This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA). Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 621
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A 65-year-old man undergoes primary total hip arthroplasty using a ceramic-on-ceramic bearing. At 2-year follow-up, he reports an audible squeaking sound from the hip during ambulation. What is the most significant biomechanical risk factor for this phenomenon?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Obesity
Explanation
Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic THA is highly associated with acetabular component malposition, specifically excessive inclination or version. This leads to edge loading, localized stripe wear, and micro-separation.
Question 622
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A 40-year-old male bodybuilder feels a tearing sensation in his anterior elbow while lifting a heavy object. He has an abnormal Hook test. Operative repair is planned via a two-incision technique. Which complication is most uniquely associated with the two-incision technique compared to a single-incision anterior approach?
While the two-incision technique (anterior incision to retrieve the tendon, posterior incision to attach it to the radial tuberosity) decreases the risk of radial nerve/PIN injury compared to the single-incision approach, it historically carries a higher risk of heterotopic ossification and proximal radioulnar synostosis because it involves dissection through the interosseous membrane or exposing the ulna during the posterior approach.
Question 623
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
C orrection of the congenital gibbus in spina bifida must follow which of these surgical principles:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Long instrumentation
Explanation
The leverage provided by long instrumentation prevents loss of correction and junctional deformity.Short instrumentation poses a risk of junctional kyphosis or loss of fixation.Because of the severe angular deformity, fusion in situ without correction will be followed by increasing deformity. Resection of one to three of the vertebrae on the lower limb of the kyphosis is essential to allow safe correction without excessive tension on vessels and viscera.The anterior approach to the gibbus is deep and impractical. This approach does not allow mechanically efficient instrumentation.
Question 624
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
During a primary total hip arthroplasty (THA) using a posterior approach, the surgeon inadvertently places the acetabular component in excessive retroversion. Which of the following complications is this patient at greatest risk for developing postoperatively?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior dislocation
Explanation
Acetabular component version is critical to THA stability. The 'safe zone' described by Lewinnek suggests an optimal anteversion of 15 ± 10 degrees. Excessive retroversion of the acetabular component predisposes the hip to posterior impingement and subsequent posterior dislocation, particularly when the hip is placed in a position of flexion, adduction, and internal rotation. Conversely, excessive anteversion risks anterior dislocation.
Question 625
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A 68-year-old patient undergoes a primary total hip arthroplasty (THA). Over the next 6 months, the patient experiences recurrent anterior hip dislocations. Which of the following combinations of component positioning is the most likely biomechanical cause of these recurrent anterior dislocations?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Excessive acetabular anteversion and excessive femoral anteversion
Explanation
Anterior dislocation in THA is typically the result of excessive combined anteversion (i.e., excessive acetabular anteversion coupled with excessive femoral anteversion). This position causes the femoral head to lever out of the front of the socket during hip extension and external rotation.
Question 626
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
During a primary total hip arthroplasty through a posterior approach, the surgeon successfully increases the femoral offset by 8 mm using an extended offset stem without altering the vertical limb length. Which of the following is the most direct biomechanical consequence of this geometric change?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Increased joint reaction force at the hip
Explanation
Increasing the femoral offset moves the femur laterally away from the pelvis. This has two primary benefits: 1) it increases the moment arm of the abductor musculature, thereby decreasing the required abductor force and consequently decreasing the overall joint reaction force; and 2) it increases the clearance between the greater trochanter and the pelvis, which decreases the risk of bony impingement at extremes of motion, improving stability.
Question 627
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
You are planning a primary total hip arthroplasty on a 45-year-old female with bilateral Crowe IV developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH). To bring the femoral component down to the true acetabulum without causing severe sciatic nerve traction, you perform a transverse subtrochanteric shortening osteotomy. Which of the following femoral stem choices is absolutely critical to maximize the union rate of this osteotomy?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. A fully porous-coated cylindrical diaphyseal-engaging stem
Explanation
When performing a subtrochanteric shortening osteotomy during THA for Crowe IV DDH, the femoral stem acts as an intramedullary splint for the osteotomy. To achieve union, the construct must have absolute rotational stability. A fully porous-coated or fluted, cylindrical diaphyseal-engaging stem that intimately fits the diaphysis below the osteotomy provides the necessary rigid fixation and rotational control. Short or metaphyseal fitting stems will not bridge the osteotomy adequately and result in nonunion.
