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Question 241

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

During a total knee arthroplasty (TKA) gap balancing procedure, the surgeon notes that the knee is well-balanced and symmetric in extension, but symmetrically tight in 90 degrees of flexion. Which of the following is the most appropriate step to achieve balanced gaps?

. Resect more distal femur
. Release the posterior capsule
. Downsize the femoral component and augment the anterior femur
. Decrease the posterior tibial slope
. Upsize the femoral component

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Downsize the femoral component and augment the anterior femur


Explanation

A tight flexion gap with a balanced extension gap requires downsizing the femoral component to decrease the posterior condylar offset. Augmenting the anterior femur prevents anterior notching when the femoral component size is reduced.

Question 242

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

A 65-year-old woman with advanced primary knee osteoarthritis undergoes a posterior-stabilized (PS) TKA. The surgeon inadvertently internally rotates the tibial component. What is the most likely biomechanical consequence of this malrotation?

. Medial patellar subluxation
. Decreased Q-angle
. Lateral patellar subluxation
. Posterior cam-post impingement
. Tightness of the medial flexion gap

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral patellar subluxation


Explanation

Internal rotation of the tibial component effectively lateralizes the tibial tubercle relative to the center of the prosthesis. This increases the Q-angle and promotes lateral subluxation or dislocation of the patella.

Question 243

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

A patient with a severe 25-degree valgus knee deformity and a completely incompetent medial collateral ligament (MCL) presents for TKA. Which of the following implant constraints is most appropriate?

. Cruciate-retaining (CR) TKA
. Posterior-stabilized (PS) TKA
. Constrained non-hinged (CCK) TKA
. Rotating hinge TKA
. Unicompartmental knee arthroplasty (UKA)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Rotating hinge TKA


Explanation

A rotating hinge TKA is indicated when there is global ligamentous instability or a completely deficient MCL. A constrained condylar knee (CCK) relies on the structural integrity of the MCL to resist valgus stress and would be prone to failure in this scenario.

Question 244

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

During a TKA, a measured resection technique is utilized. The surgeon uses the surgical transepicondylar axis (sTEA) to establish femoral component rotation. Which of the following best describes the sTEA?

. A line connecting the most prominent points of the medial and lateral epicondyles.
. A line connecting the lateral epicondylar prominence to the medial epicondylar sulcus.
. A line perpendicular to Whiteside's line.
. A line parallel to the posterior condylar axis.
. A line connecting the adductor tubercle to the lateral epicondyle.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A line connecting the lateral epicondylar prominence to the medial epicondylar sulcus.


Explanation

The surgical transepicondylar axis (sTEA) connects the lateral epicondylar prominence to the medial epicondylar sulcus. It closely approximates the true flexion-extension axis of the knee and dictates neutral femoral component rotation.

Question 245

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

A 55-year-old male presents with a symptomatic extra-articular distal femoral varus deformity of 15 degrees located 5 cm proximal to the joint line. If the surgeon decides to correct this entirely with an intra-articular bone cut during a TKA, what is the most significant risk?

. Lateral collateral ligament disruption
. Medial collateral ligament disruption
. Excessive joint line elevation
. Patella infera
. Severe extension gap laxity

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medial collateral ligament disruption


Explanation

Compensating for a large distal femoral varus deformity (>10-15 degrees) with a purely intra-articular cut requires a highly valgus distal femoral resection. This can compromise the medial epicondyle and the origin of the MCL, risking iatrogenic MCL disruption.

Question 246

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

In a posterior-stabilized (PS) TKA, at approximately what angle of flexion does the cam on the femoral component typically engage the tibial post to initiate posterior femoral rollback?

. 10 to 20 degrees
. 30 to 40 degrees
. 70 to 80 degrees
. 100 to 110 degrees
. The cam engages in full extension

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 70 to 80 degrees


Explanation

In standard PS knee designs, the cam-post mechanism typically engages around 70 to 80 degrees of knee flexion. This engagement substitutes for the posterior cruciate ligament, driving the femur posteriorly to optimize clearance and improve maximum flexion.

Question 247

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

A patient presents with 'patellar clunk syndrome' two years following a TKA. Which implant characteristic and kinematic phase are most classically associated with this condition?

