This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee). Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 3041
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
An 18-year-old football player sustains a high-energy impact to his medial shoulder. He presents to the emergency department in extreme pain, with dysphagia, a sensation of choking, and a clinically absent medial clavicle prominence. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Closed reduction in the operating room with cardiothoracic surgery available
Explanation
This patient has a posterior sternoclavicular dislocation, a true orthopedic emergency due to potential compression of the trachea, esophagus, and great vessels. Reduction should be attempted in the OR under general anesthesia with a cardiothoracic surgeon available in case of a great vessel laceration.
Question 3042
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Type IV delayed hypersensitivity reactions have been implicated in some cases of unexplained pain and aseptic loosening in total joint arthroplasty. This immunological reaction is primarily mediated by which cells?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. T-lymphocytes
Explanation
Metal allergy in joint replacement is a Type IV delayed hypersensitivity reaction. It is a cell-mediated response driven primarily by sensitized T-lymphocytes upon re-exposure to the antigen.
Question 3043
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
The process of aseptic loosening in total joint arthroplasty is largely driven by particulate wear debris. Which of the following cell types is primarily responsible for phagocytosing this debris and releasing pro-inflammatory cytokines?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Macrophages
Explanation
Macrophages recognize and phagocytose particulate wear debris, such as ultra-high-molecular-weight polyethylene. In response, they release cytokines (TNF-alpha, IL-1, IL-6) that recruit and activate osteoclasts, leading to osteolysis.
Question 3044
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
What is the primary mode of wear in a well-functioning standard ultra-high molecular weight polyethylene (UHMWPE) on metal articulation in total hip arthroplasty?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Adhesive wear
Explanation
Adhesive wear is the predominant wear mechanism in typical metal-on-polyethylene articulations, occurring when microscopic asperities on the bearing surfaces adhere to each other and break off.
Question 3045
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
In total hip arthroplasty, accelerated generation of polyethylene wear debris due to a fragment of bone cement becoming trapped between the femoral head and acetabular liner is an example of:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Adhesive wear
Explanation
Third-body wear occurs when hard particles (e.g., bone fragments, cement, or metal debris) become trapped between two articulating surfaces, leading to accelerated gouging and wear of the softer surface.
Question 3046
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Compared to a total hip arthroplasty, the primary mode of ultra-high-molecular-weight polyethylene (UHMWPE) wear in a well-functioning total knee arthroplasty is:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Delamination
Explanation
Polyethylene wear in total knee arthroplasty is primarily due to fatigue and delamination secondary to repetitive subsurface shear stresses from rolling and sliding. Total hip arthroplasty typically experiences adhesive and abrasive wear due to highly conforming surfaces.
Question 3047
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A modular total hip arthroplasty fails due to severe tribocorrosion at the head-neck junction. What specific type of wear is characterized by microscopic oscillatory motion between two solid surfaces under load?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Abrasive wear
Explanation
Fretting wear occurs due to repetitive microscopic motion (micromotion) between two contacting surfaces under load, commonly seen at modular interfaces of joint replacements.
Question 3048
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Aseptic loosening of cementless total hip stems can occur secondary to localized proximal femoral osteopenia. This phenomenon, known as stress shielding, occurs because the rigid metal implant:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Has a significantly higher modulus of elasticity than the surrounding bone
Explanation
Stress shielding occurs when an implant with a higher modulus of elasticity (stiffness) bears the majority of the physiological load. The under-loaded surrounding bone then remodels and resorbs according to Wolff's law.
Question 3049
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
During revision of an uncemented total hip arthroplasty, severe polyethylene wear is noted secondary to retained bone and cement particles from a previous surgery acting between the articular surfaces. What type of wear mechanism is this?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Adhesive wear
Explanation
Third-body wear occurs when hard particles (e.g., bone fragments, cement, or metal debris) become trapped between two articulating surfaces. This leads to accelerated gouging and damage of the bearing surface.
Question 3050
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Which of the following represents the primary mechanical disadvantage of ceramic-on-ceramic bearings in total hip arthroplasty?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Low compressive strength
Explanation
Ceramics are highly resistant to wear and possess excellent compressive strength. However, they are brittle materials with very low tensile strength, making them susceptible to sudden catastrophic fracture under tension or impact.
