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Question 3041

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

An 18-year-old football player sustains a high-energy impact to his medial shoulder. He presents to the emergency department in extreme pain, with dysphagia, a sensation of choking, and a clinically absent medial clavicle prominence. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Immediate closed reduction in the emergency department using procedural sedation
. Closed reduction in the operating room with cardiothoracic surgery available
. Open reduction and internal fixation with a hook plate
. Resection arthroplasty of the medial clavicle
. Sling immobilization and outpatient follow-up

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Closed reduction in the operating room with cardiothoracic surgery available


Explanation

This patient has a posterior sternoclavicular dislocation, a true orthopedic emergency due to potential compression of the trachea, esophagus, and great vessels. Reduction should be attempted in the OR under general anesthesia with a cardiothoracic surgeon available in case of a great vessel laceration.

Question 3042

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Type IV delayed hypersensitivity reactions have been implicated in some cases of unexplained pain and aseptic loosening in total joint arthroplasty. This immunological reaction is primarily mediated by which cells?

. B-lymphocytes
. Mast cells
. Eosinophils
. T-lymphocytes
. Neutrophils

Correct Answer & Explanation

. T-lymphocytes


Explanation

Metal allergy in joint replacement is a Type IV delayed hypersensitivity reaction. It is a cell-mediated response driven primarily by sensitized T-lymphocytes upon re-exposure to the antigen.

Question 3043

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

The process of aseptic loosening in total joint arthroplasty is largely driven by particulate wear debris. Which of the following cell types is primarily responsible for phagocytosing this debris and releasing pro-inflammatory cytokines?

. Osteoblasts
. Osteoclasts
. Macrophages
. T-lymphocytes
. Fibroblasts

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Macrophages


Explanation

Macrophages recognize and phagocytose particulate wear debris, such as ultra-high-molecular-weight polyethylene. In response, they release cytokines (TNF-alpha, IL-1, IL-6) that recruit and activate osteoclasts, leading to osteolysis.

Question 3044

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
What is the primary mode of wear in a well-functioning standard ultra-high molecular weight polyethylene (UHMWPE) on metal articulation in total hip arthroplasty?
. Abrasive wear
. Adhesive wear
. Third-body wear
. Corrosive wear
. Fretting wear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Adhesive wear


Explanation

Adhesive wear is the predominant wear mechanism in typical metal-on-polyethylene articulations, occurring when microscopic asperities on the bearing surfaces adhere to each other and break off.

Question 3045

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

In total hip arthroplasty, accelerated generation of polyethylene wear debris due to a fragment of bone cement becoming trapped between the femoral head and acetabular liner is an example of:

. Adhesive wear
. Abrasive wear
. Third-body wear
. Fatigue wear
. Corrosive wear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Adhesive wear


Explanation

Third-body wear occurs when hard particles (e.g., bone fragments, cement, or metal debris) become trapped between two articulating surfaces, leading to accelerated gouging and wear of the softer surface.

Question 3046

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Compared to a total hip arthroplasty, the primary mode of ultra-high-molecular-weight polyethylene (UHMWPE) wear in a well-functioning total knee arthroplasty is:
. Adhesive wear
. Abrasive wear
. Delamination
. Third-body wear
. Galvanic wear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Delamination


Explanation

Polyethylene wear in total knee arthroplasty is primarily due to fatigue and delamination secondary to repetitive subsurface shear stresses from rolling and sliding. Total hip arthroplasty typically experiences adhesive and abrasive wear due to highly conforming surfaces.

Question 3047

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A modular total hip arthroplasty fails due to severe tribocorrosion at the head-neck junction. What specific type of wear is characterized by microscopic oscillatory motion between two solid surfaces under load?

. Abrasive wear
. Adhesive wear
. Fretting wear
. Third-body wear
. Galvanic wear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Abrasive wear


Explanation

Fretting wear occurs due to repetitive microscopic motion (micromotion) between two contacting surfaces under load, commonly seen at modular interfaces of joint replacements.

