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Question 161

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

A 65-year-old man presents with acute knee pain, swelling, and fever 4 weeks after an uncomplicated primary TKA. Symptoms began 2 days ago. Aspiration yields 85,000 WBC/hpf with 95% neutrophils. Implants are well-fixed radiographically. What is the treatment of choice?

. Intravenous antibiotics alone for 6 weeks
. Single-stage revision TKA
. Two-stage revision TKA with an antibiotic spacer
. Debridement, antibiotics, and implant retention (DAIR) with polyethylene exchange
. Above-knee amputation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Debridement, antibiotics, and implant retention (DAIR) with polyethylene exchange


Explanation

DAIR with a modular polyethylene exchange is indicated for acute hematogenous infections (symptoms < 3 weeks) or acute post-operative infections (< 4 weeks from index surgery) when the implants are well-fixed.

Question 162

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

When setting the distal femoral cut angle during a TKA, the surgeon must account for the angle between the anatomical and mechanical axes. In a short patient with short femora, how does this valgus angle typically compare to a tall patient?

. It is typically less than 5 degrees
. It is typically exactly 5 degrees
. It is typically greater than 7 degrees
. It is 0 degrees
. It is negative 3 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. It is typically greater than 7 degrees


Explanation

The valgus cut angle represents the divergence between the anatomical and mechanical axes of the femur. In shorter patients, or those with wider pelvises, this angle is larger (typically 7-9 degrees) compared to taller patients (typically 5 degrees).

Question 163

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

A surgeon is performing a primary TKA on a severe valgus knee using a sequential lateral release. If the popliteus tendon is completely resected from its femoral insertion during this process, what is the most likely resulting biomechanical consequence?

. Increased lateral gap in extension only
. Increased lateral gap in flexion only
. Severe patellar maltracking
. Excessive femoral rollback
. Paradoxical anterior translation of the femur

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increased lateral gap in flexion only


Explanation

The popliteus tendon acts as a primary restraint to lateral opening in knee flexion. Resecting it preferentially increases the lateral flexion gap, potentially leading to lateral flexion instability.

Question 164

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

A patient develops patellar clunk syndrome after a posterior-stabilized (PS) TKA. Which of the following technical errors during the primary surgery is most likely responsible for exacerbating this condition?

. Distal translation of the joint line
. Flexion of the femoral component
. Anterior placement of the femoral component
. Posterior slope of the tibial component greater than 5 degrees
. Internal rotation of the patellar component

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior placement of the femoral component


Explanation

Anterior placement of the femoral component increases the anteroposterior dimension of the femur, causing the patella to track with increased pressure against the anterior aspect of the intercondylar box. This strongly predisposes the patient to patellar clunk syndrome.

Question 165

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)
A woman has a history of gradually increasing diffuse and global right knee pain. Her main issues are difficulty with stairs, stiffness with prolonged sitting, and swelling. She has taken NSAIDs and has received intra-articular steroid injections, all with decreasing efficacy. Her right knee examination reveals a range of motion of 15° to 80° with a fixed deformity to varus and valgus stress. Her symptoms are no longer manageable nonsurgically. Radiographs reveal a mechanical axis deformity. The deformity is predominantly associated with:
. a hypoplastic lateral femoral condyle.
. a contracted medial collateral ligament.
. an excessive proximal tibial slope.
. trochlear dysplasia.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. a hypoplastic lateral femoral condyle.


Explanation

In the setting of valgus deformities, TKA poses different challenges than those encountered when varus deformities are present. Most valgus alignment is attributable to a deformity of the distal femur rather than of the proximal tibia, as seen in varus knees. One of the major anatomical differences is a hypoplastic lateral femoral condyle which, when not recognized and used as a rotational reference point, can lead to internal rotation of the femoral component. This malrotation in turn leads to patellofemoral maltracking or instability, which is a common complication associated with primary TKA.

Question 166

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

A 65-year-old woman reports anterior knee pain and frequent subluxation of her patella 1 year following a primary TKA. Clinical examination demonstrates severe patellar apprehension and lateral tracking. A CT scan to evaluate component position is most likely to show which of the following?

. External rotation of the femoral component
. Internal rotation of the tibial or femoral component
. External rotation of the tibial component
. Lateral translation of the tibial tray
. Medialization of the patellar button

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Internal rotation of the tibial or femoral component


Explanation

Internal rotation of either the femoral or tibial components increases the Q-angle, leading to lateral patellar maltracking, subluxation, and anterior knee pain. Proper external rotation of the femoral component and lateralization of the patellar button help optimize patellar tracking.

