Menu

Question 321

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

Intraoperatively during a primary TKA, the surgeon utilizes spacer blocks and finds that the flexion gap is excessively tight, but the extension gap is perfectly symmetric and balanced. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical step to correct this kinematic mismatch?

. Resect an additional 2 mm of distal femur
. Release the posterior capsule
. Downsize the femoral component
. Increase the thickness of the polyethylene insert
. Perform an extensive release of the superficial MCL

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Resect an additional 2 mm of distal femur


Explanation

A tight flexion gap with a balanced extension gap means the AP dimension in flexion is too large. Downsizing the femoral component (which effectively resects more posterior femoral condyle when using anterior referencing) will increase the flexion gap without altering the extension gap.

Question 322

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

Elevation of the joint line during TKA (often resulting from excessive distal femoral resection and using a thicker polyethylene insert) most commonly leads to which of the following complications?

. True patella alta
. Mid-flexion instability
. Hyperextension recurvatum
. Paradoxical anterior femoral sliding in extension
. A tight extension gap requiring posterior capsular release

Correct Answer & Explanation

. True patella alta


Explanation

Joint line elevation during TKA alters the isometry of the collateral ligaments. The ligaments become relatively lax in mid-flexion, causing mid-flexion instability. It also results in pseudo-patella baja (the patella is lower relative to the joint line, though the patellar tendon length is unchanged), which alters patellofemoral kinematics and can cause anterior knee pain.

Question 323

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

Following a complete disruption of the extensor mechanism after TKA, a reconstruction utilizing synthetic mesh (e.g., Marlex) is performed. What is the critical recommended postoperative rehabilitation protocol to ensure construct survival?

. Immediate full active range of motion
. Immobilization in full extension for 6 to 8 weeks
. Immobilization in 30 degrees of flexion for 4 weeks
. Continuous passive motion (CPM) from 0 to 90 degrees starting on postoperative day 1
. Immediate active straight leg raises with hinged bracing

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Immediate full active range of motion


Explanation

Extensor mechanism reconstruction in the setting of a TKA (whether with Marlex mesh or allograft) relies heavily on host tissue ingrowth into the reconstructive material. The standard protocol requires strict immobilization in full extension for 6 to 8 weeks to prevent early catastrophic failure and allow for biologic incorporation.

Question 324

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

A 72-year-old patient undergoes a primary TKA for severe valgus deformity. Intraoperatively, the medial collateral ligament (MCL) is found to be severely attenuated and incompetent, preventing varus-valgus stability with standard gap balancing, but the extensor mechanism and soft tissue envelope are otherwise intact. Which level of implant constraint is most appropriate as the next step?

. Cruciate retaining (CR)
. Posterior stabilized (PS)
. Constrained non-hinged (CCK)
. Rotating hinge
. Unicompartmental knee arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cruciate retaining (CR)


Explanation

A Constrained Condylar Knee (CCK) utilizes a tall, thick tibial post and a deep femoral box to provide varus-valgus constraint. It is indicated when the collateral ligaments (especially the MCL) are attenuated or deficient, but a linked hinge is not yet required. A rotating hinge is reserved for complete collateral absence with global soft tissue failure or massive bone loss.

Question 325

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

A patient presents 8 weeks after a primary TKA with severe stiffness. Despite aggressive, supervised physical therapy, their active and passive range of motion is limited to a painful arc from 15 degrees of extension to 75 degrees of flexion. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Immediate single-stage revision of the femoral and tibial components
. Arthroscopic lysis of adhesions
. Manipulation under anesthesia (MUA)
. Wait until 6 months postoperatively and reassess for MUA
. Open extensile lysis of adhesions

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Immediate single-stage revision of the femoral and tibial components


Explanation

For arthrofibrosis and significant stiffness following TKA that fails to improve with physical therapy, Manipulation Under Anesthesia (MUA) is highly effective if performed within the optimal window of 6 to 12 weeks postoperatively. Waiting until 6 months allows mature scar tissue to form, increasing the risk of periprosthetic fracture or tendon rupture during MUA.

