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Question 2181

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

Figure 29 shows the radiograph of a 55-year-old patient who has recurrent total hip dislocation. Dislocation is most likely to occur in this patient when the hip is in which of the following positions?

Hip Board Review 2001: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 1

. Neutral rotation
. External rotation
. Internal rotation
. Hyperflexion
. Midstance phase of gait

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Internal rotation


Explanation

The patient has an acetabular component that is placed in excessive anteversion; this is confirmed by the shoot-through radiograph. The most common reasons for dislocation of a total hip replacement include inappropriate positioning of the components, inadequate abductor tension, or impingement. Implants placed without adequate total anteversion tend to dislocate posteriorly, and implants with excessive anteversion tend to dislocate anteriorly. Superior dislocations can occur if the acetabular component is placed in a severely vertical position with inadequate lateral coverage.

Question 2182

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 60-year-old woman reports anterior knee pain 2 years after undergoing primary total knee arthroplasty for rheumatoid arthritis. A Merchant view of the patella is shown in Figure 16. What is the most likely cause of her pain?

Hip 2004 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 4

. Elevation of the joint line
. Lateral placement of the femoral component
. Medial placement of the patellar component
. Internal rotation of the femoral component
. External rotation of the tibial component

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Internal rotation of the femoral component


Explanation

Patellar complications commonly occur after primary total knee arthroplasty; therefore, proper component positioning is critical in obtaining a successful result. This patient has lateral tilting and subluxation of the patellar component. Internal rotation of the femoral component has the most deleterious effect on patellar tracking. Lateral placement of the femoral component, medial placement of the patellar component, and external rotation of the tibial component have beneficial effects on patellar tracking. Elevation of the joint line, if not excessive, should not impact patellar tracking. Rand JA: Patellar resurfacing in total knee arthroplasty. Clin Orthop 1990;260:110-117.

Question 2183

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

An active 60-year-old man is evaluated 4 years following surgical correction of a hallux valgus deformity. The patient reports that a hallux varus deformity developed rapidly following his initial surgery. Conservative management consisting of wider shoes, toe strapping, and anti-inflammatory drugs has failed to provide relief. Examination reveals a hallux varus deformity with restricted painful motion of the metatarsophalangeal joint and callus formation under the second metatarsal head. What is the next most appropriate step in management?

Foot & Ankle Board Review 2000: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 31

. Fascial arthroplasty
. Metatarsophalangeal joint arthrodesis
. Metatarsophalangeal joint Silastic arthroplasty
. Extensor tendon reconstruction
. Keller resection arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Metatarsophalangeal joint arthrodesis


Explanation

Hallux varus may occur as a complication following hallux valgus surgery, most commonly a modified McBride-type procedure. Conservative management is the initial treatment of choice; however, if unsuccessful, surgical options for reconstruction include soft-tissue reconstruction or metatarsophalangeal joint arthrodesis. The patient has evidence of joint arthrosis, making an arthrodesis the preferred method of reconstruction. Fascial arthroplasty, Silastic arthroplasty, and Keller resection arthroplasty will not correct the underlying deformity. Kitaoka HB, Patzer GL: Arthrodesis versus resection arthroplasty for failed hallux valgus operations. Clin Orthop 1998;347:208-214.

Question 2184

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
You are interested in learning a new technique for minimally invasive total knee arthroplasty. The Keyhole Genuflex system seems appealing to you because the instrumentation comes with wireless controls. Which of the following represents an acceptable arrangement?
. The local Keyhole representative has invited you and your spouse out to dinner at a local restaurant to discuss your interest in their new minimally invasive total knee system, the Keyhole Genuflex knee.
. Keyhole has offered to pay your tuition to attend a CME course sponsored by the American Association of Hip & Knee Surgeons where both the Genuflex and the competing Styph total knee are discussed and demonstrated.
. Keyhole will pay your expenses to attend a workshop, in Phoenix at their company headquarters, to learn how to implant the Genuflex knee and to see how the implant is manufactured and tested.
. Keyhole will pay you $500 for each knee that you implant if you switch from your current total knee system.
. After you have implanted 25 Genuflex knees, Keyhole will list you on their website as a consultant, pay you a consulting fee of $5,000 per year, and invite you to a golf tournament for their consultants at a resort.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Keyhole will pay your expenses to attend a workshop, in Phoenix at their company headquarters, to learn how to implant the Genuflex knee and to see how the implant is manufactured and tested.


