This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA). Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 61
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
In metal-on-metal hip resurfacing, which of the following component malpositionings most significantly increases the risk of accelerated edge-loading and elevated serum metal ions?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Acetabular inclination of 55 degrees
Explanation
Excessive acetabular inclination (typically >50-55 degrees) leads to edge-loading, which disrupts the fluid film lubrication. This results in accelerated wear and significantly elevated serum cobalt and chromium levels.
Question 62
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
Systemic toxicity from cobalt and chromium ions following metal-on-metal hip resurfacing can manifest with which of the following classic constellations of symptoms?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Cardiomyopathy, visual impairment, and hearing loss
Explanation
Systemic cobalt toxicity (cobaltism) can cause devastating complications including cardiomyopathy, polyneuropathy, visual impairment, hearing loss, and cognitive decline.
Question 63
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
Which of the following patients is considered the ideal candidate for a metal-on-metal hip resurfacing?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. A 45-year-old male with primary osteoarthritis and a 54mm femoral head size
Explanation
The most favorable outcomes and lowest failure rates for hip resurfacing occur in young, active males with large femoral head diameters (>50mm) and primary osteoarthritis.
Question 64
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
What is the primary fluid lubrication regime under which a properly positioned metal-on-metal hip resurfacing bearing ideally operates during the steady-state phase?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Fluid-film lubrication
Explanation
MOM bearings are designed to operate under fluid-film lubrication, where a continuous layer of synovial fluid separates the articular surfaces. Disruption of this film, often due to edge loading or poor positioning, leads to boundary lubrication and accelerated wear.
Question 65
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
Which surgical technical error is most highly associated with an early femoral neck fracture following a metal-on-metal hip resurfacing?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Varus component positioning and superior femoral neck notching
Explanation
Superior femoral neck notching and varus positioning of the femoral component create significant stress risers. These errors greatly increase the biomechanical risk of early postoperative femoral neck fractures.
Question 66
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
Which design feature of a metal-on-metal hip resurfacing relies on establishing an 'equatorial bearing' and is critical for generating optimal fluid-film lubrication?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Diametrical clearance
Explanation
Diametrical clearance is the specific difference between the outer diameter of the femoral head and the inner diameter of the acetabular cup. Precise clearance is essential to trap synovial fluid and maintain fluid-film lubrication.
Question 67
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A 55-year-old man presents with groin pain 4 years after a metal-on-metal (MOM) hip resurfacing. Blood work reveals elevated serum metal ions. According to major regulatory guidelines, serum cobalt levels above which of the following thresholds strongly indicate a poorly functioning bearing and warrant advanced imaging?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 7 ppb (mcg/L)
Explanation
Serum cobalt or chromium levels greater than 7 ppb (mcg/L) are widely considered the threshold for concern in MOM hip replacements. Levels above this suggest increased wear, such as from edge loading, and warrant a Metal Artifact Reduction Sequence (MARS) MRI to evaluate for adverse local tissue reactions.
Question 68
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
Metal-on-metal (MOM) hip resurfacing is considered for young, active patients with osteoarthritis, but stringent patient selection is required. Which of the following conditions is considered an absolute contraindication for a MOM hip resurfacing?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. End-stage renal disease
Explanation
Renal failure is an absolute contraindication to MOM hip resurfacing. Metal ions (cobalt and chromium) are primarily excreted by the kidneys, and impaired renal clearance rapidly leads to systemic accumulation and severe metal toxicity.
Question 69
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A 65-year-old female undergoes a primary total hip arthroplasty via a posterior approach. Six weeks later, she experiences a posterior dislocation while sitting in a low chair. Which of the following component malpositions most likely contributed to this specific type of instability?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Excessive retroversion of the acetabular cup
Explanation
Posterior dislocation of a THA is often associated with inadequate anteversion (i.e., retroversion) of the acetabular component or femoral stem. This causes premature impingement during hip flexion and internal rotation, levering the head out posteriorly.