Question 326

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

A 70-year-old female presents with a feeling of instability when going down stairs one year after a primary TKA. Clinical exam reveals stability in full extension and at 90 degrees of flexion, but excessive AP laxity at 30-45 degrees of flexion. Which of the following technical errors is the most likely cause?

. Undersized femoral component
. Excessive distal femoral resection
. Joint line elevation
. Excessive posterior slope
. Internal rotation of the tibial component

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Undersized femoral component


Explanation

Mid-flexion instability typically occurs when the joint line is elevated. The collateral ligaments become relatively lax in mid-flexion due to altered isometry, even if the gaps at 0 and 90 degrees are perfectly balanced.

Question 327

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

During TKA, joint line restoration is critical for proper biomechanics. Which of the following is a direct consequence of inadvertently elevating the joint line by more than 8 mm?

. Patella alta
. Excessive tightness in full extension
. Looseness in full extension
. Decreased patellofemoral contact forces
. Mid-flexion instability and acquired patella baja

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Patella alta


Explanation

Joint line elevation shifts the relative position of the patella distally, resulting in acquired patella baja and increased patellofemoral contact stresses. It also alters the isometry of the collateral ligaments, leading to mid-flexion instability.

Question 328

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

Patellar maltracking is a significant complication following TKA. Which of the following component malpositions is most likely to cause lateral patellar maltracking?

. External rotation of the femoral component
. Internal rotation of the tibial component
. Medialization of the femoral component
. Lateralization of the tibial component
. Decreased posterior tibial slope

Correct Answer & Explanation

. External rotation of the femoral component


Explanation

Internal rotation of the tibial component effectively lateralizes the tibial tubercle relative to the trochlear groove, increasing the Q angle and leading to lateral patellar maltracking. Internal rotation of the femoral component has a similar detrimental effect.

Question 329

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

A patient with a severe 20-degree valgus knee deformity undergoes a primary posterior-stabilized TKA. On post-operative day 1, the patient exhibits a new-onset foot drop and numbness over the first dorsal web space. What is the most appropriate initial step in management?

. Immediate surgical exploration and neurolysis of the common peroneal nerve
. Order emergent Electromyography (EMG)
. Remove all compressive dressings and flex the knee to 20-30 degrees
. Immediate revision TKA to a constrained condylar knee to reduce the gap
. Administration of high-dose intravenous corticosteroids

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Immediate surgical exploration and neurolysis of the common peroneal nerve


Explanation

Peroneal nerve palsy following correction of a severe valgus knee is typically due to traction or compression. Initial management requires immediate removal of all compressive dressings and flexing the knee to relax the nerve; surgical exploration is reserved for refractory cases or known transection.

Question 330

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

During a primary TKA trial reduction, the surgeon notes that the joint is symmetrically loose in full extension and symmetrically loose in 90 degrees of flexion. Which of the following is the most appropriate single intervention?

. Upsize the femoral component
. Increase the polyethylene insert thickness
. Use a thicker distal femoral augment
. Decrease the posterior tibial slope
. Downsize the femoral component

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Upsize the femoral component


Explanation

When a TKA is symmetrically loose in both flexion and extension, it indicates that the overall joint space is too large but the gaps are perfectly balanced. The correct intervention is to insert a thicker tibial polyethylene liner.

Question 331

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

A 68-year-old female presents with the inability to perform a straight leg raise 6 months following a primary TKA. Radiographs demonstrate a displaced patellar fracture with severe disruption of the extensor mechanism.

Assuming poor host tissue quality and inadequate remnant tissue for direct repair, what is the most reliable reconstructive option for a chronic, severe extensor mechanism disruption post-TKA?

