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Question 2081

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 55-year-old active woman undergoes a total hip arthroplasty with a ceramic-on-ceramic bearing surface. Three years later, she complains of a newly developed, audible squeaking from the hip with deep flexion. Radiographs are normal. What is the most common cause of this phenomenon?

. Aseptic loosening of the femoral stem
. Metallosis from the trunnion
. Microseparation and edge loading of the bearing surfaces
. Subclinical joint infection
. Component dissociation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Microseparation and edge loading of the bearing surfaces


Explanation

Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic total hip arthroplasty is most commonly associated with component malpositioning leading to microseparation and edge loading. It typically does not indicate catastrophic failure if radiographs remain normal.

Question 2082

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 70-year-old active female undergoes total hip arthroplasty (THA) for a displaced femoral neck fracture. Compared to patients undergoing THA for primary osteoarthritis, this patient is at the highest increased risk for which of the following postoperative complications?

. Deep vein thrombosis
. Periprosthetic joint infection
. Aseptic loosening
. Prosthetic dislocation
. Heterotopic ossification

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Prosthetic dislocation


Explanation

Patients undergoing THA for acute femoral neck fractures have a significantly higher risk of postoperative dislocation compared to those undergoing elective THA for osteoarthritis. This is primarily due to acute soft tissue laxity and the absence of preexisting protective capsular contractures.

Question 2083

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During a primary posterior-stabilized total knee arthroplasty, the knee is found to be properly balanced in extension but excessively tight in flexion. Which of the following surgical steps is the most appropriate to resolve this kinematic mismatch?

. Increase the tibial polyethylene thickness
. Release the posterior capsule
. Recess the posterior cruciate ligament
. Decrease the size of the femoral component
. Resect more distal femur

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Decrease the size of the femoral component


Explanation

A knee that is tight in flexion but balanced in extension has a contracted flexion gap. Decreasing the anteroposterior size of the femoral component will enlarge the flexion gap without affecting the extension gap.

Question 2084

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 55-year-old male with a metal-on-metal total hip arthroplasty presents with groin pain and swelling 5 years postoperatively. Serum cobalt and chromium levels are significantly elevated. MRI reveals a large, cystic pseudotumor. What is the most appropriate definitive management?

. Observation and serial MRI
. Aspiration of the pseudotumor and intra-articular corticosteroids
. Revision to a larger diameter metal-on-metal bearing
. Revision of the components using a ceramic-on-polyethylene bearing
. Isolated synovectomy with component retention

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Revision of the components using a ceramic-on-polyethylene bearing


Explanation

The patient is experiencing an adverse local tissue reaction (ALTR) secondary to metal wear debris. Definitive treatment requires extensive soft tissue debridement and revision of the bearing surfaces to a non-metal articulation, most commonly ceramic-on-polyethylene.

Question 2085

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 58-year-old male presents with severe, end-stage post-traumatic ankle osteoarthritis and is being evaluated for a Total Ankle Arthroplasty (TAA). Which of the following represents an absolute contraindication to proceeding with TAA?

. Avascular necrosis involving greater than 50% of the talar body
. Patient age of 58 years
. Prior history of an open pilon fracture
. Concomitant ipsilateral subtalar arthritis
. Body Mass Index (BMI) of 32

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Avascular necrosis involving greater than 50% of the talar body


Explanation

Avascular necrosis (AVN) of greater than 50% of the talar body is an absolute contraindication to Total Ankle Arthroplasty (TAA) due to inadequate viable bone stock for implant fixation and a high risk of subsequent component subsidence and failure. Concomitant subtalar arthritis is actually a relative indication for TAA over arthrodesis to preserve remaining hindfoot motion, or it can be addressed simultaneously.

Question 2086

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 23-year-old male presents to the clinic with persistent "snuffbox" tenderness three months after a fall onto his extended wrist. Imaging confirms a non-union of the proximal pole of the scaphoid with early avascular necrosis. The vulnerability of the proximal pole to avascular necrosis is primarily due to the dominant arterial blood supply entering the scaphoid at which of the following locations?