Question 70
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
When performing a posterior approach to the knee for a PCL avulsion, the surgeon makes a lazy S-shaped incision and identifies the neurovascular structures. Which of the following statements accurately describes the anatomical relationship of the major neurovascular structures in the popliteal fossa, as relevant to this approach?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The small saphenous nerve is identified with the accompanying sural nerve, which must be preserved.
Explanation
Correct Answer: CThe candidate's description of the posterior approach states: 'The small saphenous nerve is identified with accompanying sural nerve that must be preserved. The sural nerve is traced proximally where it pierces deep fascia from the tibial nerve trunk. At the apex of the fossa, the common peroneal nerve separates from tibial nerve. The tibial nerve lies posterior to the popliteal vein which in turn is superficial to popliteal artery.'Option A (The common peroneal nerve separates from the tibial nerve at the apex of the fossa and lies medial to the popliteal artery):The common peroneal nerve does separate at the apex, but it lies posterolaterally, not medial to the popliteal artery.Option B (The tibial nerve lies superficial to the popliteal vein, which is superficial to the popliteal artery):The text states, 'The tibial nerve lies posterior to the popliteal vein which in turn is superficial to popliteal artery.' This means the tibial nerve is most superficial (posterior), then the vein, then the artery (deepest/anterior). So, the tibial nerve is superficial to the vein, but the vein is superficial to the artery, making the overall statement incorrect in its sequence.Option C (The small saphenous nerve is identified with the accompanying sural nerve, which must be preserved):This is directly stated in the text: 'The small saphenous nerve is identified with accompanying sural nerve that must be preserved.'Option D (The popliteal artery is the most superficial structure, lying posterior to the popliteal vein and tibial nerve):This is incorrect. The popliteal artery is the deepest of the three main neurovascular structures (nerve, vein, artery) in the popliteal fossa. The tibial nerve is the most superficial.Option E (The common peroneal nerve is typically found posteromedially, while the tibial nerve is posterolaterally):This is incorrect. The common peroneal nerve is posterolateral, and the tibial nerve is posteromedial (and more central as it descends).
Question 71
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
The patient's radiographs show radiolucent lines at the boneโcement interface located circumferentially around all seven DeLee and Charnley zones in the acetabulum and lucencies in all seven Gruen zones around the femoral component. Based on the Harris and Barrack grading system for cement mantle quality, what grade would most accurately describe the femoral component's cement mantle in this scenario?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. E. Grade D
Explanation
Correct Answer: EExplanation:The case describes the femoral component as having 'separated from the femoral cement with lucencies in all seven Gruen zones.' The Harris and Barrack grading system defines:Grade A:Complete filling of the medullary cavity by cement, a so-called โwhite-outโ at the cementโbone interface.Grade B:Slight radiolucency of the cementโbone interface.Grade C:Radiolucency involving 50% to 99% of the cementโbone interface or a defective or incomplete cement mantle.Grade C2:A defect where the tip of the stem abuts the cortex with no intervening cement.Grade D:Radiolucency at the cementโbone interface of 100% in any projection, or a failure to fill the canal with cement such that the tip of the stem is not covered.Since the case states 'lucencies in all seven Gruen zones,' this indicates 100% radiolucency at the cement-bone interface, which directly corresponds to a Grade D cementing technique according to Harris and Barrack.A. Grade A:This describes a perfect cement mantle ('white-out'), which is clearly not the case here.B. Grade B:This describes slight radiolucency, which is less severe than 'lucencies in all seven Gruen zones.'C. Grade C:This describes radiolucency involving 50% to 99% or a defective mantle, but 'all seven Gruen zones' implies 100% involvement, making Grade D more accurate.D. Grade C2:This is a specific type of Grade C defect where the stem tip abuts the cortex. While possible in severe loosening, the description of 'lucencies in all seven Gruen zones' more broadly and definitively points to Grade D, which encompasses 100% radiolucency.E. Grade D:This grade is defined by 'Radiolucency at the cementโbone interface of 100% in any projection,' which perfectly matches the description of 'lucencies in all seven Gruen zones.'
