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Question 101

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)
A 70-year-old woman has a 3-year history of gradually increasing diffuse and global right knee pain. Her main issues are difficulty with stairs, stiffness with prolonged sitting, and swelling. She has taken NSAIDs and has received intra-articular steroid injections, all with decreasing efficacy. Her right knee examination reveals a range of motion of 15° to 80° with a fixed deformity to varus and valgus stress. Her symptoms are no longer manageable nonsurgically. Radiographs reveal a 30-degree mechanical axis deformity. When using the measured resection technique during total knee arthroplasty (TKA), the best way to avoid femoral malrotation is to reference the
. anteroposterior axis.
. tibial intramedullary axis.
. posterior condylar axis.
. femoral intramedullary axis.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. anteroposterior axis.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: In the setting of valgus deformities, TKA poses different challenges than those encountered when varus deformities are present. Most valgus alignment is attributable to a deformity of the distal femur rather than of the proximal tibia, as seen in varus knees. One of the major anatomical differences is a hypoplastic lateral femoral condyle which, when not recognized and used as a rotational reference point, can lead to internal rotation of the femoral component. This malrotation in turn leads to patellofemoral maltracking or instability, which is a common complication associated with primary TKA. The anteroposterior (Whiteside's) axis is a reliable reference for femoral rotation.

Question 102

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)
A 70-year-old woman has a 3-year history of gradually increasing diffuse and global right knee pain. Her main issues are difficulty with stairs, stiffness with prolonged sitting, and swelling. She has taken NSAIDs and has received intra-articular steroid injections, all with decreasing efficacy. Her right knee examination reveals a range of motion of 15° to 80° with a fixed deformity to varus and valgus stress. Her symptoms are no longer manageable nonsurgically. Radiographs reveal a 30-degree mechanical axis deformity. The deformity shown in the figure is predominantly associated with
. a hypoplastic lateral femoral condyle.
. a contracted medial collateral ligament.
. an excessive proximal tibial slope.
. trochlear dysplasia.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. a hypoplastic lateral femoral condyle.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: In the setting of valgus deformities, TKA poses different challenges than those encountered when varus deformities are present. Most valgus alignment is attributable to a deformity of the distal femur rather than of the proximal tibia, as seen in varus knees. One of the major anatomical differences is a hypoplastic lateral femoral condyle which, when not recognized and used as a rotational reference point, can lead to internal rotation of the femoral component. This malrotation in turn leads to patellofemoral maltracking or instability, which is a common complication associated with primary TKA.

Question 103

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)
A man who underwent right total knee replacement surgery 2.5 years ago has had knee pain since surgery. The pain is diffuse, constant, and made worse with activity. He notes warmth and swelling in his knee. Examination shows a well-healed incision, no erythema, moderate warmth, synovitis, and an effusion. The knee is stable and has an arc of flexion between 3° and 120°. Radiographs show well-fixed and well-aligned implants. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?
. Knee aspiration for culture
. CT of the knee to assess implant rotation
. Indium-111 leukocyte/technetium-99m sulfur colloid scan of the knee
. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C-reactive protein (CRP) laboratory studies

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C-reactive protein (CRP) laboratory studies


Explanation

This patient's history and physical findings are concerning for deep infection. Inflammatory markers, including ESR and CRP, should be obtained first. If the levels are elevated, knee aspiration should be performed for the synovial cell count and culture. A bone scan is not indicated in an initial investigation for deep infection; it is rarely helpful and is not cost-effective. CT to assess implant rotation is an appropriate investigation for knee pain when the clinical scenario is not suspicious for a deep infection and when infection has been excluded.

Question 104

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

A 17-year-old basketball player and pole vaulter who has had anterior knee pain for the past 18 months now reports a recent inability to jump. Based on the MRI scan shown in Figure 11, management should consist of Review Topic

. debridement and repair.
. cast immobilization.
. aggressive overload eccentric strengthening.
. ice massage and continued athletic participation.
. steroid injection.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. debridement and repair.


Explanation

The MRI scan reveals a partial patellar tendon rupture in conjunction with chronic patellar tendinitis. Mild and moderate patellar tendinitis may be treated nonsurgically with rest, stretching, strengthening, and anti-inflammatory drugs. Severe tendinopathy or extensor mechanism disruption is best treated surgically with tendon debridement and repair.