Explanation

Both the AAOS and AdvaMed, the medical device manufacturer's trade organization, have written guidelines that address potential conflicts of interest regarding interactions between physicians and manufacturer's representatives when it comes to patients' best interest. The AAOS feels that the orthopaedic profession exists for the primary purpose of caring for the patient and that the physician-patient relationship is the central focus of all ethical concerns. When an orthopaedic surgeon receives anything of significant value from industry, a potential conflict of interest exists. The AAOS believes that it is acceptable for industry to provide financial and other support to orthopaedic surgeons if such support has significant educational value and has the purpose of improving patient care. All dealings between orthopaedic surgeons and industry should benefit the patient and be able to withstand public scrutiny. A gift of any kind from industry should in no way influence the orthopaedic surgeon in determining the most appropriate treatment for his or her patient. Orthopaedic surgeons should not accept gifts or other financial support with conditions attached. Subsidies by industry to underwrite the costs of educational events where CME credits are provided can contribute to the improvement of patient care and are acceptable. A corporate subsidy received by the conference's sponsor is acceptable; however, direct industry reimbursement for an orthopaedic surgeon to attend a CME educational event is not appropriate. Special circumstances may arise in which orthopaedic surgeons may be required to learn new surgical techniques demonstrated by an expert or to review new implants or other devices on-site. In these circumstances, reimbursement for expenses may be appropriate.

Question 2185

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Figures 13a and 13b show the preoperative radiographs of a 60-year-old woman who is scheduled to undergo total knee arthroplasty under epidural anesthesia. Postoperatively she reports a burning sensation on the dorsum of her foot despite the administration of IV analgesics through a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. Management should now include

. increasing the dose released by the PCA.
. administering a different narcotic with the PCA pump.
. elevating the leg.
. releasing the dressings and knee flexion.
. immediately returning to the operating room for revision.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. releasing the dressings and knee flexion.


Explanation

The patient has a significant flexion contracture and valgus deformity; therefore, the risk of peroneal nerve injury is increased. Idusuyi and Morrey noted that epidural anesthesia also increases the risk of peroneal nerve injury. The initial symptom can be a burning sensation on the foot, followed by pain and then motor weakness. Initial management should consist of release of the dressings and knee flexion. Idusuyi OB, Morrey BF: Peroneal nerve palsy after total knee arthroplasty: Assessment of predisposing and prognostic factors. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1996;78:177-184.

Question 2186

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Figures 21a through 21c show the radiographs of a 70-year-old woman who has persistent pain with activity after undergoing hip revision 6 months ago. Treatment should now consist of

. shortening of the femoral neck.
. exchange of the acetabular liner.
. revision of the femoral component.
. revision of both components.
. revision of the acetabular component.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. revision of the acetabular component.


Explanation

The radiographs show disruption of the posterior column of the acetabulum with radiolucencies about the component. Because the patient requires a stable construct to allow the bone to heal, the treatment of choice is an antiprotrusio cage and a graft. Gill TJ, Sledge JB, Muller ME: The Burch-Schneider anti-protrusio cage in revision total hip arthroplasty: Indications, principles, and long-term results. J Bone Joint Surg Br 1998;80:946-953.

Question 2187

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Figures 4a and 4b show the radiographs of a 32-year-old man who has right groin pain with activity or prolonged standing. Which of the following factors would not prohibit consideration of acetabular liner exchange and grafting of the defects?