. Volar distal tubercle
. Dorsal ridge
. Volar proximal pole
. Scapholunate ligament attachment
. Scaphocapitate articulation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Dorsal ridge


Explanation

The scaphoid relies on retrograde blood flow for its proximal pole. The dominant vascular supply (accounting for 70-80% of the blood supply) enters via branches of the radial artery at the dorsal ridge, leaving proximal pole fractures highly susceptible to avascular necrosis and non-union.

Question 2087

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)
A woman has a history of gradually increasing diffuse and global right knee pain. Her main issues are difficulty with stairs, stiffness with prolonged sitting, and swelling. She has taken NSAIDs and has received intra-articular steroid injections, all with decreasing efficacy. Her right knee examination reveals a range of motion of 15° to 80° with a fixed deformity to varus and valgus stress. Her symptoms are no longer manageable nonsurgically. Radiographs reveal a mechanical axis deformity. The deformity is predominantly associated with:
. a hypoplastic lateral femoral condyle.
. a contracted medial collateral ligament.
. an excessive proximal tibial slope.
. trochlear dysplasia.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. a hypoplastic lateral femoral condyle.


Explanation

In the setting of valgus deformities, TKA poses different challenges than those encountered when varus deformities are present. Most valgus alignment is attributable to a deformity of the distal femur rather than of the proximal tibia, as seen in varus knees. One of the major anatomical differences is a hypoplastic lateral femoral condyle which, when not recognized and used as a rotational reference point, can lead to internal rotation of the femoral component. This malrotation in turn leads to patellofemoral maltracking or instability, which is a common complication associated with primary TKA.

Question 2088

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 68-year-old woman is scheduled for a primary total hip arthroplasty (THA). Preoperative spinopelvic assessment reveals a rigid, flatback deformity with a loss of lumbar lordosis. The pelvis is locked in severe posterior pelvic tilt. To minimize her risk of postoperative dislocation, how should the target acetabular component orientation be adjusted?

. Increase acetabular anteversion
. Decrease acetabular anteversion
. Decrease acetabular inclination
. Increase the target offset by 15 mm
. Position the cup in 0 degrees of inclination

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Decrease acetabular anteversion


Explanation

A rigid flatback deformity causes fixed posterior pelvic tilt, which functionally increases acetabular anteversion and predisposes the patient to anterior dislocation in extension. The surgeon must decrease the cup anteversion to compensate for the pelvic position.

Question 2089

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 72-year-old man presents with a painful total knee arthroplasty 3 years after the index surgery. Serum erythrocyte sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein are elevated. Synovial aspiration yields a white blood cell count of 2,500 cells/mcL with 65% polymorphonuclear leukocytes. Which of the following synovial fluid biomarkers has the highest specificity for diagnosing a periprosthetic joint infection (PJI)?

. Synovial C-reactive protein
. Leukocyte esterase
. Alpha-defensin
. Interleukin-6
. Procalcitonin

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Alpha-defensin


Explanation

Alpha-defensin is a biomarker released by neutrophils in response to pathogens. It has a high sensitivity and the highest specificity (near 96-100%) for diagnosing periprosthetic joint infections compared to traditional inflammatory markers.

Question 2090

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 58-year-old man presents with progressive groin pain 6 years after a primary metal-on-polyethylene total hip arthroplasty utilizing a titanium stem and a cobalt-chromium modular head. Radiographs are unremarkable, but MRI with metal artifact reduction sequence (MARS) demonstrates a cystic fluid collection around the hip. Serum cobalt levels are significantly elevated. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Polyethylene wear-induced osteolysis
. Periprosthetic joint infection
. Mechanically assisted crevice corrosion (Trunnionosis)
. Psoas impingement syndrome
. Aseptic loosening of the acetabular component

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Mechanically assisted crevice corrosion (Trunnionosis)


Explanation

Trunnionosis, or mechanically assisted crevice corrosion, occurs at the modular head-neck junction. It can happen in metal-on-polyethylene bearings with CoCr heads, leading to elevated serum cobalt, adverse local tissue reactions (ALTR), and cystic masses.