Question 167

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

During a primary TKA utilizing measured resection techniques, the surgeon evaluates the trial components. The knee is perfectly balanced and stable in extension but demonstrates severe laxity in flexion. What is the most appropriate step to balance the knee?

. Increase the thickness of the tibial polyethylene insert
. Downsize the femoral component and use a thicker polyethylene insert
. Upsize the femoral component
. Recut the distal femur to remove more bone
. Release the posterior cruciate ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Upsize the femoral component


Explanation

A knee that is balanced in extension but loose in flexion has an isolated wide flexion gap. Upsizing the femoral component increases the AP dimension, tightening the flexion gap without affecting the extension gap.

Question 168

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

During the second stage of a revision total knee arthroplasty for a prior infection, the surgeon evaluates the joint spaces using trial spacer blocks. The knee is noted to be unacceptably tight in flexion but excessively loose in extension. Which of the following surgical adjustments is most appropriate to balance the gaps?

. Downsize the femoral component and increase the thickness of the distal femoral augments
. Upsize the femoral component and decrease the thickness of the distal femoral augments
. Decrease the tibial polyethylene thickness and increase the posterior tibial slope
. Increase the tibial polyethylene thickness and distalize the joint line
. Release the posterior cruciate ligament and upsize the femoral component

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Downsize the femoral component and increase the thickness of the distal femoral augments


Explanation

Gap balancing in revision TKA is critical. If the knee is tight in flexion, the flexion gap must be increased. This is done by downsizing the femoral component, which translates the posterior condyles anteriorly. If the knee is loose in extension, the extension gap must be decreased. This is achieved by adding distal femoral augments, which translates the femoral component distally. Therefore, downsizing the femur and adding distal augments addresses both imbalances simultaneously.

Question 169

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

A 72-year-old woman has had progressively increasing pain in the right knee for the past 6 months. She denies any trauma and has no pain in any other joints, but she notes occasional swelling in the knee and a catching sensation. Figures 31a and 31b show the plain radiographs and Figure 31c shows the MRI scan. Treatment should consist of

. arthroscopy and subtotal meniscectomy.
. arthroscopy and shaving chondroplasty.
. osteochondral bone graft.
. high tibial valgus osteotomy.
. total knee replacement.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. total knee replacement.


Explanation

The plain radiographs show a defect in the lateral femoral condyle and narrowing of the lateral joint space. The MRI scan shows a lesion consistent with osteonecrosis of the lateral femoral condyle. The treatment alternatives for this condition are an osteotomy or a total knee replacement, but a total knee replacement is the treatment of choice for a 72-year-old patient. Arthroscopy or an osteochondral bone graft will not address her symptoms. A valgus osteotomy will exacerbate the problem by overloading the lateral joint, which is already diseased. Lotke PA, Ecker ML: Osteonecrosis of the knee. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1988;70:470-473.

Question 170

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

A patient who underwent a high tibial osteotomy (HTO) is now scheduled to undergo total knee arthroplasty (TKA). When compared with a patient undergoing primary TKA without a prior HTO, the patient should be advised to expect a higher incidence of

. limited range of motion.
. patella complications.
. infection.
. loosening.
. tibia fracture.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. limited range of motion.


Explanation

Conversion TKA following a previous HTO can be successful; however, it is associated with poorer clinical results when compared with other primary TKAs. There is an increased likelihood of poor range of motion that is partially affected by patella infera created from the osteotomy. Patella infera also results in difficulty with surgical exposure. There has been no reported increase in the rate of infection, fracture, or loosening.

Question 171

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

A 17-year-old basketball player and pole vaulter who has had anterior knee pain for the past 18 months now reports a recent inability to jump. Based on the MRI scan shown in Figure 11, management should consist of

Sports Medicine Board Review 2007: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 8

. debridement and repair.
. cast immobilization.
. aggressive overload eccentric strengthening.
. ice massage and continued athletic participation.
. steroid injection.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. debridement and repair.


Explanation

The MRI scan reveals a partial patellar tendon rupture in conjunction with chronic patellar tendinitis. Mild and moderate patellar tendinitis may be treated nonsurgically with rest, stretching, strengthening, and anti-inflammatory drugs. Severe tendinopathy or extensor mechanism disruption is best treated surgically with tendon debridement and repair. Al-Duri ZA, Aichroth PM: Surgical aspects of patella tendonitis: Techniques and results. Am J Knee Surg 2001;14:43-50.