. Malposition of the components
. A poor survivorship record of the implant
. A high-powered intraoperative frozen section that reveals a count of 20 WBCs per high-powered field
. A nonmodular acetabular component
. A well-fixed modular acetabular component

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A well-fixed modular acetabular component


Explanation

Polyethylene particles generated as mechanical wear debris can be phagocytized by macrophages and enter a metabolically active state that releases cytokines, causing periprosthetic bone resorption. Significant osteolysis can occur in the pelvis with a porous-coated cementless socket without loosening of the component. If the acetabular component is modular, well positioned, well-designed with a good survivorship record, and remains undamaged after liner removal, the polyethylene liner can be exchanged and the lytic defects can be debrided and bone grafted. This implant is well positioned, has a good survivorship record, a good locking mechanism, and is modular. The hip arthroplasty needs to be aseptic for consideration of liner exchange. Maloney WJ, Herzwurm P, Paprosky W, Rubash HE, Engh CA: Treatment of pelvic osteolysis associated with a stable acetabular component inserted without cement as part of a total hip replacement. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1997;79:1628-1634.

Question 2188

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Which of the following surgical techniques is associated with an increased incidence of patellar complications after total knee arthroplasty?

. Medialization of the patellar component
. Symmetric patellar osteotomy
. Use of metal-backed patellar components
. Maintaining a patellar thickness of 12 to 15 mm
. External rotation of the femoral component

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Use of metal-backed patellar components


Explanation

Surgical technique in patellar resurfacing has been found to be one of the critical factors in the success or failure of total knee arthroplasty. Theoretically, metal-backed patellar components are an excellent way of evenly distributing joint forces from the polyethylene button to bone (similar to the tibial component). However, despite this theoretical advantage, metal-backed patellae have been associated with a higher failure rate. Some of the observed problems include poor bone ingrowth, peg failure, dissociation of the metal plate and polyethylene button, and component fracture. Because of these factors, all-polyethylene patellae have proved to be the standard if patellar resurfacing is attempted. Medialization of the patellar component, a symmetrically thick patella, and external rotation of the femoral and tibial components improve patellar tracking. Pellicci PM, Tria AJ Jr, Garvin KL (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Hip and Knee Reconstruction 2. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2000, pp 323-337.

Question 2189

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 28-year-old man sustained a shoulder dislocation 2 years ago. It remained dislocated for 3 weeks and required an open reduction. He now reports constant pain and has only 60 degrees of forward elevation and 10 degrees of external rotation. He desires to return to some sporting activities. An AP radiograph and intraoperative photograph (a view of the humeral head through a deltopectoral approach) are shown in Figures 31a and 31b. What is the best treatment option to decrease pain and improve function?

. Resurfacing hemiarthroplasty
. Resurfacing hemiarthroplasty with fascial glenoid resurfacing
. Resurfacing hemiarthroplasty with cemented glenoid component
. Stemmed hemiarthroplasty
. Stemmed total shoulder arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Stemmed hemiarthroplasty


Explanation

The radiograph and intraoperative photograph show osteonecrosis with near complete head loss/collapse. A stemmed implant is more appropriate in this patient because there is very little bone to support a resurfacing implant. In a younger patient, a glenoid implant should be delayed as long as possible because of the eventual need for revision secondary to glenoid loosening and wear, especially in a young active male. The hemiarthroplasty may be converted to a total shoulder arthroplasty in the future. Levy O, Copeland SA: Cementless surface replacement arthroplasty of the shoulder: 5- to 10-year results with the Copeland mark-2 prosthesis. J Bone Joint Surg Br 2001;83:213-221.

Question 2190

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 38-year-old man who is an avid tennis player has had persistent pain over the medial aspect of his knee for the past 6 years. He notes that the pain occurs on a daily basis with any significant activity. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs have failed to provide relief. Radiographs are shown in Figures 22a and 22b. What is the best course of action?