Question 72
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
The patient requires an extended trochanteric osteotomy (ETO) for cement removal. When consenting the patient for this procedure, which of the following complications is *specifically* increased or unique to the use of an ETO compared to a standard revision THA without osteotomy?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. D. Malunion or non-union of the osteotomy site
Explanation
Correct Answer: DExplanation:The case specifically lists complications associated with the ETO: 'In addition the patient is going to require an extended trochanteric osteotomy (ETO) to remove the cement distally and this will increase operating time and blood loss. There is always the concern that the osteotomy site will go on to either malunion or non-union. Osteotomy migration or fracture can also occur.'A. Dislocation:Dislocation is a general complication of THA revision, but not specifically increased or unique to the ETO itself. The case mentions 'Usually component malpositioning or laxity of soft tissues around the hip' as causes.B. Nerve palsy (e.g., sciatic nerve):Nerve palsy is a known complication of THA revision surgery in general (2โ7%), but not specifically or uniquely linked to the ETO itself more than other aspects of the revision.C. Heterotopic ossification:Heterotopic ossification is a general complication of hip surgery, including primary and revision THA, but not specifically unique to or significantly increased by an ETO compared to other revision approaches.D. Malunion or non-union of the osteotomy site:This is a direct and unique complication of performing an osteotomy. The case explicitly states, 'There is always the concern that the osteotomy site will go on to either malunion or non-union. Osteotomy migration or fracture can also occur.' This is a specific risk introduced by the ETO.E. Deep vein thrombosis (DVT):DVT is a general complication of major orthopedic surgery, including THA revision, but not specifically or uniquely increased by the ETO itself.
Question 73
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
During surgical planning for this patient's revision THA, the candidate states a preference for uncemented components. Given the need for an ETO to remove distal cement, what is the primary rationale for choosing an uncemented femoral implant in this specific scenario?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. B. Cement would be relatively contraindicated if using an ETO as it may get into the osteotomy site and prevent healing.
Explanation
Correct Answer: BExplanation:The case explicitly addresses the choice of uncemented components in the context of an ETO: 'I would use uncemented components as generally they are preferred if previously cement was used. Cement would be relatively contraindicated if using an ETO as it may get into the osteotomy site and prevent healing.'A. Uncemented components are generally preferred if previously cement was used:While the candidate states this as a general preference, it's not theprimaryrationale given in the case forthis specific scenarioinvolving an ETO. The ETO introduces a more direct and specific contraindication to cement.B. Cement would be relatively contraindicated if using an ETO as it may get into the osteotomy site and prevent healing:This is the direct and specific reason provided in the case for preferring uncemented components when an ETO is performed. The presence of cement in the osteotomy site can impair bone healing, leading to complications like non-union.C. Uncemented stems allow for easier future revisions:While uncemented stems can sometimes be easier to remove in future revisions compared to well-fixed cemented stems, this is not the primary rationale given in the case for the current decision regarding ETO.D. The patient's age (78 years old) makes uncemented fixation more reliable:Patient age is a factor in bone quality, but the case does not state that uncemented fixation ismore reliablespecifically due to the patient's age. In fact, older patients with poorer bone quality might sometimes benefit from cemented fixation, though modern uncemented options are robust. The primary reason given is ETO-specific.E. Uncemented components have a lower risk of postoperative infection:There is no evidence presented in the case, nor is it a generally accepted principle, that uncemented components inherently have a lower risk of postoperative infection compared to cemented components. Infection risk is multifactorial.
