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Question 2921

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A patient presents with pain and swelling 5 years after receiving a primary total hip arthroplasty with a large-diameter cobalt-chromium head on a titanium stem. Workup reveals a solid pseudotumor but no infection. What is the primary mechanism of failure?

. Volumetric wear of the polyethylene liner
. Mechanically assisted crevice corrosion (trunnionosis)
. Galvanic corrosion at the acetabular shell interface
. Aseptic loosening of the femoral stem
. Fatigue fracture of the femoral head

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Mechanically assisted crevice corrosion (trunnionosis)


Explanation

Mechanically assisted crevice corrosion (trunnionosis) occurs at the modular head-neck junction, heavily exacerbated by the use of large-diameter, heavy cobalt-chromium heads on titanium stems, leading to adverse local tissue reactions.

Question 2922

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

While highly cross-linking polyethylene significantly improves wear characteristics in total hip arthroplasty, it negatively alters the material's mechanical properties. Which of the following is decreased as a direct result of the irradiation process?

. Oxidation resistance (if subsequently remelted)
. Elastic modulus
. Resistance to fatigue crack propagation
. Abrasive wear rate
. Crystallinity

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Resistance to fatigue crack propagation


Explanation

The highly cross-linking process, while drastically reducing volumetric wear, reduces the ultimate tensile strength, ductility, and resistance to fatigue crack propagation of the polyethylene.

Question 2923

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

What is the primary advantage of highly cross-linked polyethylene compared to conventional polyethylene in total hip arthroplasty (THA)?

. Increased fracture toughness
. Decreased volumetric wear
. Increased yield strength
. Decreased oxidation potential
. Better resistance to impingement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increased fracture toughness


Explanation

Highly cross-linked polyethylene significantly reduces volumetric wear and subsequent osteolysis rates. However, the cross-linking process decreases fracture toughness and ultimate tensile strength.

Question 2924

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

During a posterior-stabilized TKA, trial reduction reveals the knee is tight in flexion but well-balanced and symmetric in extension. What is the most appropriate next step to balance the knee?

. Increase the size of the femoral component
. Downsize the femoral component
. Resect more distal femur
. Release the posterior cruciate ligament
. Recut the proximal tibia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Downsize the femoral component


Explanation

A knee that is tight in flexion and balanced in extension requires an increase in the flexion gap without affecting the extension gap. Downsizing the femoral component (with an anterior referencing system) translates the posterior condyles anteriorly, effectively opening the flexion gap.

Question 2925

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 65-year-old woman complains of a painful popping sensation in her knee 9 months after a posterior-stabilized TKA. The pop occurs as she extends the knee from 40 degrees to full extension. What is the most likely cause?

. Patellar maltracking
. Fibrous nodule in the suprapatellar pouch
. Polyethylene wear
. Loose tibial component
. Retained posterior cruciate ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Fibrous nodule in the suprapatellar pouch


Explanation

Patellar clunk syndrome is caused by a fibrous nodule forming on the undersurface of the distal quadriceps tendon. It gets caught in the intercondylar box of a posterior-stabilized femoral component during active extension.

Question 2926

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

Following a primary THA using a posterior approach, a patient exhibits foot drop and an inability to actively dorsiflex the ankle. Eversion of the foot is also weak, but ankle inversion is normal. Which branch of the sciatic nerve is most likely injured, and what is its most common mechanism of injury?

. Tibial division; direct laceration
. Peroneal division; excessive traction
. Peroneal division; direct laceration
. Tibial division; thermal necrosis
. Tibial division; excessive traction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Peroneal division; excessive traction


Explanation

The peroneal division of the sciatic nerve is more susceptible to injury during THA due to its lateral position and tighter tethering at the fibular head. It is most commonly injured by excessive traction or stretching during the procedure.

Question 2927

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 55-year-old man with a metal-on-metal total hip arthroplasty presents with groin pain and a palpable anterior mass 4 years postoperatively. Radiographs show a well-fixed implant with normal alignment. Serum cobalt and chromium levels are significantly elevated. Aspiration yields sterile, cloudy fluid. What is the most appropriate definitive management?

. Intravenous antibiotics for 6 weeks
. Corticosteroid injection into the mass
. Revision to a ceramic-on-polyethylene bearing
. Isolated excision of the pseudotumor
. Observation and serial metal ion monitoring

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Revision to a ceramic-on-polyethylene bearing


Explanation

The patient has an adverse local tissue reaction (ALTR/pseudotumor) secondary to metal wear debris. Definitive management requires thorough debridement and revision of the bearing surfaces to a non-metal-on-metal option, such as ceramic-on-polyethylene.