. Total knee arthroplasty
. Unicompartmental arthroplasty
. Insertion of a unispacer
. Tibial osteotomy
. Knee arthroscopy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tibial osteotomy


Explanation

In a relatively young patient who is an avid tennis player, the treatment of choice is a joint preserving procedure. The radiographs reveal varus alignment with loading of the medial compartment. After all nonsurgical management options have been used, the best treatment option is a medial opening wedge osteotomy. A lateral closing wedge osteotomy of the proximal tibia is also a reasonable option, but it is not one of the choices. A unicompartmental arthroplasty or a total knee arthroplasty would place significant restrictions in this patient. A unispacer may be a temporizing procedure but is controversial and without substantial data in the literature. The knee arthroscopy will not address the medial compartment osteoarthritis. Nagel A, Insall JN, Scuderi GR: Proximal tibial osteotomy: A subjective outcome study. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1996;78:1353-1358. Rinonapoli E, Mancini GB, Corvaglia A, et al: Tibial osteotomy for varus gonarthrosis: A 10- to 21-year followup study. Clin Orthop 1998;353:185-193.

Question 2191

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Figures 5a and 5b show the radiographs of an active 52-year-old man who has increasing knee pain and progressive varus deformity after undergoing total knee arthroplasty 7 years ago. Examination reveals a small effusion, but he has good motion and stability. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Wear-induced osteolysis
. Giant cell tumor
. Loose tibial component
. Infection
. Electrolytic reaction caused by dissimilar metals

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Wear-induced osteolysis


Explanation

The radiographs show narrowing of the medial joint space, which indicates polyethylene wear and progressive varus alignment. Wear particles incite osteolytic lesions like the one seen on the lateral radiograph. O'Rourke MR, Callaghan JJ, Goetz DG, et al: Osteolysis associated with a cemented modular posterior-cruciate-substituting total knee design. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2002;84:1362-1371.

Question 2192

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Figure 50 shows the AP radiograph of an asymptomatic 82-year-old woman who underwent total hip arthroplasty 16 years ago. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Anatomy Board Review 2005: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 14

. Wear-induced osteolysis
. Infection
. Metastatic tumor
. Loosening of the femoral component
. Hip subluxation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Wear-induced osteolysis


Explanation

Pelvic osteolysis in the presence of a well-fixed porous-coated socket is a recognized complication in total hip arthroplasty. The radiograph shows large lytic lesions superiorly adjacent to an acetabular screw and inferiorly extending into the ischium. It also reveals eccentricity of the femoral head with respect to the acetabular component, consistent with polyethylene wear. Koval KJ (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 7. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2002, p 440.

Question 2193

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

Which of the following is considered an important factor in improved cemented femoral stem survivorship?

. Precoated stem with methylmethacrylate
. Varus stem position
. 2 to 3 mm of circumferential cement mantle
. Dorr C or "stovepipe" femoral anatomy
. Sharp angled corners on the femoral stem

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 2 to 3 mm of circumferential cement mantle


Explanation

Cement technique, relative stem to canal size and position, stem design, surgical technique, and femoral anatomy are important factors in cemented stem survivorship. Varus stem position, a wide diaphyseal to metaphyseal ratio (stovepipe femur), thin cement mantles (1 mm or less), and nonrounded femoral stem designs are negative prognostic factors for stem survivorship. Precoating with methylmethacrylate has not been shown to provide any increased survivorship over nonprecoated stems. Noble PC, Collier MB, Maltry JA, Kamaric E, Tullos HS: Pressurization and centalization enhance the quality and reproducibility of cement mantles. Clin Orthop 1998;355:77-89. Crowninshield RD, Brand RA, Johnston RC, Milroy JC: The effect of femoral stem cross-sectional geometry on cement stresses in total hip reconstruction. Clin Orthop 1980;146:71-77.

Question 2194

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Figure 4 shows the AP radiograph of a 28-year-old woman who has had moderate pain in the left hip for the past year. Nonsurgical management has failed to provide relief. She denies any history of hip pain, pathology, or trauma. Management should consist of

Hip 2001 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 10

. observation.
. a Pemberton osteotomy.
. a periacetabular osteotomy.
. a Chiari osteotomy.
. total hip arthroplasty.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. a periacetabular osteotomy.