. Cruciate-retaining implant; transitioning from flexion to extension
. Posterior-stabilized implant; transitioning from flexion to extension
. Constrained condylar implant; transitioning from extension to flexion
. Rotating hinge implant; active terminal extension
. Mobile-bearing unicompartmental knee; during deep flexion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior-stabilized implant; transitioning from flexion to extension


Explanation

Patellar clunk syndrome occurs primarily in PS knee designs. A fibrous nodule forms on the undersurface of the quadriceps tendon and catches in the intercondylar box of the femoral component as the knee transitions from flexion into extension.

Question 248

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

Increasing the posterior slope of the tibial bone cut during a TKA will have which of the following effects on the flexion and extension gaps?

. Increases both flexion and extension gaps equally
. Decreases the flexion gap, increases the extension gap
. Increases the flexion gap, negligible effect on the extension gap
. Decreases both flexion and extension gaps
. Increases the extension gap, negligible effect on the flexion gap

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increases the flexion gap, negligible effect on the extension gap


Explanation

Increasing the posterior slope of the tibial cut removes more bone posteriorly, which selectively increases the volume of the flexion gap. It has a negligible effect on the extension gap, as the anterior tibial cortex resection depth remains largely unchanged.

Question 249

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

In an excessively thick (overstuffed) patellar component during TKA, which of the following postoperative complications is most directly expected?

. Increased maximum flexion
. Anterior knee pain and decreased range of motion
. Patella alta
. Posterior knee instability
. Medial patellar subluxation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior knee pain and decreased range of motion


Explanation

Overstuffing the patellofemoral joint increases the anteroposterior diameter of the knee, which elevates retinacular tension and quadriceps forces. This routinely results in anterior knee pain, lateral tracking issues, and decreased terminal flexion.

Question 250

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

Intraoperatively during a TKA, a surgeon finds the knee is tight in full extension but perfectly balanced in 90 degrees of flexion. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step to balance the knee?

. Downsize the femoral component
. Recut the proximal tibia
. Release the posterior capsule
. Upsize the tibial polyethylene insert
. Recut the posterior femoral condyles

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Release the posterior capsule


Explanation

A tight extension gap with a balanced flexion gap requires increasing the extension gap only. Releasing the posterior capsule or resecting more distal femur will achieve this without affecting the flexion gap.

Question 251

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

A patient with severe osteoarthritis and an 18-degree varus deformity is evaluated for TKA. Preoperative imaging reveals a Joint Line Convergence Angle (JLCA) of 6 degrees (opening laterally). How does this affect preoperative bone resection planning?

. The planned bony resection angle should incorporate the full 18 degrees of varus
. The tibial cut should be planned with 6 degrees of varus
. The bony correction should account for the fact that the JLCA will correct with soft tissue balancing
. The femoral cut must be made in 6 degrees of extra valgus
. A hinged knee prosthesis is absolutely contraindicated

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The bony correction should account for the fact that the JLCA will correct with soft tissue balancing


Explanation

A large JLCA indicates significant soft tissue laxity or asymmetrical cartilage wear. Because appropriate soft tissue releases will correct the JLCA to near zero, the bony resections should only address the fixed bony deformity to avoid overcorrection.

Question 252

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

A patient has significant anterior bowing of the femoral diaphysis. If a standard intramedullary alignment guide is utilized during primary TKA, what is the most likely error in the distal femoral resection?

. Increased valgus resection
. Increased varus resection
. Flexion of the femoral component
. Extension of the femoral component with anterior notching
. Decreased posterior condylar offset

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Extension of the femoral component with anterior notching


Explanation

Anterior bowing of the femur directs an intramedullary rod more posteriorly at the distal end. This leads to an extended distal femoral cut, potentially causing anterior femoral notching and an extended femoral component relative to the mechanical axis.

Question 253

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

During revision TKA, the joint line is inadvertently elevated by 10 mm. Which of the following biomechanical consequences is most likely to occur?

. Patella alta
. Mid-flexion instability
. Decreased femoral rollback
. Decreased contact forces at the patellofemoral joint
. Tightness in the extension gap

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Mid-flexion instability


Explanation

Elevating the joint line alters the isometry of the collateral ligaments, uniquely loosening them in mid-flexion and leading to mid-flexion instability. It also results in relative patella baja (pseudo-patella baja) and altered patellofemoral kinematics.