Question 628
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A 70-year-old female presents with severe lateral hip pain and an unremitting Trendelenburg gait two years after a THA via a Hardinge (direct lateral) approach. MRI demonstrates a massive, complete tear of the gluteus medius and minimus tendons with Goutallier Grade 4 fatty infiltration of the muscle bellies. What is the most reliable reconstructive surgical option to restore active abduction?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Direct primary repair using bone transosseous equivalent suture anchors
Explanation
In the setting of an irreparable abductor avulsion with severe fatty atrophy (Goutallier grade 4), direct repair will uniformly fail due to poor muscle quality and lack of excursion. The Whiteside technique involving a gluteus maximus muscle transfer (anterior third of the gluteus maximus flipped to the greater trochanter) is the reconstructive procedure of choice to restore active abduction. A constrained liner prevents dislocation but does not restore active abduction or treat the Trendelenburg gait.
Question 629
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A 50-year-old female presents with persistent anterior groin pain exacerbated by active straight leg raising six months after an uncemented THA. Radiographs demonstrate well-fixed components with ideal alignment, appropriate version, and no anterior acetabular overhang. An ultrasound-guided injection of local anesthetic into the iliopsoas bursa provides complete, temporary pain relief. If conservative management fails, what is the best initial surgical intervention?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Revision of the acetabular component to increase anteversion
Explanation
The patient has classic symptoms of iliopsoas impingement. Because her components are well-positioned without any significant acetabular overhang, the treatment of choice after failed conservative therapy (NSAIDs, physical therapy, injections) is an iliopsoas tenotomy (release), which can be done arthroscopically or open. Acetabular revision is reserved for cases with severe malpositioning or significant anterior cup overhang (>8-12 mm).
Question 630
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
Ceramic-on-ceramic (CoC) bearings in THA are highly desirable due to extremely low wear rates but are associated with an audible 'squeaking' complication. Which biomechanical factor has been most strongly correlated with the development of squeaking in CoC hips?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. High patient BMI (>35)
Explanation
Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic bearings is primarily caused by disruption of the fluid film lubrication between the head and liner. This is most strongly correlated with edge loading, which occurs when the head articulates against the rim of the ceramic liner. Edge loading is typically the result of acetabular component malpositioning (excessive inclination or incorrect anteversion), leading to 'stripe wear' and the resultant acoustic phenomenon.
Question 631
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A 45-year-old active male underwent a total hip arthroplasty (THA) 3 years ago. He presents to the clinic complaining of a high-pitched squeaking noise coming from his hip during flexion, such as when bending over to tie his shoes. Radiographs show well-fixed components. What is the most likely risk factor or etiology for this clinical presentation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Stripe wear and edge loading in a ceramic-on-ceramic bearing
Explanation
Squeaking is a well-documented phenomenon specific to ceramic-on-ceramic (CoC) bearings in THA, occurring in up to 10% of patients. It is strongly associated with edge loading, micro-separation, and stripe wear. Risk factors include component malposition (such as excessive cup anteversion or vertical cup placement), impingement, and younger, heavier, or more active patients.
Question 632
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A patient with a primary THA complains of recurrent posterior dislocations. Component analysis via advanced imaging reveals that the acetabular cup is positioned in 20 degrees of abduction and 0 degrees of anteversion. What is the most appropriate primary surgical strategy to address this instability?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Revise the acetabular cup to increase abduction
Explanation
The "safe zone" for acetabular cup placement, historically described by Lewinnek, is 40±10 degrees of abduction and 15±10 degrees of anteversion. A cup with 0 degrees of anteversion is retroverted (or neutral), which highly predisposes the patient to posterior dislocation. The most appropriate surgical strategy is revising the cup to increase anteversion to within the safe zone.
Question 633
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
During a primary THA, the surgeon considers options for the modular femoral head. Increasing the femoral neck length without changing the neck-shaft angle of the stem will have which of the following biomechanical effects?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Decreases femoral offset and decreases leg length.
Explanation
The femoral neck acts as a vector extending superomedially from the shaft. Because the neck sits at an angle (the neck-shaft angle, typically ~135 degrees), adding length along this axis moves the center of rotation both proximally (increasing vertical leg length) and medially relative to the femur, which functionally pushes the femur laterally relative to the pelvis (increasing horizontal femoral offset). Therefore, increasing neck length increases both leg length and femoral offset.
Question 634
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A 72-year-old female presents to the emergency room with a posterior dislocation of her THA. The index surgery was performed 4 weeks ago via a posterior approach. She states she dropped a pen and bent over deeply at the waist to pick it up. A successful closed reduction is performed in the ER. Post-reduction radiographs confirm the cup is positioned at 40 degrees of inclination and 20 degrees of anteversion. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Immediate revision to a constrained acetabular liner.