Question 2928

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)



A 68-year-old woman experiences her third posterior dislocation of her THA within 6 months. Radiographs demonstrate a well-fixed acetabular component with 55 degrees of abduction and 0 degrees of anteversion. The femoral stem is well-fixed with 15 degrees of anteversion. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

. Revision of the femoral component to increase anteversion
. Revision of the acetabular component to decrease abduction and increase anteversion
. Conversion to a bipolar hemiarthroplasty
. Trochanteric advancement
. Placement of a constrained acetabular liner without changing the shell

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Revision of the acetabular component to decrease abduction and increase anteversion


Explanation

The acetabular component is malpositioned with inadequate anteversion (retroverted) and excessive abduction, predisposing to posterior dislocation. Revision of the shell to the safe zone (approx 40 degrees abduction and 15-20 degrees anteversion) is indicated.

Question 2929

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Which of the following preoperative findings is the most absolute contraindication for a standard mobile-bearing medial unicompartmental knee arthroplasty (UKA)?

. Age over 60 years
. Body mass index of 32 kg/m2
. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) deficiency
. Patellofemoral chondromalacia without anterior knee pain
. Flexion contracture of 10 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) deficiency


Explanation

ACL deficiency is a strong contraindication for a standard mobile or fixed-bearing UKA because it leads to abnormal kinematics and early failure due to anterior tibial translation. Age, moderate obesity, asymptomatic patellofemoral wear, and mild flexion contractures are not absolute contraindications.

Question 2930

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)



A 75-year-old male presents with new-onset swelling and pain 12 years after a primary TKA. Radiographs show eccentric joint space narrowing but well-fixed components with no osteolysis. Aspiration is negative for infection. What is the most appropriate treatment?

. Arthroscopic debridement
. Isolated polyethylene exchange
. Revision of all components
. Total knee arthrodesis
. Corticosteroid injection

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Isolated polyethylene exchange


Explanation

In the setting of isolated polyethylene wear (asymmetric narrowing) with well-fixed components, correct alignment, and no osteolysis, an isolated polyethylene insert exchange is the most appropriate surgical intervention.

Question 2931

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A patient with a conventional metal-on-polyethylene THA presents 5 years postoperatively with vague hip pain and a mass. MRI with metal suppression reveals a cystic lesion surrounding the hip joint. Aspiration reveals dark fluid with high cobalt and chromium levels. What is the most likely source of the metal wear?

. Bearing surface wear
. Acetabular shell fretting
. Head-neck junction fretting and corrosion
. Polyethylene liner dissociation
. Impingement of the stem on the acetabular rim

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Head-neck junction fretting and corrosion


Explanation

Trunnionosis occurs due to fretting and crevice corrosion at the modular head-neck junction (trunnion). It can cause adverse local tissue reactions (ALTR) similar to metal-on-metal wear, even in standard metal-on-polyethylene implants.

Question 2932

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

You are performing a TKA on a severe valgus knee. After making the standard bony cuts, the knee remains tight laterally in extension but balanced in flexion. Which structure is typically released first to balance the extension gap?

. Popliteus tendon
. Iliotibial band
. Lateral collateral ligament
. Biceps femoris
. Lateral head of gastrocnemius

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Iliotibial band


Explanation

For a valgus knee that is tight specifically in extension, the iliotibial band (ITB) is typically the first structure released, often via pie-crusting. The popliteus affects flexion more than extension, and the LCL affects both.

Question 2933

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Modern cementing techniques for total hip arthroplasty (third-generation) have significantly improved the survivorship of the femoral stem. Which of the following is a core component of third-generation cementing technique?

. Use of a proximal cement restrictor
. Hand mixing of the cement to increase porosity
. Application of cement in the doughy phase without pressurization
. Vacuum mixing and retrograde filling with a cement gun
. Immediate insertion of the stem while the cement is highly liquid

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Vacuum mixing and retrograde filling with a cement gun


Explanation

Third-generation cementing techniques include the use of a distal cement restrictor, vacuum mixing (to reduce porosity), retrograde filling with a cement gun, and sustained pressurization of the cement prior to stem insertion.

Question 2934

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)



When establishing correct femoral component rotation in a TKA, the anterior-posterior (AP) axis (Whiteside's line) is commonly used. To what reference line should Whiteside's line be strictly perpendicular?