Question 3051
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A patient develops significant proximal femoral bone loss two years after an uncemented total hip arthroplasty utilizing a diaphyseal-fitting, extensively porous-coated cobalt-chromium stem. The primary mechanism for this bone loss is:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Osteolysis secondary to polyethylene wear debris
Explanation
Extensively porous-coated cobalt-chromium stems provide rigid distal fixation and possess a very high modulus of elasticity. This offloads the proximal femur (stress shielding), leading to adaptive bone resorption according to Wolff's Law.
Question 3052
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Polyethylene wear particles in total hip arthroplasty predominantly induce periprosthetic osteolysis through the initial activation of which cell type?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Macrophages
Explanation
Ultra-high-molecular-weight polyethylene (UHMWPE) wear debris (typically 0.1-1.0 ยตm) is phagocytosed by macrophages. This triggers the release of pro-inflammatory cytokines like TNF-alpha and IL-1, which heavily upregulate osteoclastic bone resorption.
Question 3053
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Stress shielding, frequently observed radiographically as proximal femoral osteopenia around a stiff primary arthroplasty stem, is a direct clinical manifestation of which biomechanical principle?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Hooke's Law
Explanation
Wolff's Law dictates that bone adapts and remodels in direct response to the mechanical stresses placed upon it. When a stiff implant (such as a cobalt-chromium stem) bears the majority of the physiological load, the relatively unloaded surrounding bone resorbs due to stress shielding.
Question 3054
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Aseptic loosening is a major cause of failure in total joint arthroplasty. Which cell type is primarily responsible for recognizing particulate wear debris and initiating the osteolytic cascade?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Macrophage
Explanation
Macrophages phagocytose ultra-high-molecular-weight polyethylene (UHMWPE) wear debris and subsequently release pro-inflammatory cytokines such as TNF-alpha, IL-1, and IL-6. This inflammatory cascade strongly stimulates osteoclastogenesis, leading to periprosthetic osteolysis.
Question 3055
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
During a direct lateral (Hardinge) approach to the hip, proximal splitting of the gluteus medius is limited to prevent injury to the superior gluteal nerve. What is the generally accepted maximum safe distance for splitting the gluteus medius proximal to the tip of the greater trochanter?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 2 cm
Explanation
The superior gluteal nerve innervates the gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, and tensor fasciae latae. Splitting the gluteus medius more than 5 cm proximal to the greater trochanter places the nerve branches at significant risk.
Question 3056
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
In a direct anterior approach to the hip, careful deep dissection is required. In a different scenario where an adductor tenotomy and obturator nerve block are performed for spasticity, the surgeon isolates the anterior and posterior divisions of the obturator nerve. These divisions are anatomically separated by which of the following muscles?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Adductor longus
Explanation
After exiting the obturator foramen, the obturator nerve divides into anterior and posterior branches. These branches descend on either side of the adductor brevis muscle.
Question 3057
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
During a posterior approach to the hip (Kocher-Langenbeck), preservation of the main blood supply to the adult femoral head is critical. To protect the ascending branch of the medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA), the surgeon should strictly avoid transecting the tendon of the:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Piriformis
Explanation
The ascending branch of the MFCA courses intimately along the inferior border of the obturator externus tendon. Protecting this tendon protects the critical blood supply to the femoral head.
Question 3058
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
During a posterior approach to the hip (Kocher-Langenbeck), which of the following short external rotators should be preserved to protect the deep branch of the medial circumflex femoral artery?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Quadratus femoris
Explanation
The medial circumflex femoral artery courses anterior to the obturator externus and quadratus femoris. Preserving the obturator externus minimizes the risk of injury to the vessel and subsequent avascular necrosis of the femoral head.
Question 3059
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
During a posterior approach to the hip for a total hip arthroplasty, excessive bleeding is encountered near the inferior border of the quadratus femoris. Ligation of the vessels in this area puts the primary blood supply to the femoral head at risk. Which artery is responsible for this blood supply and passes between the quadratus femoris and the obturator externus?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Inferior gluteal artery
Explanation
The medial circumflex femoral artery (MCFA) provides the primary blood supply to the femoral head. Its deep branch passes between the obturator externus and quadratus femoris.
Question 3060
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 3-year-old boy presents with a painless limp. Examination shows a positive Trendelenburg gait and Galeazzi sign on the right. Radiographs confirm an untreated right developmental dislocation of the hip. What is the most appropriate surgical management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Pavlik harness application
Explanation
In a child older than 2-3 years with a completely dislocated hip, closed reduction is usually impossible and carries a high risk of AVN. Treatment typically requires open reduction combined with a femoral shortening osteotomy and a pelvic osteotomy to correct the dysplasia.
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