. Primary repair with heavy non-absorbable sutures
. Hamstring autograft reconstruction
. Isolated hinged knee brace application for life
. Medial gastrocnemius rotational flap
. Reconstruction using synthetic mesh (Marlex) or whole extensor mechanism allograft

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Primary repair with heavy non-absorbable sutures


Explanation

Extensor mechanism disruption after TKA is a catastrophic complication. Primary repair has an unacceptably high failure rate. Synthetic (Marlex) mesh reconstruction and whole extensor mechanism allograft are both highly reliable reconstructive techniques for chronic disruptions with poor tissue quality. Synthetic mesh has grown in popularity due to its cost-effectiveness, lack of disease transmission risk, and durable clinical results.

Question 332

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

A 70-year-old male undergoes a posterior-stabilized (PS) TKA. Postoperatively, he experiences a catching sensation and palpable clunk as the knee actively extends from 40 degrees of flexion. Which design factor is most strongly associated with this complication?

. A high intercondylar box design on the femoral component
. A low intercondylar box design on the femoral component
. Increased posterior slope of the tibial component
. Decreased thickness of the patellar component
. Internal rotation of the tibial component

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A high intercondylar box design on the femoral component


Explanation

Patellar clunk syndrome occurs most frequently in PS knees with a high intercondylar box, allowing a fibrous nodule on the superior patella to catch in the notch during extension.

Question 333

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

During a primary TKA for severe varus deformity, the medial compartment remains tight in both flexion and extension after resection of osteophytes and deep medial collateral ligament release. Which of the following structures should be released next to achieve coronal balance?

. Lateral collateral ligament
. Pes anserinus tendons
. Posteromedial capsule
. Popliteus tendon
. Semimembranosus expansion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral collateral ligament


Explanation

For a tight medial gap in both flexion and extension during a varus TKA, the standard stepwise release starts with deep MCL and osteophytes. The next step is releasing the posteromedial corner and capsule, followed by the semimembranosus.

Question 334

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

A 75-year-old female with severe rheumatoid arthritis presents for a primary total knee arthroplasty. Clinical and radiographic evaluation demonstrates a severe valgus deformity with a completely incompetent, non-functional medial collateral ligament (MCL). Which of the following implant constraints is indicated?

. Cruciate retaining prosthesis
. Posterior stabilized prosthesis
. Constrained condylar knee (CCK)
. Rotating hinge prosthesis
. Unicompartmental knee replacement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cruciate retaining prosthesis


Explanation

In the setting of a completely incompetent or absent MCL, a standard varus-valgus constrained (CCK) implant will not provide sufficient stability and may fail. A rotating hinge prosthesis is strictly indicated to provide coronal stability.

Question 335

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

Which of the following best describes the primary goal of the kinematic alignment philosophy in total knee arthroplasty compared to traditional mechanical alignment?

. Setting the joint line exactly perpendicular to the mechanical axis of the limb
. Restoration of the pre-arthritic constitutional alignment and joint line obliquity
. Intentional placement of the tibial component in 3 degrees of varus for all patients
. Routine release of the medial collateral ligament to achieve a rectangular gap
. Cutting the tibia strictly perpendicular to its anatomic axis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Setting the joint line exactly perpendicular to the mechanical axis of the limb


Explanation

Kinematic alignment aims to restore the patient's pre-arthritic constitutional alignment and natural joint line obliquity by resurfacing the articular wear, minimizing the need for routine ligamentous releases.

Question 336

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

A 65-year-old male complains of knee instability when descending stairs 1 year after a primary TKA. Examination reveals a knee that is fully stable in full extension but exhibits marked anteroposterior laxity in 90 degrees of flexion. Which of the following intraoperative technical errors most likely occurred?

. Excessive distal femoral resection
. Undersizing the femoral component in the anteroposterior (AP) dimension
. Oversizing the femoral component in the AP dimension
. Inadequate proximal tibial resection
. Placing the femoral component in excessive external rotation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Excessive distal femoral resection


Explanation

Undersizing the femoral component in the AP dimension reduces the posterior condylar offset, thereby increasing the flexion gap while leaving the extension gap unaffected. This creates isolated flexion instability often noticed during activities like stair descent.

