This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 2. Trauma. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 12621
Topic: Upper Extremity Trauma
Which physical examination finding is considered the most pathognomonic cutaneous manifestation of dermatomyositis, often preceding the onset of significant muscle weakness?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Gottron papules over the metacarpophalangeal and interphalangeal joints
Explanation
Gottron papules are erythematous to violaceous, scaly papules found symmetrically over the extensor surfaces of the MCP and IP joints. They are considered pathognomonic for dermatomyositis. A heliotrope rash (periorbital) is also highly characteristic.
Question 12622
Topic: 2. Trauma
A 55-year-old male is undergoing open reduction and internal fixation of a displaced lateral malleolus fracture via an anterolateral approach. The surgeon makes a longitudinal incision over the distal fibula. Which of the following neurological structures is at greatest risk during the superficial dissection and must be meticulously identified and retracted?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Superficial peroneal nerve
Explanation
Correct Answer: D. Superficial peroneal nerveDuring an anterolateral approach to the distal fibula for lateral malleolus fixation, the superficial peroneal nerve is at significant risk. This nerve pierces the deep fascia of the lateral compartment in the distal third of the leg to become superficial, dividing into the medial and intermediate dorsal cutaneous nerves. It typically crosses the surgical field anteriorly over the distal fibula. Meticulous dissection and retraction (usually anteriorly) are required to prevent iatrogenic injury, which can lead to painful neuromas or sensory deficits over the dorsum of the foot.
Question 12623
Topic: 2. Trauma
A 22-year-old soccer player sustains a severe inversion injury to the ankle, complicated by a compartment syndrome of the leg requiring fasciotomy. Postoperatively, the patient exhibits a foot drop and sensory loss over the dorsal aspect of the first web space. Which of the following nerves was most likely compromised?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Deep peroneal nerve
Explanation
Correct Answer: C. Deep peroneal nerveThe deep peroneal nerve is a branch of the common peroneal nerve. It courses through the anterior compartment of the leg, providing motor innervation to the tibialis anterior, extensor hallucis longus, extensor digitorum longus, and peroneus tertius (responsible for ankle dorsiflexion and toe extension). It then continues distally to provide sensory innervation to the dorsal aspect of the first web space. A compartment syndrome of the anterior leg or direct injury to this nerve results in a foot drop (loss of dorsiflexion) and the characteristic sensory deficit in the first web space.
Question 12624
Topic: 2. Trauma
A surgeon is performing an anterolateral approach to the distal fibula for fixation of a lateral malleolus fracture. The incision extends from 6 cm proximal to the tip of the lateral malleolus towards the calcaneocuboid joint. Which of the following neural structures is at greatest risk during the superficial dissection and must be carefully identified and protected?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Superficial peroneal nerve
Explanation
Correct Answer: Superficial peroneal nerveDuring the anterolateral approach to the distal fibula, the superficial peroneal nerve is at significant risk. The text notes that this nerve typically crosses the surgical field anteriorly within the subcutaneous tissue or superficial fascia. It must be meticulously identified and protected during the superficial dissection to prevent iatrogenic injury, which could result in painful neuromas or sensory deficits over the dorsum of the foot.
Question 12625
Topic: 2. Trauma
A 30-year-old male sustains a severe crush injury to the lower leg, resulting in anterior compartment syndrome. Following emergent fasciotomy, he is noted to have a sensory deficit. Based on the anatomical distribution of the nerve traversing the anterior compartment, where would the patient most likely experience decreased sensation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The first dorsal web space
Explanation
Correct Answer: The first dorsal web spaceThe common peroneal nerve bifurcates into the superficial and deep peroneal nerves. The deep peroneal nerve travels through the anterior compartment of the leg, providing motor innervation to the anterior compartment muscles (tibialis anterior, extensor hallucis longus, extensor digitorum longus). Its sensory distribution is highly specific, providing sensation exclusively to the first dorsal web space of the foot. The superficial peroneal nerve, in contrast, supplies sensation to the majority of the dorsum of the foot.