Question 105

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)
Kinematic testing of patellofemoral motion demonstrates that malalignment that produces an increased Q angle causes a shift of the patella laterally in the trochlear groove and is most pronounced during what phase of the flexion arc?
. 0 to 15 degrees
. 20 to 30 degrees
. 40 to 90 degrees
. 100 to 120 degrees
. 130 to 140 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 40 to 90 degrees


Explanation

Dynamic patellofemoral joint contact measurements on cadaveric knees with simulated increased Q angle demonstrated that forces shifted to the lateral facet. The lateral shift in the patella was most pronounced from 40 to 90 degrees of flexion. At lower degrees of flexion, the lateral shift was significantly less. At higher degrees of flexion, the continued shift of the patella was not as pronounced.

Question 106

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)
The patient undergoes a mobile-bearing UKA. When compared to a fixed-bearing metal-backed unicompartmental arthroplasty, this procedure is associated with a
. higher risk for failure attributable to wear.
. higher risk for failure attributable to bearing spinout.
. lower risk for loosening.
. lower risk for arthritic progression of the lateral compartment.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. higher risk for failure attributable to bearing spinout.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: A patient with medial compartment arthritis and a correctable varus deformity with no clinical or examination findings of knee instability most likely has an intact ACL. The pattern of medial compartment osteoarthritis most commonly associated with an intact ACL is that of anteromedial osteoarthritis. An incompetent ACL is commonly associated with a fixed varus deformity and radiographic signs of posteromedial wear. An incompetent ACL is a relative contraindication to a mobile-bearing UKA. When evaluating patients for a mobile-bearing UKA, a stress radiograph will allow the orthopaedic surgeon to determine the correction of the varus deformity and assess the lateral compartment. Inability to fully correct the deformity or narrowing of the lateral compartment with valgus stress should influence the surgeon against UKA. Joint registries across the world have shown decreased survivorship associated with TKA and UKA in men compared to other age groups, but survivorship is lower for UKA than TKA. No studies to date have shown differences in survivorship between fixed- or mobile-bearing UKAs. The complication that is unique to mobile-bearing UKA is bearing spinout, and this occurs in fewer than 1% of mobile-bearing UKA procedures. In vivo and in vitro polyethylene wear in mobile-bearing UKA is low. Arthritis progression may be faster for mobile-bearing UKAs than fixed-bearing UKAs.

Question 107

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

In performing a posterior stabilized total knee arthroplasty (TKA), which component malpositioning is associated with the wear damage shown in this tibial component retrieval (Figure 172)?

. Excessive femoral component flexion
. Excessive anterior slope of the proximal tibia
. Excessive tibial component varus
. Excessive valgus resection of the distal femur

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Excessive femoral component flexion


Explanation

DISCUSSIONThe tibial polyethylene insert shows anterior post wear damage from anterior CAM-post impingement in a posterior stabilized knee. It is associated with excessive femoral component flexion and excessive posterior tibial slope in a TKA construct. It is not associated with coronal plane alignment.

Question 108

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)
Which of the following aids in correction of patellar tracking after total knee arthroplasty (TKA)?
. Internal rotation of the femoral component
. Internal rotation of the tibial component
. Increasing size of the tibial component
. Medialization of the patellar component
. Joint line elevation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medialization of the patellar component


Explanation

External rotation of the femoral and tibial components has been shown to aid in tracking. Likewise, medialization of the patellar button aids in patellar tracking and prevention of lateral subluxations and dislocations.

Question 109

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

Radiographs shown in Figures 1 through 3 show two different prosthetic design variations of the same knee implant. When compared with the design of right knee prosthesis, the left can be expected to have a

. higher incidence of patellar clunk and similar implant survivorship.
. higher incidence of patellar clunk and superior implant survivorship.
. lower incidence of patellar clunk and superior implant survivorship.
. lower incidence of patellar clunk and similar implant survivorship.The images show a left posterior stabilized knee prosthesis and a right cruciate sacrificing (ultracongruent / dished type) knee prosthesis. Posterior stabilized designs have a risk of patellar clunk due to the presence of the femoral box with some designs, such as the one shown, exhibiting higher rates. Clinical outcomes are similar between cruciate-retaining, cruciate- sacrificing and posterior stabilized designs.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. higher incidence of patellar clunk and similar implant survivorship.