Question 2091

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 71-year-old woman presents to the emergency department after a fall. She underwent a cementless total hip arthroplasty 10 years ago. Radiographs reveal a periprosthetic fracture around the femoral stem. The fracture line extends just distal to the tip of the stem, the stem is grossly loose, but there is adequate proximal and distal bone stock. According to the Vancouver classification, what is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

. Open reduction and internal fixation with a locking plate
. Revision to a fluted, tapered, modular cementless stem
. Revision to a cemented long stem
. Cortical strut allografts alone
. Proximal femoral replacement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Revision to a fluted, tapered, modular cementless stem


Explanation

This is a Vancouver B2 fracture (fracture around or just below the stem, loose stem, adequate bone stock). The gold standard treatment is revision to a longer, diaphyseal-engaging stem, most commonly a fluted, tapered, modular cementless stem.

Question 2092

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During a primary total knee arthroplasty, the surgeon uses a measured resection technique. After making the initial bony cuts, the trial components are placed. The knee is found to be tight in full extension, but the medial and lateral gaps are symmetric and well-balanced in 90 degrees of flexion. What is the most appropriate next step to balance the knee?

. Resect more proximal tibia
. Upsize the femoral component
. Downsize the femoral component
. Resect more distal femur
. Release the posterior cruciate ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Resect more distal femur


Explanation

A tight extension gap with a well-balanced flexion gap requires resection of more distal femur. Distal femoral resection affects only the extension gap without altering the flexion space.

Question 2093

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 65-year-old man with a well-functioning right total hip arthroplasty placed 4 years ago presents with 2 days of severe right hip pain, fevers, and chills. He recently recovered from bacterial pneumonia. Aspiration of the hip yields purulent fluid with 85,000 WBCs/mcL. Radiographs show well-fixed components without radiolucencies. What is the most appropriate definitive surgical management?

. One-stage component exchange
. Two-stage exchange arthroplasty with an antibiotic spacer
. Debridement, antibiotics, and implant retention (DAIR) with modular head exchange
. Lifelong suppressive oral antibiotics
. Girdlestone resection arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Debridement, antibiotics, and implant retention (DAIR) with modular head exchange


Explanation

This is an acute hematogenous periprosthetic joint infection (symptoms < 3 weeks in a previously well-functioning, well-fixed joint). DAIR with exchange of modular components is indicated for acute hematogenous PJI to clear the infection while retaining the well-fixed implants.

Question 2094

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 55-year-old woman with severe bilateral developmental dysplasia of the hip (Crowe Type IV) is scheduled for a total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following anatomic abnormalities is expected on the femoral side when compared to a non-dysplastic hip?

. Decreased femoral anteversion
. Increased femoral anteversion
. Varus neck-shaft angle
. Wide, capacious medullary canal
. Posteriorly displaced greater trochanter

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increased femoral anteversion


Explanation

Patients with severe hip dysplasia (Crowe IV) typically exhibit a narrow, "stove-pipe" or extremely narrow medullary canal, excessive femoral anteversion, and an anteriorly displaced greater trochanter with a valgus neck-shaft angle.

Question 2095

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 64-year-old man presents 18 months after a posterior-stabilized total knee arthroplasty with complaints of an audible and palpable "clunk" when transitioning from a sitting to a standing position. Examination reveals a catch at approximately 35 degrees of knee flexion during active extension. What is the primary etiology of this phenomenon?

. Formation of a fibrosynovial nodule at the superior pole of the patella
. Subluxation of the posterior cruciate ligament
. Severe polyethylene wear of the tibial insert
. Impingement of the popliteus tendon
. Aseptic loosening of the patellar button

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Formation of a fibrosynovial nodule at the superior pole of the patella


Explanation

Patellar clunk syndrome occurs in posterior-stabilized TKA when a fibrosynovial nodule forms at the superior pole of the patella. As the knee extends from flexion (usually around 30-45 degrees), the nodule pops out of the femoral intercondylar box, causing a painful clunk.

