This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA). Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 661
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
Trunnionosis, or mechanically assisted crevice corrosion at the head-neck taper, has emerged as a significant cause of adverse local tissue reactions in modern THA. Which combination of implant factors is most associated with an increased risk of trunnionosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Large femoral head diameter and high femoral offset
Explanation
A large femoral head increases the frictional torque transmitted to the head-neck junction. Combined with a high offset, this maximizes bending moments and micromotion at the taper, strongly increasing the risk of trunnionosis.
Question 662
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A 45-year-old man underwent a primary THA using a ceramic-on-ceramic bearing. Three years postoperatively, he complains of an audible squeaking sound from the hip during deep flexion activities, though he is pain-free. What is the most significant risk factor for this phenomenon?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Edge loading due to cup malposition
Explanation
Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic THA is strongly associated with edge loading, which typically occurs due to excessive steepness (high inclination) or malversion of the acetabular component. This leads to stripe wear and disruption of the fluid film lubrication.
Question 663
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
Following a primary THA, a patient complains that the operative leg feels significantly longer. Clinical examination and scanograms confirm a true 2 cm leg length discrepancy. Assuming the femoral neck osteotomy was performed perfectly according to preoperative templating, which intraoperative error most likely caused this outcome?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Inadequate depth of seating of the femoral stem
Explanation
Leaving the femoral stem proud (inadequate seating depth) directly lengthens the leg compared to the preoperative template. Offset primarily affects abductor tension and horizontal position, whereas seating depth directly alters vertical leg length.
Question 664
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A 65-year-old patient experiences recurrent posterior dislocations of their THA. CT imaging reveals the acetabular component is in 45 degrees of inclination and 0 degrees of anteversion, while the femoral stem is in 15 degrees of anteversion. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Revision of the acetabular component to increase anteversion
Explanation
The acetabular cup is placed in 0 degrees of anteversion, falling well outside the safe zone (~15-25 degrees of anteversion), which directly causes posterior instability. Revising the acetabular component to appropriate anteversion addresses the primary anatomic failure.
Question 665
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
During the fixation of an uncemented acetabular cup in THA, the surgeon decides to place supplementary screws. According to the quadrant system described by Wasielewski, screw placement in the anteroinferior quadrant places which of the following vascular structures at greatest risk of direct injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Obturator artery
Explanation
The anteroinferior quadrant is considered the 'danger zone' for screw placement due to the high risk of penetrating the obturator nerve and vessels. The posterosuperior quadrant is the safest zone for screw placement.
Question 666
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
The deep branch of the medial circumflex femoral artery (MCFA) provides the primary vascular supply to the adult femoral head. During a posterior approach to the hip, releasing which of the following short external rotators too close to the femur places this artery at greatest risk?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Quadratus femoris
Explanation
The main branch of the MCFA runs deep (anterior) to the quadratus femoris. Releasing the quadratus femoris at its femoral insertion without maintaining a cuff of tissue risks transecting this critical vessel.
Question 667
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
To preserve the primary blood supply to the femoral head during a posterior approach to the hip, the surgeon must be careful not to injure the medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA). The main deep branch of the MFCA typically runs between which two muscles?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Quadratus femoris and obturator externus
Explanation
The deep branch of the medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA) provides the predominant blood supply to the adult femoral head. It courses anatomically posterior to the obturator externus and anterior to the quadratus femoris. Leaving the obturator externus intact and carefully managing the quadratus femoris protects this vital vessel.
Question 668
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
Which of the following is an advantage of anterior surgical approach over a posterior approach for direct spinal cord decompression of an anteriorly located extradural tumor?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Ability to achieve direct decompression and reconstruction of the anterior column
Explanation
The primary advantage of an anterior approach for an anteriorly located extradural tumor is the ability to achieve direct decompression of the spinal cord by removing the pathology from the front, and simultaneously reconstructing the anterior column (e.g., with cages and plates). Posterior approaches primarily provide indirect decompression and are better for posterior element tumors or stabilization. While anterior approaches can be very effective, they often carry higher risks (e.g., visceral injury, complex access) and are not necessarily 'easier' or lower risk of neurological injury compared to posterior in all cases. CSF leak risk depends on dural integrity.
Question 669
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
Which surgical technique is most commonly used for repair of a distal biceps tendon rupture?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Single incision anterior approach with suture anchors
Explanation
Both single-incision anterior approach and double-incision approaches are commonly used for distal biceps tendon repair. However, the single-incision anterior approach with cortical button or suture anchors has become increasingly popular due to its excellent cosmetic results and strong fixation. The double-incision approach traditionally used a transosseous tunnel but has fallen out of favor for some surgeons due to concerns about heterotopic ossification and cosmesis. Posterior, medial, or lateral approaches are not suitable for distal biceps repair.
Question 670
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
Which of the following is a common early complication specific to the anterior approach for L5-S1 spondylolisthesis fusion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Retrograde ejaculation in males
Explanation
Retrograde ejaculation is a well-known, albeit rare, complication specific to anterior lumbar approaches, particularly at L5-S1. It results from injury or disruption of the superior hypogastric plexus (autonomic nerves responsible for seminal vesicle and vas deferens contraction) during dissection anterior to the sacrum. Other listed complications are general surgical risks or specific to posterior approaches.
Question 671
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
When performing a 2-incision (modified Boyd-Anderson) approach for a distal biceps tendon rupture repair, which of the following complications occurs at a significantly higher rate compared to the single-incision anterior approach?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Radioulnar synostosis
Explanation
The 2-incision technique for distal biceps repair was developed to avoid the radial/posterior interosseous nerve injuries associated with extensive anterior dissection. However, due to the dissection between the radius and ulna and the creation of a bone tunnel from a separate posterior approach, the rate of heterotopic ossification and resultant radioulnar synostosis is higher than in the single-incision anterior approach. LABCN injury is the most common complication of the single-incision approach.
