation in ambient air

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Decreasing the overall crystallinity of the polymer


Explanation

Irradiation creates free radicals that form covalent bonds (cross-links) between adjacent polyethylene chains, significantly increasing the material's resistance to adhesive and abrasive wear. Subsequent thermal treatment (melting or annealing) is required to quench residual free radicals and prevent long-term oxidation.

Question 3211

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Aseptic loosening and osteolysis around a total hip arthroplasty are most commonly initiated by macrophage phagocytosis of which type of wear particles?

. Polymethylmethacrylate
. Titanium alloy
. Cobalt-chromium
. Ultra-high molecular weight polyethylene
. Alumina ceramic

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Polymethylmethacrylate


Explanation

Osteolysis in total joint arthroplasty is most commonly driven by ultra-high molecular weight polyethylene (UHMWPE) wear particles. Macrophage phagocytosis of these particles triggers the release of inflammatory cytokines like TNF-alpha and IL-1, stimulating osteoclastic bone resorption.

Question 3212

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

According to Archard's law of adhesive wear in total joint arthroplasty, the volume of wear debris generated is inversely proportional to which of the following variables?

. Applied normal load
. Sliding distance
. Hardness of the material
. Surface roughness
. Coefficient of friction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Applied normal load


Explanation

Archard's law states that volumetric wear is directly proportional to the applied load and sliding distance, and inversely proportional to the hardness of the softer material. Increasing the hardness of the articulating surface reduces wear.

Question 3213

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

When placing screws into the acetabulum during total hip arthroplasty, the "safe zone" that provides optimal bone stock while minimizing the risk of neurovascular injury is located in which quadrant?

. Anterior-superior
. Anterior-inferior
. Posterior-superior
. Posterior-inferior
. Central

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior-superior


Explanation

The posterior-superior quadrant is considered the safe zone for acetabular screw placement. It offers excellent bone stock and minimizes the risk of penetrating injury to the external iliac vessels and the obturator nerve.

Question 3214

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

During a posterior approach to the hip, the short external rotators are tenotomized. Which of the following muscles inserts on the medial aspect of the greater trochanter, immediately superior to the superior gemellus?

. Quadratus femoris
. Obturator externus
. Piriformis
. Gluteus medius
. Gluteus minimus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Quadratus femoris


Explanation

The piriformis tendon inserts on the superior/medial aspect of the greater trochanter, immediately superior to the conjoined tendon of the superior gemellus, obturator internus, and inferior gemellus.

Question 3215

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A patient sustains a displaced scaphoid waist fracture. The high risk of proximal pole avascular necrosis is due to the retrograde blood supply originating from branches of which artery?

. Anterior interosseous artery
. Ulnar artery
. Radial artery
. Deep palmar arch
. Posterior interosseous artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior interosseous artery


Explanation

The major blood supply to the scaphoid is derived from dorsal branches of the radial artery. These vessels enter the scaphoid at its distal pole and flow in a retrograde direction to supply the proximal pole.

Question 3216

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
The unique vascular anatomy of the lunate predisposes it to Kienbรถck's disease. In the majority of the population, what is the anatomical pattern of the extraosseous arterial supply to the lunate?
. A single dorsal vessel entering the proximal pole
. A single volar vessel entering the distal pole
. Both dorsal and volar vessels that anastomose to form a Y-shaped intraosseous plexus
. Transcartilaginous diffusion without direct capsular arterial supply
. Distal to proximal retrograde flow exclusively from the capitate

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Both dorsal and volar vessels that anastomose to form a Y-shaped intraosseous plexus


Explanation

Approximately 80% of lunates have consistent dorsal and volar arterial networks that enter the bone and anastomose intraosseously in a Y-, I-, or X-pattern. The remaining 20% have only a single volar supply, placing them at higher risk for avascular necrosis.

Question 3217

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During a total hip arthroplasty using a posterior approach, the surgeon carefully identifies the sciatic nerve. In roughly 10-15% of the population, a common anatomic variation exists concerning the relationship of the sciatic nerve to the piriformis muscle. Which of the following describes this most frequent variant?

. The entire nerve passes superior to the piriformis
. The entire nerve passes through the piriformis belly
. The tibial division passes through the piriformis and the common peroneal passes below
. The common peroneal division passes through the piriformis and the tibial division passes below
. The common peroneal division passes superior to the piriformis and the tibial division passes through it

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The entire nerve passes superior to the piriformis


Explanation

The standard anatomy (85%) has the undivided sciatic nerve exiting below the piriformis. The most common variant (10-15%) involves a split nerve where the common peroneal division pierces the piriformis while the tibial division passes inferiorly.

Question 3218

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During acetabular component fixation in a total hip arthroplasty, the surgeon defines the safe zones based on Wasielewski's quadrant system, using a line from the ASIS through the center of the acetabulum and a perpendicular line at the center. Placing a screw in the anterosuperior quadrant places which structure at highest risk?

. Sciatic nerve
. Obturator nerve
. Internal pudendal artery
. External iliac artery and vein
. Superior gluteal nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sciatic nerve


Explanation

In the quadrant system for acetabular screw placement, the anterosuperior quadrant contains the external iliac vessels. The anteroinferior contains the obturator neurovascular bundle, while the posterosuperior and posteroinferior are considered the safe zones.

Question 3219

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

In repairing a posterior column acetabular fracture via a Kocher-Langenbeck approach, the surgeon must identify and protect the primary blood supply to the adult femoral head. Which of the following arteries provides this primary supply?

. Ascending branch of the lateral femoral circumflex artery
. Deep branch of the medial femoral circumflex artery
. Artery of the ligamentum teres
. Inferior gluteal artery
. Superior gluteal artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ascending branch of the lateral femoral circumflex artery


Explanation

The deep branch of the medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA) is the primary blood supply to the adult femoral head. It courses anterior to the superior gemellus and obturator internus, making it vulnerable during posterior approaches.

Question 3220

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 60-year-old woman exhibits a prominent Trendelenburg gait post-total hip arthroplasty via a direct lateral (Hardinge) approach. Injury to which nerve is the most likely cause, and what are its contributing nerve roots?

. Inferior gluteal nerve (L5, S1, S2)
. Superior gluteal nerve (L4, L5, S1)
. Femoral nerve (L2, L3, L4)
. Sciatic nerve (L4-S3)
. Obturator nerve (L2, L3, L4)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Inferior gluteal nerve (L5, S1, S2)


Explanation

The superior gluteal nerve (L4, L5, S1) innervates the gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, and tensor fasciae latae. Injury during a direct lateral approach leads to abductor weakness and a positive Trendelenburg sign.