Question 172

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

Consider the theoretic articulation shown in Figure 11 as femoral and tibial components of a total knee prosthesis in which the components fit like a "roller in trough." Which of the following best describes the articulation?

Hip Board Review 2004: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 7

. Constrained to anteroposterior translation, unconstrained to medial-lateral translation, high contact stress on edge (ie, varus-valgus) loading
. Constrained to anteroposterior translation, unconstrained to medial-lateral translation, low contact stress on edge (ie, varus-valgus) loading
. Unconstrained to anteroposterior translation, constrained to medial-lateral translation, high contact stress on edge (ie, varus-valgus) loading
. Unconstrained to anteroposterior translation, constrained to medial-lateral translation, low contact stress on edge (ie, varus-valgus) loading
. Constraint is dependent on the status of the posterior cruciate ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Constrained to anteroposterior translation, unconstrained to medial-lateral translation, high contact stress on edge (ie, varus-valgus) loading


Explanation

The theoretic total knee components will resist anteroposterior motion by making the femoral component "climb the walls" of the tibial component. As drawn, there is no constraint to medial-lateral translation. The cylinder is not rounded on the edges, so varus-valgus motion will impart load from the cylinder to the trough over a small area, thus having a high contact stress.

Question 173

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

A 63-year-old woman reports giving way of the knee and pain after undergoing primary total knee arthroplasty (TKA) 1 year ago. Examination reveals that the knee is stable in full extension but has gross anteroposterior instability at 90 degrees of flexion. The patient can fully extend her knee with normal quadriceps strength. Studies for infection are negative. AP and lateral radiographs are shown in Figures 12a and 12b, respectively. What is the appropriate management?

. Anti-inflammatory drugs
. Knee brace
. Physical therapy for quadriceps strengthening
. Revision to a thicker polyethylene insert
. Revision to a larger, posterior stabilized implant

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Revision to a larger, posterior stabilized implant


Explanation

The radiographs show posterior flexion instability that is the result of a flexion-extension gap imbalance and posterior cruciate ligament incompetence after a posterior cruciate ligament-retaining TKA. The femur is anteriorly displaced on the tibia, with lift-off of the femoral component from the tibial polyethylene. Revision to a larger femoral component will address the larger flexion gap relative to the extension gap, and a posterior stabilized implant will address the posterior cruciate ligament insufficiency. Pagnano and associates, reporting on a series of painful TKAs previously diagnosed as pain of unknown etiology, showed that the pain was secondary to flexion instability. Pain relief was achieved by revision to a posterior stabilized implant. Pagnano MW, Hanssen AD, Lewallen DG, et al: Flexion instability after primary posterior cruciate retaining total knee arthroplasty. Clin Orthop 1998;356:39-46. Fehring TK, Valadie AL: Knee instability after total knee arthroplasty. Clin Orthop 1994;299:157-162.

Question 174

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

During total knee arthroplasty, what component position aids in proper tracking and stability of the patellar component?

. Femoral component in external rotation
. Tibial component in internal rotation
. Medialization of the tibial tray
. Lateralization of the patellar component
. Medialization of the femoral component

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tibial component in internal rotation


Explanation

The femoral component should be implanted with enough external rotation to facilitate patellar tracking. Proper tracking requires a normal Q angle and is affected by axial and rotational alignment of the femur and tibia. An excessive Q angle can result from internal rotation of either component, medialization of the tibial tray, or lateralization of the patellar component. Beaty JH (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 6. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1999, pp 559-582.

Question 175

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

A 17-year-old high school gymnast who has peripatellar knee pain has been unable to practice on a consistent basis for the past 3 years. She denies any specific injury events. Physical therapy for modalities, quadriceps strengthening, and hamstring stretching provide temporary relief. A trial of patellar taping significantly reduces her pain. Examination reveals an 15-degree Q angle, moderate lateral facet tenderness, negative patellar apprehension, and the inability to evert the patella. Radiographs show a moderate lateral patellar tilt. Treatment should now consist of

. a lateral patellar restraining brace for practice and competition.
. arthroscopic lateral retinacular release.
. open medial retinacular plication.
. medial tibial tubercle transfer.
. Maquet tibial tubercle elevation.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. arthroscopic lateral retinacular release.