Question 74
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A 72-year-old male experiences his third posterior dislocation of a primary total hip arthroplasty initially performed via a posterior approach. Radiographs demonstrate that the acetabular component is well-fixed but positioned in 45 degrees of inclination and 5 degrees of retroversion. What is the most appropriate surgical strategy to establish stability?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Revision of the acetabular shell to increase anteversion to approximately 15-20 degrees
Explanation
Recurrent posterior dislocations in the setting of an overtly retroverted acetabular component require surgical correction of the malposition. Revising the acetabular shell to appropriate anteversion directly addresses the mechanical cause of the impingement and posterior instability.
Question 75
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A 55-year-old active male underwent a primary total hip arthroplasty with a ceramic-on-ceramic articulation 3 years ago. He now complains of a loud, audible squeaking sound from his hip during gait, though he denies pain. Radiographs demonstrate a well-fixed femoral stem and an acetabular cup positioned in 65 degrees of inclination. What is the primary mechanical cause of the squeaking?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Loss of fluid film lubrication leading to stripe wear from edge loading
Explanation
Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic THA is highly associated with component malposition, specifically excessive cup inclination (>50-55 degrees) or anteversion. This leads to edge loading, disruption of the fluid film lubrication, and subsequent stripe wear on the ceramic head.
Question 76
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A 72-year-old female presents with her third posterior dislocation of her total hip arthroplasty. A review of her postoperative CT scan evaluating component position is ordered. Which of the following cup positions is the most likely culprit for recurrent posterior instability?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Acetabular cup retroversion
Explanation
Posterior dislocation in THA is frequently caused by inadequate anteversion or overt retroversion of the acetabular component. Proper 'safe zone' component positioning requires approximately 15-20 degrees of anteversion and 40 degrees of inclination.
Question 77
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A 70-year-old female undergoes a revision total hip arthroplasty via a posterior approach. Intraoperatively, the well-fixed acetabular component is noted to be retroverted by 10 degrees, but removal would result in massive bone loss. If the cup is retained, which adjustment to the modular femoral stem would best compensate for this acetabular malposition to prevent posterior instability?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Increasing femoral anteversion
Explanation
Increasing femoral anteversion increases the combined anteversion of the total hip construct. This effectively compensates for an excessively retroverted acetabular component, mitigating the risk of posterior dislocation.
Question 78
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
In an oral viva setting, an examiner presents a radiograph of a healthy 75-year-old female with a displaced femoral neck fracture and asks the candidate to justify their choice of total hip arthroplasty (THA) over hemiarthroplasty. Which of the following responses demonstrates the best grasp of current orthopedic literature?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. THA provides better long-term functional outcomes and lower reoperation rates for active older patients.
Explanation
For active, independent older patients with displaced femoral neck fractures, THA provides superior functional outcomes and lower reoperation rates compared to hemiarthroplasty. Hemiarthroplasty is typically reserved for lower-demand or medically frail patients.
Question 79
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A candidate is asked to describe the surgical approach for a total hip arthroplasty in a dysplastic hip. The examiner repeatedly interrupts the candidate's description of the posterior approach to ask about the internervous plane. How should the candidate handle this?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Clarify that the posterior approach is a muscle-splitting approach and does not utilize a true internervous plane.
Explanation
The posterior approach to the hip splits the gluteus maximus (inferior gluteal nerve) and is not a true internervous plane. Correctly answering foundational anatomical questions without getting flustered by interruptions is a key viva skill.
Question 80
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
In your oral examination, you are discussing a case from your collection where a patient experienced a major complication (e.g., foot drop after THA). The examiner presses you on what went wrong. What is the most successful tactic for defending your case?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Take personal responsibility, describe the intraoperative challenge that led to it, and explain how you altered your practice to prevent it.
Explanation
Examiners are evaluating you for safe, mature surgical practice. Taking responsibility, demonstrating reflective learning, and showing subsequent practice improvement is the hallmark of a passing candidate.
Test Yourself
Switch to an interactive, timed exam simulation to truly master this topic.