Explanation

A 76-year-old woman has had three hip revisions for instability. She presents to the emergency department with another dislocation that occurred while getting up from a low chair. Current radiographs are shown in Figures 1 and 2. Her prior AP pelvis radiograph is shown in Figure 3. ESR and CRP are normal. What is the best plan for definitive treatment?

Question 110

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)
A 70-year-old woman has a 3-year history of gradually increasing diffuse and global right knee pain. Her main issues are difficulty with stairs, stiffness with prolonged sitting, and swelling. She has taken NSAIDs and has received intra-articular steroid injections, all with decreasing efficacy. Her right knee examination reveals a range of motion of 15° to 80° with a fixed deformity to varus and valgus stress. Her symptoms are no longer manageable nonsurgically. Radiographs reveal a 30-degree mechanical axis deformity. When using the measured resection technique during total knee arthroplasty (TKA), the best way to avoid femoral malrotation is to reference the
. anteroposterior axis.
. tibial intramedullary axis.
. posterior condylar axis.
. femoral intramedullary axis.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. anteroposterior axis.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: In the setting of valgus deformities, TKA poses different challenges than those encountered when varus deformities are present. Most valgus alignment is attributable to a deformity of the distal femur rather than of the proximal tibia, as seen in varus knees. One of the major anatomical differences is a hypoplastic lateral femoral condyle which, when not recognized and used as a rotational reference point, can lead to internal rotation of the femoral component. This malrotation in turn leads to patellofemoral maltracking or instability, which is a common complication associated with primary TKA.

Question 111

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

Figures 74a through 74c are the postsurgical radiographs of a 74-year-old man who has stiffness in his right knee 8 weeks after undergoing elective right total knee arthroplasty (TKA). The surgery was performed for primary varus osteoarthritis and was uncomplicated. His range of motion is 5 to 80 degrees. What is the most appropriate next treatment step?

. Manipulation under anesthesia (MUA)
. Arthroscopic lysis of adhesions
. Open arthrolysis of adhesions
. Revision TKA

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Manipulation under anesthesia (MUA)


Explanation

DISCUSSIONStiffness following TKA is a disabling complication. One option involves MUA, a valuable technique with which to increase range of motion after TKA for patients with stiff knees. A systematic review of the literature was performed to identify studies that reported the clinical outcomes and measured range of motion for patients undergoing MUA. Fourteen studies (913 patients) reported range of motion results following MUA at up to 10-year followup. The review demonstrated that MUA for a stiff primary TKA is an efficacious procedure to restore range of motion, and it carries a low complication rate. Early gains in motion werereported to be maintained in the long term. A second review systematically evaluated the outcomes of 4 treatments for arthrofibrosis that develops subsequent to TKA (MUA, arthroscopic debridement, open surgical release, and revision TKA). This study showed that there were no significant differences in the Knee Society Score of the 4 treatment modalities. Although open surgical release resulted in the greatest increase in range of motion, there were methodological study limitations because the majority of the papers were case series, which decreased the quality of the evidence. Response 1 is correct because the TKA appears appropriately sized and is well aligned. Responses 2 and 3 are incorrect, considering the early time frame (8 weeks) from initial surgery. Although the patella is unresurfaced in the radiographs, there is no indication for revision TKA (even secondary patellar resurfacing) at this early juncture.

Question 112

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)
A 72-year-old woman has had progressively increasing pain in the right knee for the past 6 months. She denies any trauma and has no pain in any other joints, but she notes occasional swelling in the knee and a catching sensation. Figures 31a and 31b show the plain radiographs and Figure 31c shows the MRI scan. Treatment should consist of:
. arthroscopy and subtotal meniscectomy.
. arthroscopy and shaving chondroplasty.
. osteochondral bone graft.
. high tibial valgus osteotomy.
. total knee replacement.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. total knee replacement.


Explanation

Discussion: The plain radiograph shows a defect in the lateral femoral condyle and narrowing of the lateral joint space. The MRI scan shows a lesion consistent with osteonecrosis of the lateral femoral condyle. The treatment alternatives for this condition are an osteotomy or a total knee replacement, but a total knee replacement is the treatment of choice for a 72-year-old patient. Arthroscopy or an osteochondral bone graft will not address her symptoms. A valgus osteotomy will exacerbate the problem by overloading the lateral joint, which is already diseased.