. The transepicondylar axis
. The mechanical axis of the femur
. The posterior condylar axis
. The anatomic axis of the femur
. The joint line of the tibia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The transepicondylar axis


Explanation

Whiteside's line (the AP axis) runs from the deepest part of the trochlear groove to the center of the intercondylar notch and is anatomically perpendicular to the surgical transepicondylar axis.

Question 2935

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)



An 80-year-old woman requires revision THA for severe aseptic loosening. Radiographs demonstrate a fracture through the acetabular fossa separating the superior and inferior halves of the hemipelvis. What is the most definitive surgical construct to achieve stable fixation in this setting?

. Jumbo cementless hemispherical cup
. Cemented cup with structural allograft
. Cup-cage construct or custom triflange
. Standard cementless cup with multiple screws
. Bipolar hemiarthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cup-cage construct or custom triflange


Explanation

The patient has a pelvic discontinuity (separation of the ilium from the ischium/pubis). Achieving stable fixation requires bridging the discontinuity, best accomplished using a cup-cage construct, a custom triflange implant, or a highly porous cup with distraction.

Question 2936

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During a posterior-stabilized total knee arthroplasty, the trial reduction demonstrates a balanced and symmetric extension gap, but the flexion gap is unacceptably tight. Which of the following is the most appropriate intraoperative adjustment to balance the gaps?

. Recut the distal femur to remove more bone
. Upsize the femoral component
. Downsize the femoral component
. Release the medial collateral ligament
. Increase the polyethylene insert thickness

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Downsize the femoral component


Explanation

Downsizing the femoral component in the anteroposterior dimension increases the flexion gap without affecting the extension gap. Recutting the distal femur would affect only the extension gap.

Question 2937

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 45-year-old active man undergoes a total hip arthroplasty with a ceramic-on-ceramic bearing surface. What is a specific, known potential complication associated with this bearing surface compared to metal-on-polyethylene?

. Trunnionosis
. Audible squeaking during hip motion
. Massive osteolysis from backside wear
. Significantly higher rate of late dislocation
. Systemic heavy metal toxicity

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Audible squeaking during hip motion


Explanation

Ceramic-on-ceramic bearings are associated with a unique complication of audible squeaking, occurring in up to 10% of patients. They otherwise offer extremely low wear rates and no risk of metal ion toxicity.

Question 2938

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 65-year-old man presents with acute onset knee pain and swelling 3 weeks after an uncomplicated primary total knee arthroplasty. Knee aspiration yields a white blood cell count of 35,000 cells/uL with 90% polymorphonuclear leukocytes. What is the most appropriate management?

. Oral antibiotics for 6 weeks
. Arthroscopic lavage and drain placement
. Open debridement, polyethylene exchange, and retention of components
. One-stage revision arthroplasty
. Two-stage revision arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Open debridement, polyethylene exchange, and retention of components


Explanation

For acute periprosthetic joint infections occurring within 4 weeks of the index surgery, Debridement, Antibiotics, and Implant Retention (DAIR) with polyethylene exchange is the standard of care.

Question 2939

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

Following the implantation of total knee arthroplasty components, trial reduction reveals lateral patellar subluxation. The components are correctly sized. Which of the following component malrotations is the most likely cause?

. Internal rotation of the femoral component
. External rotation of the femoral component
. Excessive valgus of the tibial component
. Excessive flexion of the femoral component
. External rotation of the tibial component

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Internal rotation of the femoral component


Explanation

Internal rotation of the femoral component medializes the trochlear groove and increases the Q angle, leading to lateral patellar tracking and subluxation. External rotation of the femoral component helps optimize patellar tracking.

Question 2940

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 55-year-old woman with a metal-on-metal total hip arthroplasty presents with unexplained groin pain 4 years postoperatively. Her ESR and CRP are normal, but an MRI with metal artifact reduction sequence (MARS) shows a large, expanding solid/cystic mass around the joint. What is the recommended next step?

. Observation and repeat MRI in 1 year
. Needle aspiration in the clinic
. Revision to a metal-on-polyethylene bearing with synovectomy
. Six weeks of intravenous antibiotics
. CT-guided drainage of the cyst

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Revision to a metal-on-polyethylene bearing with synovectomy


Explanation

The patient has an adverse local tissue reaction (ALTR) or pseudotumor related to metal wear debris. Symptomatic pseudotumors with expanding soft tissue masses require revision to a non-metal-on-metal bearing with extensive synovectomy.