This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA). Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 321
Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)
Intraoperatively during a primary TKA, the surgeon utilizes spacer blocks and finds that the flexion gap is excessively tight, but the extension gap is perfectly symmetric and balanced. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical step to correct this kinematic mismatch?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Resect an additional 2 mm of distal femur
Explanation
A tight flexion gap with a balanced extension gap means the AP dimension in flexion is too large. Downsizing the femoral component (which effectively resects more posterior femoral condyle when using anterior referencing) will increase the flexion gap without altering the extension gap.
Question 322
Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)
Elevation of the joint line during TKA (often resulting from excessive distal femoral resection and using a thicker polyethylene insert) most commonly leads to which of the following complications?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. True patella alta
Explanation
Joint line elevation during TKA alters the isometry of the collateral ligaments. The ligaments become relatively lax in mid-flexion, causing mid-flexion instability. It also results in pseudo-patella baja (the patella is lower relative to the joint line, though the patellar tendon length is unchanged), which alters patellofemoral kinematics and can cause anterior knee pain.
Question 323
Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)
Following a complete disruption of the extensor mechanism after TKA, a reconstruction utilizing synthetic mesh (e.g., Marlex) is performed. What is the critical recommended postoperative rehabilitation protocol to ensure construct survival?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Immediate full active range of motion
Explanation
Extensor mechanism reconstruction in the setting of a TKA (whether with Marlex mesh or allograft) relies heavily on host tissue ingrowth into the reconstructive material. The standard protocol requires strict immobilization in full extension for 6 to 8 weeks to prevent early catastrophic failure and allow for biologic incorporation.
Question 324
Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)
A 72-year-old patient undergoes a primary TKA for severe valgus deformity. Intraoperatively, the medial collateral ligament (MCL) is found to be severely attenuated and incompetent, preventing varus-valgus stability with standard gap balancing, but the extensor mechanism and soft tissue envelope are otherwise intact. Which level of implant constraint is most appropriate as the next step?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Cruciate retaining (CR)
Explanation
A Constrained Condylar Knee (CCK) utilizes a tall, thick tibial post and a deep femoral box to provide varus-valgus constraint. It is indicated when the collateral ligaments (especially the MCL) are attenuated or deficient, but a linked hinge is not yet required. A rotating hinge is reserved for complete collateral absence with global soft tissue failure or massive bone loss.
Question 325
Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)
A patient presents 8 weeks after a primary TKA with severe stiffness. Despite aggressive, supervised physical therapy, their active and passive range of motion is limited to a painful arc from 15 degrees of extension to 75 degrees of flexion. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Immediate single-stage revision of the femoral and tibial components
Explanation
For arthrofibrosis and significant stiffness following TKA that fails to improve with physical therapy, Manipulation Under Anesthesia (MUA) is highly effective if performed within the optimal window of 6 to 12 weeks postoperatively. Waiting until 6 months allows mature scar tissue to form, increasing the risk of periprosthetic fracture or tendon rupture during MUA.
Question 326
Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)
A 70-year-old female presents with a feeling of instability when going down stairs one year after a primary TKA. Clinical exam reveals stability in full extension and at 90 degrees of flexion, but excessive AP laxity at 30-45 degrees of flexion. Which of the following technical errors is the most likely cause?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Undersized femoral component
Explanation
Mid-flexion instability typically occurs when the joint line is elevated. The collateral ligaments become relatively lax in mid-flexion due to altered isometry, even if the gaps at 0 and 90 degrees are perfectly balanced.
Question 327
Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)
During TKA, joint line restoration is critical for proper biomechanics. Which of the following is a direct consequence of inadvertently elevating the joint line by more than 8 mm?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Patella alta
Explanation
Joint line elevation shifts the relative position of the patella distally, resulting in acquired patella baja and increased patellofemoral contact stresses. It also alters the isometry of the collateral ligaments, leading to mid-flexion instability.
Question 328
Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)
Patellar maltracking is a significant complication following TKA. Which of the following component malpositions is most likely to cause lateral patellar maltracking?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. External rotation of the femoral component
Explanation
Internal rotation of the tibial component effectively lateralizes the tibial tubercle relative to the trochlear groove, increasing the Q angle and leading to lateral patellar maltracking. Internal rotation of the femoral component has a similar detrimental effect.
Question 329
Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)
A patient with a severe 20-degree valgus knee deformity undergoes a primary posterior-stabilized TKA. On post-operative day 1, the patient exhibits a new-onset foot drop and numbness over the first dorsal web space. What is the most appropriate initial step in management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Immediate surgical exploration and neurolysis of the common peroneal nerve
Explanation
Peroneal nerve palsy following correction of a severe valgus knee is typically due to traction or compression. Initial management requires immediate removal of all compressive dressings and flexing the knee to relax the nerve; surgical exploration is reserved for refractory cases or known transection.
Question 330
Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)
During a primary TKA trial reduction, the surgeon notes that the joint is symmetrically loose in full extension and symmetrically loose in 90 degrees of flexion. Which of the following is the most appropriate single intervention?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Upsize the femoral component
Explanation
When a TKA is symmetrically loose in both flexion and extension, it indicates that the overall joint space is too large but the gaps are perfectly balanced. The correct intervention is to insert a thicker tibial polyethylene liner.
Question 331
Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)
A 68-year-old female presents with the inability to perform a straight leg raise 6 months following a primary TKA. Radiographs demonstrate a displaced patellar fracture with severe disruption of the extensor mechanism.