Question 12626
Topic: 2. Trauma
A 35-year-old female is undergoing open reduction and internal fixation of a displaced lateral malleolus fracture. The surgeon utilizes a standard anterolateral approach to the distal fibula. During the superficial dissection, which of the following neurological structures is at greatest risk and must be meticulously identified and protected as it crosses the surgical field anteriorly?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Superficial peroneal nerve
Explanation
Correct Answer: C (Superficial peroneal nerve)During the anterolateral approach to the lateral malleolus, the superficial peroneal nerve is at significant risk. It typically courses within the subcutaneous tissue or superficial fascia and crosses the surgical field anterior to the fibula. Meticulous dissection is required to identify and retract this nerve to prevent iatrogenic injury, which can lead to painful neuromas or sensory deficits over the dorsum of the foot. The deep peroneal nerve is located deeper within the anterior compartment, while the sural nerve is located posterolaterally.
Question 12627
Topic: 2. Trauma
A hospital administrator is reviewing resource allocation for the orthopedic trauma service and notes a high volume of ankle fractures. Based on established epidemiological data, the administrator should anticipate the highest incidence of these injuries to occur in which of the following demographic distributions?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. A bimodal distribution peaking in young males and older females
Explanation
Correct Answer: C (A bimodal distribution peaking in young males and older females)Ankle fractures are among the most prevalent lower extremity injuries, with an incidence estimated at 187 per 100,000 person-years. Epidemiologically, they demonstrate a classic bimodal distribution. The first peak occurs in young males, typically secondary to high-energy trauma or sports-related injuries. The second peak occurs in older females, largely due to low-energy falls associated with osteopenia or osteoporosis.Options A, B, D, and Eincorrectly describe the well-documented epidemiological distribution of ankle fractures.
Question 12628
Topic: 2. Trauma
A 19-year-old basketball player sustains a fracture of the proximal fifth metatarsal. Radiographs show a transverse fracture line located 2 cm distal to the tuberosity, extending into the fourth-fifth intermetatarsal articulation. This specific fracture pattern is at high risk for nonunion due to a vascular watershed area located between which two blood supplies?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The metaphyseal arteries and the diaphyseal nutrient artery
Explanation
A Jones fracture occurs at the metaphyseal-diaphyseal junction of the fifth metatarsal. This region is a vascular watershed zone situated between the proximal metaphyseal blood supply and the distal intramedullary diaphyseal nutrient artery.
Question 12629
Topic: 2. Trauma
A 32-year-old skier sustains an acute twisting injury to his ankle. Radiographs reveal a small cortical avulsion fracture at the posterolateral margin of the distal fibula. This pathognomonic "fleck sign" is most highly associated with which of the following injuries?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Superior peroneal retinaculum avulsion with peroneal tendon subluxation
Explanation
The "fleck sign" on an AP or mortise ankle radiograph represents an osseous avulsion of the superior peroneal retinaculum (SPR) from the lateral malleolus. This injury mechanism is strongly associated with acute peroneal tendon subluxation or dislocation.
Question 12630
Topic: 2. Trauma
A 28-year-old male sustains a severe crush injury to his right foot and develops worsening, intractable pain out of proportion to the injury. The surgeon diagnoses compartment syndrome of the foot and prepares for emergent fasciotomies. To ensure complete decompression, how many distinct anatomical fascial compartments must be recognized and released?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Nine
Explanation
There are nine distinct fascial compartments in the foot: medial, lateral, superficial, calcaneal, four interosseous compartments, and the adductor compartment. Complete decompression typically requires a dual dorsal approach and occasionally a medial approach.
Question 12631
Topic: 2. Trauma
A 3-year-old boy sustains an isolated, closed, diaphyseal spiral fracture of the right femur after a fall from a playground structure. Radiographs show 1.5 cm of shortening. What is the most appropriate definitive treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Early spica casting
Explanation
Correct Answer: Early spica castingAccording to AAOS clinical practice guidelines, early spica casting is the treatment of choice for children aged 6 months to 5 years with diaphyseal femur fractures and less than 2-3 cm of shortening. A Pavlik harness is indicated for infants under 6 months. Flexible intramedullary nailing is typically indicated for children aged 5 to 11 years.
Question 12632
Topic: 2. Trauma
A 7-year-old boy weighing 25 kg sustains a closed, isolated transverse midshaft femur fracture. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment modality associated with the best clinical outcomes for this patient?
For children aged 5 to 11 years (or weight <50 kg), flexible intramedullary nailing is the standard of care for diaphyseal femur fractures. Rigid nailing is contraindicated due to the risk of avascular necrosis of the femoral head.