Question 2096

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
During a primary total knee arthroplasty for a severe valgus deformity (>20 degrees), the surgeon sequentially releases lateral structures. After releasing the iliotibial band and the popliteus tendon off the femur, the lateral compartment remains tight in extension. What is the next most appropriate structure to release?
. Lateral head of the gastrocnemius
. Biceps femoris
. Lateral collateral ligament (LCL)
. Peroneal nerve
. Posterior cruciate ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral collateral ligament (LCL)


Explanation

The standard sequence for lateral release in a valgus knee typically begins with osteophytes, followed by the IT band (if tight in extension) and popliteus (if tight in flexion). The lateral collateral ligament is the next major structure released to balance a fixed valgus deformity.

Question 2097

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A 68-year-old woman underwent a ceramic-on-ceramic total hip arthroplasty 2 years ago. She now complains of a squeaking noise coming from the hip during walking, though she denies significant pain. Radiographs show a well-fixed stem and a cup with 55 degrees of inclination and 30 degrees of anteversion. What is the most likely biomechanical cause of the squeaking?

. Allergic reaction to the ceramic material
. Impingement of the iliopsoas tendon
. Edge loading of the articular surface
. Fracture of the ceramic liner
. Trunnionosis at the Morse taper

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Edge loading of the articular surface


Explanation

Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic THA is heavily correlated with edge loading, which typically occurs due to component malposition, microseparation, or impingement. The cup inclination of 55 degrees (excessive) in this vignette strongly predisposes to edge loading.

Question 2098

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

In the recovery room following a complex total knee arthroplasty for a 25-degree fixed valgus deformity, the patient is noted to have a dense foot drop and numbness in the first web space. Pedal pulses are bounding. What is the most appropriate immediate intervention?

. Emergent return to the OR for common peroneal nerve exploration
. Obtain an urgent MRI of the knee
. Loosen all restrictive dressings and flex the knee to 20-30 degrees
. Order a CT angiogram of the lower extremity
. Apply an ankle-foot orthosis and discharge home

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Loosen all restrictive dressings and flex the knee to 20-30 degrees


Explanation

Peroneal nerve palsy is a known complication of correcting a severe valgus deformity. The immediate management is to remove all compressive dressings and place the knee in slight flexion to relieve tension on the nerve.

Question 2099

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 74-year-old woman is evaluated for a medial unicompartmental knee arthroplasty (UKA). Which of the following preoperative clinical findings is considered an absolute contraindication to a medial UKA?

. Age greater than 70 years
. Body mass index of 32 kg/m2
. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) deficiency
. Asymptomatic chondromalacia of the patellofemoral joint
. A preoperative flexion contracture of 5 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) deficiency


Explanation

An intact anterior cruciate ligament is a classic prerequisite for unicompartmental knee arthroplasty. ACL deficiency leads to altered kinematics, increased shear forces, and a higher risk of early failure due to component loosening or polyethylene wear.

Question 2100

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 78-year-old woman with osteoporosis is undergoing primary total hip arthroplasty. Preoperative templating demonstrates a Dorr Type C proximal femur, characterized by a wide medullary canal with thin cortices and loss of the medial calcar. Which of the following femoral component types is most appropriate to ensure long-term survivorship in this specific bone morphology?

. Standard cementless tapered wedge stem
. Cementless fully porous-coated cylindrical stem
. Cemented polished taper-slip stem
. Proximally coated fit-and-fill stem
. Short metaphyseal-engaging stem

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cemented polished taper-slip stem


Explanation

Dorr Type C bone has a capacious, "stove-pipe" canal with thin cortices, making rigid initial fixation with cementless stems difficult and increasing the risk of subsidence or periprosthetic fracture. A cemented stem is highly recommended in this morphology.