Assuming poor host tissue quality and inadequate remnant tissue for direct repair, what is the most reliable reconstructive option for a chronic, severe extensor mechanism disruption post-TKA?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Primary repair with heavy non-absorbable sutures
Explanation
Extensor mechanism disruption after TKA is a catastrophic complication. Primary repair has an unacceptably high failure rate. Synthetic (Marlex) mesh reconstruction and whole extensor mechanism allograft are both highly reliable reconstructive techniques for chronic disruptions with poor tissue quality. Synthetic mesh has grown in popularity due to its cost-effectiveness, lack of disease transmission risk, and durable clinical results.
Question 332
Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)
A 70-year-old male undergoes a posterior-stabilized (PS) TKA. Postoperatively, he experiences a catching sensation and palpable clunk as the knee actively extends from 40 degrees of flexion. Which design factor is most strongly associated with this complication?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. A high intercondylar box design on the femoral component
Explanation
Patellar clunk syndrome occurs most frequently in PS knees with a high intercondylar box, allowing a fibrous nodule on the superior patella to catch in the notch during extension.
Question 333
Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)
During a primary TKA for severe varus deformity, the medial compartment remains tight in both flexion and extension after resection of osteophytes and deep medial collateral ligament release. Which of the following structures should be released next to achieve coronal balance?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lateral collateral ligament
Explanation
For a tight medial gap in both flexion and extension during a varus TKA, the standard stepwise release starts with deep MCL and osteophytes. The next step is releasing the posteromedial corner and capsule, followed by the semimembranosus.
Question 334
Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)
A 75-year-old female with severe rheumatoid arthritis presents for a primary total knee arthroplasty. Clinical and radiographic evaluation demonstrates a severe valgus deformity with a completely incompetent, non-functional medial collateral ligament (MCL). Which of the following implant constraints is indicated?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Cruciate retaining prosthesis
Explanation
In the setting of a completely incompetent or absent MCL, a standard varus-valgus constrained (CCK) implant will not provide sufficient stability and may fail. A rotating hinge prosthesis is strictly indicated to provide coronal stability.
Question 335
Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)
Which of the following best describes the primary goal of the kinematic alignment philosophy in total knee arthroplasty compared to traditional mechanical alignment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Setting the joint line exactly perpendicular to the mechanical axis of the limb
Explanation
Kinematic alignment aims to restore the patient's pre-arthritic constitutional alignment and natural joint line obliquity by resurfacing the articular wear, minimizing the need for routine ligamentous releases.
Question 336
Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)
A 65-year-old male complains of knee instability when descending stairs 1 year after a primary TKA. Examination reveals a knee that is fully stable in full extension but exhibits marked anteroposterior laxity in 90 degrees of flexion. Which of the following intraoperative technical errors most likely occurred?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Excessive distal femoral resection
Explanation
Undersizing the femoral component in the AP dimension reduces the posterior condylar offset, thereby increasing the flexion gap while leaving the extension gap unaffected. This creates isolated flexion instability often noticed during activities like stair descent.
Question 337
Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)
During a primary TKA for a fixed valgus deformity of 20 degrees, the surgeon notes a tight lateral compartment in full extension, but the knee is well-balanced in 90 degrees of flexion. Which of the following structures is the primary tether and should be released to balance the gaps?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lateral collateral ligament
Explanation
The iliotibial band (ITB) acts as a primary lateral tether in extension but has minimal effect in flexion. Releasing or pie-crusting the ITB will correct the tight extension gap without disrupting the already balanced flexion gap.
Question 338
Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)
During a primary TKA, the surgeon uses spacer blocks to assess gap kinematics. The extension gap is symmetric and well-balanced. However, the flexion gap is symmetric but significantly tight, preventing adequate knee flexion with the trial components. Which of the following technical adjustments is the most appropriate next step to balance the knee?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Recut the distal femur to remove more bone
Explanation
The scenario describes a 'balanced extension, tight flexion' gap mismatch. Modifying the distal femoral cut or the overall polyethylene thickness will affect BOTH gaps. Releasing the PCL primarily affects the flexion gap but often necessitates switching to a posterior stabilized (PS) construct if not already planned, and upsizing poly would tighten extension. Downsizing the femoral component (which decreases the AP dimension of the femur) removes more posterior femoral condyle bone, thereby opening the flexion gap without altering the extension gap. Increasing (not decreasing) tibial slope would also open the flexion gap, but downsizing the femur is the most direct and standard adjustment.
Question 339
Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)
During a complex primary TKA for a severe fixed valgus deformity, the medial collateral ligament (MCL) is inadvertently transected mid-substance and is deemed completely incompetent and irreparable. Which of the following implant constraints is required to provide adequate stability?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Cruciate Retaining (CR)
Explanation
A completely incompetent, absent, or irreparable MCL in total knee arthroplasty necessitates a rotating hinge construct. A Constrained Condylar Knee (CCK) utilizes a tall tibial post to provide varus/valgus stability, but it relies on functional collateral ligaments to act as checkreins; it will fail early or subluxate if the primary stabilizer (MCL) is completely deficient. CR and PS implants offer no coronal plane constraint.
Question 340
Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)
A 66-year-old patient undergoes revision TKA. The surgeon utilizes thick tibial and femoral augments to manage bone loss. Postoperatively, the patient reports a painful catch and mid-flexion instability. Lateral radiographs show the inferior pole of the patella is abnormally close to the tibial plateau. What intraoperative technical error most likely led to this complication?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Undersizing the femoral component
Explanation
Elevating the joint line is a common complication in revision TKA when distal femoral bone loss is not adequately compensated with distal femoral augments, and a thicker polyethylene is used instead. This elevates the tibiofemoral joint line relative to the patella. Because the patellar tendon length remains fixed to the tibial tubercle, the patella sits lower relative to the joint line (patella baja/infra). This alters patellofemoral tracking, causes anterior knee pain, limits flexion, and can lead to mid-flexion instability.
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