Question 12633
Topic: 2. Trauma
A 9-year-old boy presents with mild, vague shoulder pain. A radiograph of the proximal humerus reveals a centrally located, completely radiolucent metaphyseal lesion with a "fallen leaf" sign. The cortices are thinned but intact. What is the most appropriate initial management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Observation
Explanation
The "fallen leaf" sign is pathognomonic for a unicameral bone cyst (UBC). For an asymptomatic or mildly symptomatic UBC in the upper extremity without an impending fracture risk, observation is the most appropriate initial step.
Question 12634
Topic: 2. Trauma
A 35-year-old man presents with progressive intrinsic hand weakness, clawing of the small and ring fingers, and numbness on the ulnar aspect of his hand. He reports a history of a childhood elbow fracture treated non-operatively. Physical examination reveals a profound cubitus valgus deformity. Which of the following pediatric fractures did he most likely sustain?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lateral condyle humerus fracture
Explanation
Nonunion of a pediatric lateral condyle humerus fracture frequently leads to a progressive cubitus valgus deformity over many years. This late valgus deformity stretches the ulnar nerve, predictably causing a tardy ulnar nerve palsy in adulthood.
Question 12635
Topic: 2. Trauma
An 8-year-old boy presents with acute arm pain after throwing a baseball. Radiographs demonstrate a centrally located, completely lytic lesion in the proximal humeral metaphysis with a subtle "fallen leaf" sign and a pathologic fracture. What is the most appropriate initial management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Sling immobilization to allow the fracture to heal
Explanation
The patient has a unicameral bone cyst (UBC) that has sustained a pathologic fracture. The best initial management is conservative treatment (sling immobilization) to allow the fracture to heal. Up to 15% of UBCs may resolve spontaneously after a fracture.
Question 12636
Topic: 2. Trauma
A 30-year-old mechanic sustains a closed fracture of the proximal phalanx of the index finger after a minor trauma. Radiographs reveal a central, lytic lesion with thin cortices and a non-displaced pathologic fracture.
What is the recommended treatment plan?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Immobilization until fracture healing, followed by curettage and bone grafting
Explanation
Enchondromas of the hand commonly present with pathologic fractures. The standard of care is to allow the fracture to heal with immobilization, followed by definitive curettage and bone grafting.
Question 12637
Topic: 2. Trauma
A 30-year-old patient presents with acute finger pain after minor trauma. Imaging shows a pathologic fracture through a central, lytic lesion with faint calcification.
What is the most appropriate initial management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Immobilization until fracture healing, followed by definitive curettage and grafting
Explanation
When a patient presents with a pathologic fracture through an enchondroma in the hand, the initial treatment is non-operative immobilization to allow the fracture to heal. Once healed, intralesional curettage and bone grafting can be safely performed.
Question 12638
Topic: 2. Trauma
A 22-year-old man presents with acute pain and swelling in his index finger after a minor fall. Radiographs demonstrate a pathologic fracture through a central, lytic, expansile lesion with stippled calcification in the proximal phalanx.
What is the recommended management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Immobilization to allow fracture healing, followed by intralesional curettage and grafting
Explanation
Enchondroma is the most common primary bone tumor of the hand. When presenting with a pathologic fracture, the standard treatment is to allow the fracture to heal first, followed by definitive curettage and bone grafting to prevent recurrence.
Question 12639
Topic: Upper Extremity Trauma
A 16-year-old boy presents with a painless lump on his proximal humerus. Imaging demonstrates a surface lesion causing saucerization of the underlying cortex with a sclerotic margin and cartilaginous matrix.
What is the most appropriate management for a growing, symptomatic lesion of this type?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Marginal excision including the underlying sclerotic cortex
Explanation
The image and clinical description are classic for a periosteal chondroma. Symptomatic or growing lesions are best treated with marginal excision that includes the underlying sclerotic cortex to minimize recurrence risk.
Question 12640
Topic: 2. Trauma
A 35-year-old man sustains a closed, minimally displaced fracture through a lytic lesion in the proximal phalanx of his ring finger. Radiographs show a well-circumscribed, expansile lucency with stippled calcifications.
What is the most appropriate initial management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Immobilization to allow fracture healing followed by curettage and bone grafting
Explanation
The clinical scenario and image represent a pathologic fracture through an enchondroma. The standard of care is to allow the fracture to heal with immobilization, followed by intralesional curettage and bone grafting.
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