Question 672
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
The concept of 'stress shielding' in orthopedics primarily refers to:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Transfer of stress from bone to a stiffer implant, leading to bone resorption and decreased density.
Explanation
Stress shielding occurs when a rigid implant (e.g., a stiff plate or femoral stem) carries a disproportionately high amount of the load, thereby shielding the adjacent bone from its normal physiological stresses. According to Wolff's Law, bone adapts to the loads it experiences. When shielded from stress, the bone undergoes resorption and decreases in density, which can lead to implant loosening or periprosthetic fracture. It is a detrimental phenomenon, not a protective one leading to increased density.
Question 673
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
In a viva discussing total hip arthroplasty, the examiner presents a scenario where a patient develops a leg length discrepancy post-operatively. What is the MOST crucial initial step in managing this complaint?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Thoroughly assess the patient's symptoms, functional impact, and measure the discrepancy clinically and radiographically to differentiate true from perceived leg length discrepancy, and determine its magnitude and impact.
Explanation
The MOST crucial initial step in managing post-operative leg length discrepancy (LLD) is a thorough assessment. This involves eliciting the patient's symptoms (pain, gait disturbance, low back pain), determining the functional impact, and objectively measuring the LLD both clinically and radiographically. It's important to distinguish between true LLD and perceived LLD (often due to pelvic obliquity or soft tissue imbalances). Only after a comprehensive assessment can an appropriate management plan (e.g., shoe lift, therapy, or rarely, revision) be formulated. Immediate revision (A) or prescribing orthotics (B) without assessment is premature. Reassurance (E) is dismissive without a proper evaluation.
Question 674
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A 35-year-old highly active man underwent a primary total hip arthroplasty with a ceramic-on-ceramic bearing. Two years later, he complains of a loud squeaking sound emanating from his hip when he walks or bends, though it is painless. Which of the following technical factors is most strongly associated with the development of this specific complication?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Placement of the acetabular component in excessive anteversion and steep inclination leading to edge loading.
Explanation
Squeaking is a known complication of ceramic-on-ceramic bearings. The most common technical cause is malposition of the acetabular component, specifically extreme inclination or excessive anteversion. This malposition causes 'edge loading', where the femoral head articulates directly on the rim of the ceramic liner. This focal stress disrupts the fluid film lubrication, resulting in localized wear, stripe wear, and the characteristic squeaking sound.
Question 675
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
Which of the following surgical steps has been shown in the literature to be the most critical in reducing the risk of dislocation following primary total hip arthroplasty (THA) using a posterior approach?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Meticulous repair of the short external rotators and capsule
Explanation
Meticulous repair of the posterior soft-tissue envelope (capsule and short external rotators) has been consistently shown to significantly reduce dislocation rates following a posterior approach THA, bringing them comparable to anterolateral approaches. While larger heads increase the jump distance, posterior repair remains the critical technical defense against early posterior dislocation.
Question 676
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A 62-year-old woman presents with an audible 'squeaking' sound coming from her total hip arthroplasty during ambulation. Review of the operative report indicates she has a ceramic-on-ceramic bearing. Which of the following component malpositions is most strongly associated with this phenomenon?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Excessive anteversion and increased inclination of the acetabular cup
Explanation
Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic THA is a recognized complication. It is most strongly associated with edge loading of the ceramic bearings. Edge loading typically occurs due to acetabular component malposition, specifically excessive cup inclination (steep cup) and excessive anteversion, or due to impingement leading to microseparation.
Question 677
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A 65-year-old patient who underwent a primary total hip arthroplasty using a ceramic-on-ceramic bearing complains of an audible squeaking sound from the hip when walking. Which of the following biomechanical factors is most directly associated with the development of this complication?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Edge loading due to acetabular component malposition
Explanation
Squeaking is a well-known complication specific to ceramic-on-ceramic THA bearings. It is primarily associated with edge loading, which often results from cup malposition (especially excessive abduction or abnormal version), leading to stripe wear on the ceramic head and loss of fluid film lubrication.
Question 678
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A 65-year-old male presents with groin pain 5 years after a primary total hip arthroplasty using a metal-on-polyethylene bearing with a modular titanium stem and cobalt-chromium head. Abrasive wear at the head-neck junction (trunnionosis) is suspected. Which of the following serum markers is most likely to be elevated?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Cobalt
Explanation
Mechanically assisted crevice corrosion (MACC) at the modular head-neck junction (trunnionosis) typically produces disproportionately elevated serum cobalt levels compared to chromium. This differs from metal-on-metal bearing wear, which typically produces roughly equal elevations.
Question 679
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A 65-year-old woman undergoes a primary total hip arthroplasty. Six weeks postoperatively, she dislocates her hip while tying her shoe in a seated position. Which surgical approach was most likely utilized, and which structure's insufficiency contributes most to this specific instability?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior approach; short external rotators and capsule
Explanation
Dislocation while tying a shoe requires deep flexion, adduction, and internal rotation, which classically provokes posterior dislocation. The posterior approach is associated with this instability due to disruption of the posterior capsule and short external rotators.
Question 680
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A 68-year-old female undergoes a posterior approach total hip arthroplasty. During trialing, the hip dislocates posteriorly when positioned in flexion, adduction, and internal rotation. What is the most appropriate intraoperative adjustment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Increase the anteversion of the acetabular cup
Explanation
Posterior dislocation during flexion, adduction, and internal rotation indicates posterior instability. This is often due to insufficient anteversion of the acetabular cup or femoral stem, making increased cup anteversion a primary corrective measure.
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