Explanation
This is a first-time dislocation occurring early in the postoperative period (< 6 weeks) resulting from an obvious provocative maneuver (extreme flexion/internal rotation). The acetabular component is well-positioned in the safe zone (40° inclination, 20° anteversion). The standard of care for an initial, early, position-provoked dislocation with well-oriented components is conservative management. This typically includes closed reduction, application of a hip abduction brace for 6-12 weeks to allow capsular healing, and strict adherence to hip precautions.
Question 635
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
Intraoperatively during a primary THA using trial components, the surgeon performs a 'shuck' test (longitudinal traction) and notes excessive joint laxity of 8 mm. However, when the legs are placed parallel in full extension, clinical assessment clearly indicates that the operative leg is already 1.5 cm longer than the contralateral leg. The components are stable in extreme range of motion without impingement. To restore soft tissue tension without further exacerbating the leg length discrepancy, what is the optimal surgical adjustment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Increase the neck length of the femoral head trial.
Explanation
The patient has insufficient soft tissue tension (laxity/positive shuck) but is already significantly lengthened relative to the contralateral side. Increasing the neck length will appropriately tighten the joint but will unacceptably increase the leg length further. The solution to tighten the abductor mechanism and joint capsule without adding vertical length is to increase the horizontal offset. This can be achieved by using a high-offset femoral stem or lateralized acetabular liner.
Question 636
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A 54-year-old male with end-stage hip osteoarthritis has a concomitant 2.5 cm leg length discrepancy (the operative leg is shorter). During THA, the surgeon lengthens the leg by 2.5 cm to restore symmetry. Postoperatively, the patient develops a foot drop and parasthesias in the lateral lower leg. Electromyography (EMG) performed 4 weeks later would most likely demonstrate which finding if a stretch injury to the sciatic nerve occurred?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Fibrillation potentials strictly in the medial head of the gastrocnemius.
Explanation
A stretch injury from excessive lengthening (>2-3 cm) most commonly affects the common peroneal division of the sciatic nerve. The short head of the biceps femoris is the only muscle innervated by the common peroneal division of the sciatic nerve above the knee. The tibialis anterior is innervated by the deep peroneal nerve (a continuation of the common peroneal nerve). Fibrillation and denervation potentials in both these muscles confirm a high common peroneal nerve lesion at the level of the sciatic nerve (the hip), distinguishing it from a local peroneal palsy at the fibular head (which would spare the short head of the biceps femoris).
Question 637
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
In total hip arthroplasty (THA), utilizing the posterior approach carries a higher risk of postoperative dislocation compared to the direct anterior approach. Which of the following anatomical structures is primarily repaired to mitigate this risk?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Gluteus medius and minimus
Explanation
The posterior approach to the hip involves releasing the short external rotators (piriformis, superior gemellus, obturator internus, inferior gemellus) and the posterior capsule. An enhanced posterior soft tissue repair, which involves suturing these structures back to the greater trochanter, significantly reduces the postoperative dislocation rate.
Question 638
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
During a posterior approach to the hip (Kocher-Langenbeck), the medial circumflex femoral artery (MCFA) is at risk. Prior to branching to supply the femoral head, the main vessel classically passes between which two muscles posteriorly?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Piriformis and Superior gemellus
Explanation
The main branch of the Medial Circumflex Femoral Artery (MCFA) passes posteriorly between the pectineus and iliopsoas, and then emerges in the posterior hip deep to the quadratus femoris. It classically courses between the superior border of the quadratus femoris and the inferior border of the obturator externus before giving off its terminal retinacular branches to the femoral head. Protection of the obturator externus during posterior approaches protects the MCFA.
Question 639
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A surgeon is performing a primary THA using a direct lateral (Hardinge) approach. Which of the following structures is at greatest risk of denervation if the proximal split in the gluteus medius exceeds 5 cm from the greater trochanter?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Superior gluteal nerve
Explanation
The superior gluteal nerve supplies the gluteus medius, minimus, and tensor fasciae latae. It courses approximately 3 to 5 cm proximal to the tip of the greater trochanter. Extending the abductor split beyond 5 cm puts the nerve at high risk, leading to abductor weakness and a postoperative Trendelenburg gait.
Question 640
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A patient complains of a severely elongated leg immediately after a primary THA. Radiographs demonstrate an increased vertical distance from the teardrop to the lesser trochanter compared to the native contralateral side, with symmetric femoral offset. Which specific intraoperative error most likely occurred?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Resecting the femoral neck too far proximally
Explanation
An increased teardrop-to-lesser trochanter distance indicates the femoral stem sits too high relative to the pelvis. If the femoral neck is cut too high (proximally), more calcar is left intact, causing the standard stem to sit proud and directly increasing leg length. A high hip center would generally decrease leg length.
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