Explanation

The radiograph shows developmental dysplasia of the hip with the hip reduced and congruent. The treatment of choice is a periacetabular osteotomy because it can improve hip biomechanics and prolong the function of the hip joint. This procedure should be performed prior to the development of severe degenerative changes. Observation will not alter the patient's natural history or the biomechanics of the hip. A total hip arthroplasty should be delayed until severe degenerative changes are present. A Chiari osteotomy is a salvage osteotomy used for a noncongruent subluxated hip. A Pemberton osteotomy requires an open triradiate cartilage; therefore, it is not an option in an adult. Trousdale RT, Ekkernkamp A, Ganz R, Wallrichs SL: Periacetabular and intertrochanteric osteotomy for the treatment of osteoarthrosis in dysplastic hips. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1995;77:73-85.

Question 2195

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Figure 16 shows the radiograph of an otherwise healthy 62-year-old woman who fell. Management should consist of

Hip & Knee Reconstruction Board Review 2007: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 3

. revision total hip arthroplasty with a cemented femoral component and adjuvant fracture fixation.
. revision total hip arthroplasty with a cementless femoral component and adjuvant fracture fixation.
. open reduction and internal fixation of the fracture and retention of the original components.
. removal of the components, open reduction and internal fixation of the fracture, and delayed replantation of the components when the fracture is healed.
. resection arthroplasty and internal fixation of the fracture.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. revision total hip arthroplasty with a cementless femoral component and adjuvant fracture fixation.


Explanation

The radiograph reveals that the femoral component is grossly loose as evidenced by disruption of the cement column; therefore, retention of the original components will not yield a successful outcome. A cementless revision is the procedure of choice. A strut graft and/or plate may be added at the surgeon's discretion. A resection arthroplasty would only be considered in a nonambulatory patient. Cemented fixation of the revision component would be problematic given the numerous fracture fragments and the inability to contain the cement. Springer BD, Berry DJ, Lewallen DG: Treatment of periprosthetic fractures following total hip arthroplasty with femoral component revision. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2003;85:2156-2162.

Question 2196

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 73-year-old man is scheduled to have mature heterotopic bone resected from around his left total hip arthroplasty. The optimal management for prophylaxis against the return of heterotopic bone postoperatively is radiation therapy that consists of

Hip Board Review 2001: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 11

. 400 cGy in one dose.
. 700 cGy in one dose.
. 1,000 cGy in five doses.
. 2,000 cGy in 10 doses.
. 3,000 cGy in 10 doses.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 700 cGy in one dose.


Explanation

Patients require prophylaxis for heterotopic bone after resection to prevent recurrence. The optimal management has been found to be a dose of 700 cGy in one dose delivered either pre- or postoperatively. A dose of 2,000 to 3,000 cGy is considered excessive. Radiation therapy consisting of 1,000 cGy in five doses is an acceptable prophylaxis; however, it will require an extended hospital stay of 3 to 4 days and is more problematic for the patient who must be transported for radiation therapy for 5 days. A dose of 400 cGy is not as effective in prophylaxis for heterotopic bone formation. Healy WL, Lo TC, DeSimone AA, Rask B, Pfeifer BA: Single-dose irradiation for the prevention of heterotopic ossification after total hip arthroplasty: A comparison of doses of five hundred and fifty and seven hundred centigray. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1995;77:590-595. Pelligrini VD Jr, Gregoritch SJ: Preoperative irradiation for the prevention of heterotopic ossification following total hip arthroplasty. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1996;78:870-881.

Question 2197

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 58-year-old woman who underwent a successful total hip replacement for degenerative arthritis 8 years ago reports groin pain for the past 6 months. A radiograph of the hip is shown in Figure 32. At revision, severe deficiency of the posterior column is noted. What reconstructive option would be most appropriate for the acetabulum?