Question 337

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

During a primary TKA for a fixed valgus deformity of 20 degrees, the surgeon notes a tight lateral compartment in full extension, but the knee is well-balanced in 90 degrees of flexion. Which of the following structures is the primary tether and should be released to balance the gaps?

. Lateral collateral ligament
. Popliteus tendon
. Iliotibial band
. Posterior cruciate ligament
. Lateral head of the gastrocnemius

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral collateral ligament


Explanation

The iliotibial band (ITB) acts as a primary lateral tether in extension but has minimal effect in flexion. Releasing or pie-crusting the ITB will correct the tight extension gap without disrupting the already balanced flexion gap.

Question 338

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

During a primary TKA, the surgeon uses spacer blocks to assess gap kinematics. The extension gap is symmetric and well-balanced. However, the flexion gap is symmetric but significantly tight, preventing adequate knee flexion with the trial components. Which of the following technical adjustments is the most appropriate next step to balance the knee?

. Recut the distal femur to remove more bone
. Release the posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) and upsize the tibial polyethylene
. Downsize the femoral component and maintain the anterior referencing
. Decrease the posterior slope of the tibial cut
. Release the medial collateral ligament (MCL)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Recut the distal femur to remove more bone


Explanation

The scenario describes a 'balanced extension, tight flexion' gap mismatch. Modifying the distal femoral cut or the overall polyethylene thickness will affect BOTH gaps. Releasing the PCL primarily affects the flexion gap but often necessitates switching to a posterior stabilized (PS) construct if not already planned, and upsizing poly would tighten extension. Downsizing the femoral component (which decreases the AP dimension of the femur) removes more posterior femoral condyle bone, thereby opening the flexion gap without altering the extension gap. Increasing (not decreasing) tibial slope would also open the flexion gap, but downsizing the femur is the most direct and standard adjustment.

Question 339

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

During a complex primary TKA for a severe fixed valgus deformity, the medial collateral ligament (MCL) is inadvertently transected mid-substance and is deemed completely incompetent and irreparable. Which of the following implant constraints is required to provide adequate stability?

. Cruciate Retaining (CR)
. Posterior Stabilized (PS)
. Constrained Condylar Knee (CCK)
. Rotating Hinge
. Fixed Bearing Unicompartmental Knee

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cruciate Retaining (CR)


Explanation

A completely incompetent, absent, or irreparable MCL in total knee arthroplasty necessitates a rotating hinge construct. A Constrained Condylar Knee (CCK) utilizes a tall tibial post to provide varus/valgus stability, but it relies on functional collateral ligaments to act as checkreins; it will fail early or subluxate if the primary stabilizer (MCL) is completely deficient. CR and PS implants offer no coronal plane constraint.

Question 340

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

A 66-year-old patient undergoes revision TKA. The surgeon utilizes thick tibial and femoral augments to manage bone loss. Postoperatively, the patient reports a painful catch and mid-flexion instability. Lateral radiographs show the inferior pole of the patella is abnormally close to the tibial plateau. What intraoperative technical error most likely led to this complication?

. Undersizing the femoral component
. Using a tibial insert that was too thin
. Elevating the joint line
. Lowering the joint line
. Placing the femoral component in excessive external rotation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Undersizing the femoral component


Explanation

Elevating the joint line is a common complication in revision TKA when distal femoral bone loss is not adequately compensated with distal femoral augments, and a thicker polyethylene is used instead. This elevates the tibiofemoral joint line relative to the patella. Because the patellar tendon length remains fixed to the tibial tubercle, the patella sits lower relative to the joint line (patella baja/infra). This alters patellofemoral tracking, causes anterior knee pain, limits flexion, and can lead to mid-flexion instability.