Question 113

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)
A 47-year-old obese man with a body mass index of 42 comes in with left knee pain 1 year after undergoing an uncomplicated left medial unicompartmental knee arthroplasty (UKA). Radiographs show a loose tibial component in varus. What is the most appropriate next step to treat this failed construct?
. Aspiration of joint fluid to obtain a cell count
. Revision of the UKA using primary total knee arthroplasty (TKA) components
. Revision of the UKA using a revision TKA with augments
. Obtain erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C-reactive protein (CRP) levels

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Obtain erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C-reactive protein (CRP) levels


Explanation

This patient likely is experiencing failure of his UKA secondary to poor patient selection. This young, heavy man likely loosened his component secondary to the ongoing varus alignment of the knee and his elevated weight. Despite this likely scenario, the next step is to determine if an infection is the cause of his pain. Prior to obtaining an aspiration, the surgeon can order an ESR and CRP to determine if aspiration is warranted. If laboratory studies are unremarkable, the surgeon likely can forgo the aspiration and proceed to a revision TKA with possible augments on standby.

Question 114

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)
Consider the theoretic articulation shown as femoral and tibial components of a total knee prosthesis in which the components fit like a “roller in trough.” Which of the following best describes the articulation?
. Constrained to anteroposterior translation, unconstrained to medial-lateral translation, high contact stress on edge (ie, varus-valgus) loading
. Constrained to anteroposterior translation, unconstrained to medial-lateral translation, low contact stress on edge (ie, varus-valgus) loading
. Unconstrained to anteroposterior translation, constrained to medial-lateral translation, high contact stress on edge (ie, varus-valgus) loading
. Unconstrained to anteroposterior translation, constrained to medial-lateral translation, low contact stress on edge (ie, varus-valgus) loading
. Constraint is dependent on the status of the posterior cruciate ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Constrained to anteroposterior translation, unconstrained to medial-lateral translation, high contact stress on edge (ie, varus-valgus) loading


Explanation

The theoretic total knee components will resist anteroposterior motion by making the femoral component “climb the walls” of the tibial component. As drawn, there is no constraint to medial-lateral translation. The cylinder is not rounded on the edges, so varus-valgus motion will impart load from the cylinder to the trough over a small area, thus having a high contact stress.

Question 115

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

A patient presents with a recurrent knee effusion and a feeling of "giving way" when descending stairs 1 year after a posterior-stabilized TKA. Radiographs show well-fixed components. Physical exam reveals increased anteroposterior laxity at 90 degrees of flexion but stability in full extension. What intraoperative error most likely caused this isolated flexion instability?

. Inadequate posterior femoral condyle resection
. Excessive posterior femoral condyle resection
. Excessive distal femoral resection
. Inadequate distal femoral resection
. Placing the tibial component in excessive varus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Inadequate posterior femoral condyle resection


Explanation

Excessive resection of the posterior femoral condyles abnormally increases the flexion gap without affecting the extension gap. This leads to flexion instability, classically presenting with poor stair descent and recurrent effusions.

Question 116

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)
A 42-year-old manual laborer presents with isolated medial compartment knee pain. Standing alignment radiographs demonstrate 8 degrees of varus alignment. He has grade III medial compartment osteoarthritis and normal lateral and patellofemoral compartments. ROM is 5 to 120 degrees. He is a non-smoker. Which of the following is a relative contraindication to performing a medial opening wedge high tibial osteotomy (HTO) in this patient?
. Age over 40 years
. Flexion contracture of 20 degrees
. Grade III chondromalacia of the medial compartment
. 8 degrees of varus alignment
. Previous medial meniscectomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Flexion contracture of 20 degrees


Explanation

High tibial osteotomy (HTO) is indicated for active patients with unicompartmental knee osteoarthritis and malalignment. Contraindications include inflammatory arthritis, patellofemoral arthritis, flexion contracture > 15 degrees, knee flexion < 90 degrees, bone loss/osteopenia, and smoking. A flexion contracture of 20 degrees is a relative/absolute contraindication as HTO does not correct sagittal plane contractures well.