Question 254

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

A 58-year-old patient with severe knee osteoarthritis has an extra-articular varus deformity of the proximal tibial diaphysis due to a malunited fracture. What is the generally accepted threshold of extra-articular coronal plane tibial deformity beyond which a simultaneous or staged corrective osteotomy is recommended over intra-articular compensatory resection during TKA?

. 5 degrees
. 10 degrees
. 20 degrees
. 30 degrees
. 45 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 20 degrees


Explanation

For extra-articular deformities, simultaneous or staged osteotomy is generally recommended if the coronal deformity in the tibia exceeds 20 degrees or 15 degrees in the femur. Lesser deformities can typically be managed safely with intra-articular compensatory cuts and soft-tissue balancing.

Question 255

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

A patient with significant distal femoral diaphyseal anterior bowing (procurvatum deformity) undergoes standard primary TKA using a traditional long intramedullary femoral alignment guide. If uncorrected, this diaphyseal deformity will most likely cause the femoral component to be placed in:

. Excessive extension
. Excessive flexion
. Excessive internal rotation
. Excessive external rotation
. Coronal valgus alignment

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Excessive flexion


Explanation

Anterior bowing (procurvatum) of the distal femur directs an intramedullary rod posteriorly at the distal end. This leads to an excessive anterior cut and places the femoral component in an excessively flexed position, potentially causing a flexion contracture.

Question 256

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

During a primary PCL-substituting (PS) TKA, the trial reduction demonstrates a perfectly balanced extension gap, but the flexion gap is excessively tight, limiting flexion to 85 degrees. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step to balance the knee?

. Resect an additional 2 mm of the distal femur
. Resect an additional 2 mm of the proximal tibia
. Downsize the femoral component
. Upsize the femoral component
. Release the posterior capsule

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Downsize the femoral component


Explanation

Downsizing the femoral component reduces the anteroposterior dimension of the femur, which specifically opens the flexion gap. It does not alter the distal femoral resection, thereby leaving the balanced extension gap unaffected.

Question 257

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

According to current orthopedic consensus, what is the generally accepted threshold of extra-articular coronal plane tibial deformity beyond which a simultaneous or staged extra-articular osteotomy is typically recommended during TKA?

. 5 degrees
. 10 to 15 degrees
. 20 to 25 degrees
. 30 degrees
. Extra-articular osteotomy is contraindicated in TKA

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 10 to 15 degrees


Explanation

Extra-articular tibial deformities >10 to 15 degrees in the coronal plane cannot typically be managed with intra-articular cuts without causing severe collateral ligament imbalance or violating the tibial footprint. An extra-articular osteotomy is usually required above this threshold.

Question 258

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

Which of the following technical errors during the placement of TKA components is most likely to increase the Q-angle and precipitate lateral patellar maltracking?

. Lateralizing the femoral component
. Medializing the femoral component
. Externally rotating the tibial component
. Externally rotating the femoral component
. Medializing the patellar component

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medializing the femoral component


Explanation

Medializing the femoral component shifts the trochlear groove medially relative to the tibial tubercle, effectively increasing the Q-angle. This increases the lateral vector force on the patella, predisposing it to subluxation.

Question 259

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

A 70-year-old female undergoes TKA for a fixed 15-degree valgus deformity. During trial reduction, the knee is perfectly balanced in 90 degrees of flexion, but the lateral compartment remains asymmetrically tight in full extension. Which structure should be selectively released next?

. Popliteus tendon
. Iliotibial (IT) band
. Lateral collateral ligament (LCL)
. Posterior cruciate ligament
. Lateral head of the gastrocnemius

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Iliotibial (IT) band


Explanation

The IT band is a primary stabilizer of the lateral compartment in full extension but becomes relaxed in flexion. Selectively releasing it addresses a tight lateral extension gap without significantly affecting the flexion gap.

Question 260

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

When setting the rotational alignment of the tibial component during primary TKA, aligning the center of the tibial tray to the medial third of the tibial tubercle serves to optimize patellofemoral mechanics primarily by:

. Medializing the tibial tubercle
. Decreasing the Q-angle
. Internally rotating the tibial tubercle
. Internally rotating the femoral component
. Maximizing tibial plateau coverage over tracking

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Decreasing the Q-angle


Explanation

Aligning the tibial component to the medial third of the tubercle slightly externally rotates the tray relative to the strict mechanical axis. This prevents internal rotation of the component, thereby decreasing the Q-angle and improving patellar tracking.