Question 3048

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Aseptic loosening of cementless total hip stems can occur secondary to localized proximal femoral osteopenia. This phenomenon, known as stress shielding, occurs because the rigid metal implant:

. Has a significantly higher modulus of elasticity than the surrounding bone
. Has a lower modulus of elasticity than the surrounding bone
. Elicits a foreign body inflammatory reaction
. Promotes direct osteoclast apoptosis
. Decreases the area moment of inertia of the femur

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Has a significantly higher modulus of elasticity than the surrounding bone


Explanation

Stress shielding occurs when an implant with a higher modulus of elasticity (stiffness) bears the majority of the physiological load. The under-loaded surrounding bone then remodels and resorbs according to Wolff's law.

Question 3049

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During revision of an uncemented total hip arthroplasty, severe polyethylene wear is noted secondary to retained bone and cement particles from a previous surgery acting between the articular surfaces. What type of wear mechanism is this?

. Adhesive wear
. Abrasive wear
. Fatigue wear
. Third-body wear
. Corrosive wear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Adhesive wear


Explanation

Third-body wear occurs when hard particles (e.g., bone fragments, cement, or metal debris) become trapped between two articulating surfaces. This leads to accelerated gouging and damage of the bearing surface.

Question 3050

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Which of the following represents the primary mechanical disadvantage of ceramic-on-ceramic bearings in total hip arthroplasty?

. Low compressive strength
. High wear rate compared to polyethylene
. Low tensile strength leading to brittle failure
. High coefficient of friction
. High elasticity causing head deformation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Low compressive strength


Explanation

Ceramics are highly resistant to wear and possess excellent compressive strength. However, they are brittle materials with very low tensile strength, making them susceptible to sudden catastrophic fracture under tension or impact.

Question 3051

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A patient develops significant proximal femoral bone loss two years after an uncemented total hip arthroplasty utilizing a diaphyseal-fitting, extensively porous-coated cobalt-chromium stem. The primary mechanism for this bone loss is:

. Osteolysis secondary to polyethylene wear debris
. Stress shielding due to the high modulus of the implant
. Deep periprosthetic joint infection
. Galvanic corrosion
. Hypersensitivity to cobalt ions

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Osteolysis secondary to polyethylene wear debris


Explanation

Extensively porous-coated cobalt-chromium stems provide rigid distal fixation and possess a very high modulus of elasticity. This offloads the proximal femur (stress shielding), leading to adaptive bone resorption according to Wolff's Law.

Question 3052

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Polyethylene wear particles in total hip arthroplasty predominantly induce periprosthetic osteolysis through the initial activation of which cell type?
. T-lymphocytes
. B-lymphocytes
. Macrophages
. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
. Fibroblasts

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Macrophages


Explanation

Ultra-high-molecular-weight polyethylene (UHMWPE) wear debris (typically 0.1-1.0 ยตm) is phagocytosed by macrophages. This triggers the release of pro-inflammatory cytokines like TNF-alpha and IL-1, which heavily upregulate osteoclastic bone resorption.

Question 3053

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Stress shielding, frequently observed radiographically as proximal femoral osteopenia around a stiff primary arthroplasty stem, is a direct clinical manifestation of which biomechanical principle?

. Hooke's Law
. Wolff's Law
. Bernoulli's Principle
. Poisson's Ratio
. Newton's Third Law

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hooke's Law


Explanation

Wolff's Law dictates that bone adapts and remodels in direct response to the mechanical stresses placed upon it. When a stiff implant (such as a cobalt-chromium stem) bears the majority of the physiological load, the relatively unloaded surrounding bone resorbs due to stress shielding.