Explanation

The patient has patellofemoral stress and a tight lateral retinaculum that has failed to respond to nonsurgical management; therefore, the most appropriate treatment includes an arthroscopic lateral retinacular release. A patellar restraining brace may aggravate the peripatellar pain by increasing pressure on the lateral facet. There is no evidence of patellar instability or significant malalignment; therefore, medial retinacular repair or a tibial tubercle transfer is not indicated. A modified Maquet tibial tubercle elevation would be considered only for significant patellofemoral arthrosis. Gambardella RA: Techical pitfalls of patellofemoral surgery. Clin Sports Med 1999;18:897-903.

Question 176

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

During a measured resection primary total knee arthroplasty (TKA) for an osteoarthritic varus knee, the surgeon utilizes spacer blocks to assess the gaps. The knee is found to be excessively tight in full extension, but perfectly balanced in 90 degrees of flexion. Which of the following isolated bone resection steps is the most appropriate next maneuver to achieve a balanced knee?

. Resect more proximal tibia
. Resect more posterior femur
. Resect more distal femur
. Downsize the femoral component
. Change to a thinner polyethylene insert

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Resect more distal femur


Explanation

In TKA gap balancing, if the knee is tight in extension but balanced in flexion, the surgeon must increase the extension gap without altering the flexion gap. Resecting more bone from the distal femur uniquely opens the extension gap. Resecting more proximal tibia or changing to a thinner polyethylene would affect both the flexion and extension gaps symmetrically, resulting in a knee that becomes loose in flexion.

Question 177

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)



During a primary total knee arthroplasty (TKA), the surgeon inadvertently places the femoral component in internal rotation relative to the surgical epicondylar axis. This specific technical error is most likely to result in which of the following postoperative issues?

. Lateral patellar tracking and patellofemoral instability
. Medial patellar tracking
. Symmetrical extension space tightness
. Increased lateral compartment laxity in extension
. Excessive lateral compartment tightness in flexion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral patellar tracking and patellofemoral instability


Explanation

Internal rotation of the femoral component in TKA shifts the trochlear groove medially relative to the extensor mechanism. This effectively increases the Q-angle, predisposing the patient to lateral patellar subluxation, tracking abnormalities, and patellofemoral instability. It also causes tightness in the medial flexion gap.

Question 178

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

During a measured resection primary Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA), the surgeon utilizes trial components and notes the knee is perfectly balanced in full extension but excessively tight in flexion.

Which of the following maneuvers is the most appropriate next step to achieve a balanced knee?

. Resect more distal femur
. Downsize the femoral component
. Resect more proximal tibia
. Release the posterior capsule
. Upsize the polyethylene insert

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Downsize the femoral component


Explanation

In gap balancing principles for TKA, if the knee is balanced in extension but tight in flexion, the flexion gap must be increased without altering the extension gap. Downsizing the femoral component typically shifts the posterior condylar resection anteriorly (assuming anterior referencing or an offset system is used to maintain anterior flushness), effectively resecting more posterior bone and opening the flexion gap. Resecting the tibia alters both gaps equally.

Question 179

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

In kinematic alignment for Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA), the primary objective is to align the components to the:

. Mechanical axis of the lower extremity
. Anatomic axis of the femur
. Epicondylar axis for femoral rotation
. Pre-arthritic natural joint lines of the femur and tibia
. Whiteside's anteroposterior line

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pre-arthritic natural joint lines of the femur and tibia


Explanation

The goal of kinematic alignment in TKA is to restore the patient's pre-arthritic constitutional alignment and joint line, matching the components to the native flexion and extension axes of the knee. This contrasts with mechanical alignment, which aims to cut the femur and tibia perpendicular to their mechanical axes to achieve a neutral overall limb axis.

Question 180

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

During a primary Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA), after the preliminary bony cuts have been made and trial components are placed, the surgeon evaluates the joint spaces.

The surgeon finds that the extension gap is excessively tight, while the flexion gap is perfectly balanced and stable. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step to balance the knee?

. Resect an additional 2 mm of the proximal tibia
. Upsize the femoral component
. Resect an additional 2 mm of the distal femur
. Translate the femoral component anteriorly
. Release the anterior aspect of the superficial medial collateral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Resect an additional 2 mm of the distal femur


Explanation

In TKA gap balancing, modifications to the femoral side affect only one gap, while modifications to the tibial side affect both gaps. A tight extension gap with a balanced flexion gap requires addressing structures that only affect extension. Resecting more distal femur increases the extension gap without changing the flexion gap. Releasing the posterior capsule and removing posterior femoral osteophytes are also valid soft-tissue interventions for a tight extension gap. Modifying the proximal tibia would inappropriately widen the already balanced flexion gap.