Question 117

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

A patient in the recovery room has weakness of the extensor hallucis longus and tibialis anterior muscles following a total knee replacement. Initial management should consist of

. Observation
. Removal of the prosthetic components
. Operative exploration and decompression of the peroneal nerve
. Nerve conduction velocity studies
. Loosening of the primary dressings and knee flexion to 30 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Observation


Explanation

Operative exploration and decompression of the peroneal nerve-Five patients were treated by operative exploration and decompression of the peroneal nerve for peroneal nerve palsy complicating total knee arthroplasty (TKA). All patients had failed to demonstrate improvement in the peroneal nerve function despite extended conservative care. The procedure was performed five to 45 months after the index TKA. Patients were evaluated and graded preoperatively and postoperatively using the Modified Nerve Palsy Scale of Weber, Daube, and Coventry. All patients demonstrated improved nerve function. Four of five patients had full peroneal nerve recovery. All patients were able to discontinue their ankle-foot orthoses.This is a rarecomplication of TKA, and when conservative nonoperative measures do not lead to sufficient improvement in nerve function, consideration may be given to operative decompression of theperoneal nerve.

Question 118

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)
A 48-year-old man who is scheduled to undergo total knee replacement has an X-linked clotting disorder that leads to abnormal bleeding and recurrent, spontaneous hemarthrosis. Before undergoing surgery, he should have replacement therapy of
. protein C and S.
. vitamin K.
. von Willebrand factor.
. factor VIII.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. factor VIII.


Explanation

Hemophilia A is an X-linked recessive deficiency of factor VIII that can lead to significant bleeding problems including recurrent spontaneous hemarthroses that can lead to synovitis and joint destruction. von Willebrand disease is a lack of von Willebrand factor that leads to decreased platelet aggregation; more commonly patients have mucosal bleeding and not hemarthroses. Vitamin K deficiency is not hereditary; it is typically attributable to inadequate dietary intake, malabsorption, and loss of storage sites from hepatocellular disease. Protein C and S deficiencies are autosomal-dominant diseases that lead to thrombosis, not bleeding, as protein C and S shut off thrombin formation.

Question 119

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)
What is the most appropriate treatment?
. Arthroscopic washout
. CT scan
. Observation
. Aspiration

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Observation


Explanation

A common postsurgical problem after TKA is a sudden increase of pain that typically occurs about 2 to 3 weeks after surgery. ESR findings are not reliable during the acute postsurgical period. A CRP level exceeding 100 mg/L during the acute postsurgical period is a joint aspiration indication. If the patient does not have sepsis, there is no emergency. This pain is likely attributable to too much activity during physical therapy. Observation is recommended for this patient.

Question 120

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)
Figure below shows the standing AP radiograph obtained from a 55-year-old man who has a 5-year history of daily left knee medial joint line pain with weight-bearing activities. He denies night pain or symptoms of instability. On examination, his range of motion is 0° to 140°. He has a mild, fully correctable varus deformity and a negative Lachman test result. Nonsurgical treatment has failed. What is the UKA survivorship for a 55-year-old patient, compared with the survivorship for total knee arthroplasty?
. Equal at 10 years
. Lower at 10 years
. Higher at 10 years
. Not known when using a mobile-bearing UKA

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lower at 10 years


Explanation

DISCUSSION: A patient with medial compartment arthritis and a correctable varus deformity with no clinical or examination findings of knee instability most likely has an intact anterior cruciate ligament (ACL). The pattern of medial compartment osteoarthritis most commonly associated with an intact ACL is that of anteromedial osteoarthritis. An incompetent ACL is commonly associated with a fixed varus deformity and radiographic signs of posteromedial wear. An incompetent ACL is a relative contraindication to a mobile-bearing UKA. When evaluating patients for a mobile-bearing UKA, a stress radiograph aids the orthopaedic surgeon in determining the correction of the varus deformity and assessing the lateral compartment. An inability to fully correct the deformity or narrowing of the lateral compartment with valgus stress should influence the surgeon against UKA. Joint registries across the world have shown decreased survivorship associated with TKA and UKA in men compared with other age groups, but survivorship is lower for UKA than for TKA. No studies to date have shown any differences in survivorship between fixed-bearing and mobile-bearing UKAs. The complication that is unique to mobile-bearing UKA is bearing spinout, which occurs in less than 1% of mobile-bearing UKA procedures. In vivo and in vitro polyethylene wear in mobile-bearing UKA are low. Arthritis may progress faster in patients with mobile-bearing UKAs than in those with fixed-bearing UKAs.