Question 3054

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Aseptic loosening is a major cause of failure in total joint arthroplasty. Which cell type is primarily responsible for recognizing particulate wear debris and initiating the osteolytic cascade?
. Osteoblast
. Fibroblast
. Macrophage
. T-lymphocyte
. Polymorphonuclear leukocyte

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Macrophage


Explanation

Macrophages phagocytose ultra-high-molecular-weight polyethylene (UHMWPE) wear debris and subsequently release pro-inflammatory cytokines such as TNF-alpha, IL-1, and IL-6. This inflammatory cascade strongly stimulates osteoclastogenesis, leading to periprosthetic osteolysis.

Question 3055

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

During a direct lateral (Hardinge) approach to the hip, proximal splitting of the gluteus medius is limited to prevent injury to the superior gluteal nerve. What is the generally accepted maximum safe distance for splitting the gluteus medius proximal to the tip of the greater trochanter?

. 2 cm
. 5 cm
. 8 cm
. 10 cm
. 12 cm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 2 cm


Explanation

The superior gluteal nerve innervates the gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, and tensor fasciae latae. Splitting the gluteus medius more than 5 cm proximal to the greater trochanter places the nerve branches at significant risk.

Question 3056

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

In a direct anterior approach to the hip, careful deep dissection is required. In a different scenario where an adductor tenotomy and obturator nerve block are performed for spasticity, the surgeon isolates the anterior and posterior divisions of the obturator nerve. These divisions are anatomically separated by which of the following muscles?

. Adductor longus
. Adductor brevis
. Adductor magnus
. Pectineus
. Gracilis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Adductor longus


Explanation

After exiting the obturator foramen, the obturator nerve divides into anterior and posterior branches. These branches descend on either side of the adductor brevis muscle.

Question 3057

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

During a posterior approach to the hip (Kocher-Langenbeck), preservation of the main blood supply to the adult femoral head is critical. To protect the ascending branch of the medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA), the surgeon should strictly avoid transecting the tendon of the:

. Piriformis
. Obturator internus
. Obturator externus
. Superior gemellus
. Inferior gemellus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Piriformis


Explanation

The ascending branch of the MFCA courses intimately along the inferior border of the obturator externus tendon. Protecting this tendon protects the critical blood supply to the femoral head.

Question 3058

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During a posterior approach to the hip (Kocher-Langenbeck), which of the following short external rotators should be preserved to protect the deep branch of the medial circumflex femoral artery?

. Quadratus femoris
. Piriformis
. Obturator externus
. Superior gemellus
. Inferior gemellus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Quadratus femoris


Explanation

The medial circumflex femoral artery courses anterior to the obturator externus and quadratus femoris. Preserving the obturator externus minimizes the risk of injury to the vessel and subsequent avascular necrosis of the femoral head.

Question 3059

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During a posterior approach to the hip for a total hip arthroplasty, excessive bleeding is encountered near the inferior border of the quadratus femoris. Ligation of the vessels in this area puts the primary blood supply to the femoral head at risk. Which artery is responsible for this blood supply and passes between the quadratus femoris and the obturator externus?

. Inferior gluteal artery
. Ascending branch of the lateral circumflex femoral artery
. Medial circumflex femoral artery
. First perforating branch of the profunda femoris
. Obturator artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Inferior gluteal artery


Explanation

The medial circumflex femoral artery (MCFA) provides the primary blood supply to the femoral head. Its deep branch passes between the obturator externus and quadratus femoris.

Question 3060

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 3-year-old boy presents with a painless limp. Examination shows a positive Trendelenburg gait and Galeazzi sign on the right. Radiographs confirm an untreated right developmental dislocation of the hip. What is the most appropriate surgical management?

. Pavlik harness application
. Closed reduction and spica casting
. Open reduction, femoral shortening osteotomy, and pelvic osteotomy
. Adductor tenotomy alone
. Total hip arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pavlik harness application


Explanation

In a child older than 2-3 years with a completely dislocated hip, closed reduction is usually impossible and carries a high risk of AVN. Treatment typically requires open reduction combined with a femoral shortening osteotomy and a pelvic osteotomy to correct the dysplasia.