Hip Board Review 2001: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 6

. Cementless cup without graft
. Cemented cup without graft
. Cemented cup with structural bone graft
. Bone graft, reconstruction cage, and cemented cup
. Bilobed cementless acetabular component

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Bone graft, reconstruction cage, and cemented cup


Explanation

The radiograph shows medial migration of the cementless acetabular component, strongly suggesting acetabular discontinuity with a combined segmental and cavitary medial deficiency. The treatment of choice is a morcellized or structural graft, supported with a reconstructive cage bridging the pelvic discontinuity, and a cemented cup. Whiteside LA: Selection of acetabular component, in Steinberg ME, Garino JP (eds): Revision Total Hip Arthroplasty. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Williams and Wilkins, 1999, pp 209-220.

Question 2198

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 67-year-old woman undergoes a revision total shoulder arthroplasty for replacement of a loose glenoid component. Examination in the recovery room reveals absent voluntary deltoid and triceps contraction, weakness of wrist and thumb extension, and absent sensation in the palmar aspect of all fingertips and the radial forearm. The next most appropriate step in management should consist of

. an immediate return to the operating room to explore the brachial plexus.
. immediate electromyography and nerve conduction velocity studies.
. MRI of the brachial plexus.
. MRI of the cervical spine.
. immobilization in a sling, followed by early passive range of motion.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. immobilization in a sling, followed by early passive range of motion.


Explanation

Neurologic injury after shoulder replacement is relatively uncommon, occurring in 4% of shoulders in one large series. The importance of identifying and protecting the musculocutaneous and axillary nerves cannot be overemphasized; it is especially critical during revision arthroplasty when the normal anatomic relationships have been distorted. The long deltopectoral approach leaving the deltoid attached to the clavicle was found to be significant in the development of postoperative neurologic complications. A correlation was found between surgical time and postoperative neurologic complications, with long surgical times being associated with more neurologic complications. The presumed mechanism of injury is traction on the plexus that occurs during the surgery. A neurologic injury after total shoulder arthroplasty usually does not interfere with the long-term outcome of the arthroplasty itself; it is best managed by protective measures with passive range of motion of the involved extremity. Wirth MA, Rockwood CA Jr: Complications of shoulder arthroplasty. Clin Orthop 1994;307:47-69.

Question 2199

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Figures 17a and 17b show the AP and lateral radiographs of a 75-year-old woman who reports giving way and shifting of the knee, particularly when she is descending stairs or ambulating on level surfaces. History reveals a total knee replacement 5 years ago. Treatment should consist of

. extra-articular ligament repair.
. resection arthroplasty with a cement spacer.
. revision of the tibial tray.
. revision of the patella to an all-polyethylene component.
. revision to a posterior cruciate-substituting implant.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. revision to a posterior cruciate-substituting implant.


Explanation

The radiographs show well-fixed components of a posterior cruciate-retaining total knee replacement. The relative position of the femoral component is anteriorly subluxated relative to the tibial component. The AP radiograph shows that the articular space is markedly asymmetric, indicating either failure or fracture of the polyethylene or subluxation of the femur relative to the tibia. The patient's symptoms suggest a failure of the posterior cruciate ligament that is consistent with the radiographic findings; therefore, the treatment of choice is revision to a posterior cruciate-substituting implant.

Question 2200

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

A 72-year-old woman has had progressively increasing pain in the right knee for the past 6 months. She denies any trauma and has no pain in any other joints, but she notes occasional swelling in the knee and a catching sensation. Figures 31a and 31b show the plain radiographs and Figure 31c shows the MRI scan. Treatment should consist of

. arthroscopy and subtotal meniscectomy.
. arthroscopy and shaving chondroplasty.
. osteochondral bone graft.
. high tibial valgus osteotomy.
. total knee replacement.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. total knee replacement.


Explanation

The plain radiographs show a defect in the lateral femoral condyle and narrowing of the lateral joint space. The MRI scan shows a lesion consistent with osteonecrosis of the lateral femoral condyle. The treatment alternatives for this condition are an osteotomy or a total knee replacement, but a total knee replacement is the treatment of choice for a 72-year-old patient. Arthroscopy or an osteochondral bone graft will not address her symptoms. A valgus osteotomy will exacerbate the problem by overloading the lateral joint, which is already diseased. Lotke PA, Ecker ML: Osteonecrosis of the knee. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1988;70:470-473.