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Question 12621

Topic: Upper Extremity Trauma

Which physical examination finding is considered the most pathognomonic cutaneous manifestation of dermatomyositis, often preceding the onset of significant muscle weakness?

. Erythema marginatum on the trunk
. Gottron papules over the metacarpophalangeal and interphalangeal joints
. Psoriatic plaques on the extensor surfaces of the elbows
. Malar rash sparing the nasolabial folds
. Subcutaneous nodules over the olecranon process

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Gottron papules over the metacarpophalangeal and interphalangeal joints


Explanation

Gottron papules are erythematous to violaceous, scaly papules found symmetrically over the extensor surfaces of the MCP and IP joints. They are considered pathognomonic for dermatomyositis. A heliotrope rash (periorbital) is also highly characteristic.

Question 12622

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 55-year-old male is undergoing open reduction and internal fixation of a displaced lateral malleolus fracture via an anterolateral approach. The surgeon makes a longitudinal incision over the distal fibula. Which of the following neurological structures is at greatest risk during the superficial dissection and must be meticulously identified and retracted?

. Deep peroneal nerve
. Sural nerve
. Saphenous nerve
. Superficial peroneal nerve
. Tibial nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Superficial peroneal nerve


Explanation

Correct Answer: D. Superficial peroneal nerveDuring an anterolateral approach to the distal fibula for lateral malleolus fixation, the superficial peroneal nerve is at significant risk. This nerve pierces the deep fascia of the lateral compartment in the distal third of the leg to become superficial, dividing into the medial and intermediate dorsal cutaneous nerves. It typically crosses the surgical field anteriorly over the distal fibula. Meticulous dissection and retraction (usually anteriorly) are required to prevent iatrogenic injury, which can lead to painful neuromas or sensory deficits over the dorsum of the foot.

Question 12623

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 22-year-old soccer player sustains a severe inversion injury to the ankle, complicated by a compartment syndrome of the leg requiring fasciotomy. Postoperatively, the patient exhibits a foot drop and sensory loss over the dorsal aspect of the first web space. Which of the following nerves was most likely compromised?

. Superficial peroneal nerve
. Sural nerve
. Deep peroneal nerve
. Medial plantar nerve
. Lateral plantar nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Deep peroneal nerve


Explanation

Correct Answer: C. Deep peroneal nerveThe deep peroneal nerve is a branch of the common peroneal nerve. It courses through the anterior compartment of the leg, providing motor innervation to the tibialis anterior, extensor hallucis longus, extensor digitorum longus, and peroneus tertius (responsible for ankle dorsiflexion and toe extension). It then continues distally to provide sensory innervation to the dorsal aspect of the first web space. A compartment syndrome of the anterior leg or direct injury to this nerve results in a foot drop (loss of dorsiflexion) and the characteristic sensory deficit in the first web space.

Question 12624

Topic: 2. Trauma

A surgeon is performing an anterolateral approach to the distal fibula for fixation of a lateral malleolus fracture. The incision extends from 6 cm proximal to the tip of the lateral malleolus towards the calcaneocuboid joint. Which of the following neural structures is at greatest risk during the superficial dissection and must be carefully identified and protected?

. Sural nerve
. Deep peroneal nerve
. Superficial peroneal nerve
. Saphenous nerve
. Lateral plantar nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Superficial peroneal nerve


Explanation

Correct Answer: Superficial peroneal nerveDuring the anterolateral approach to the distal fibula, the superficial peroneal nerve is at significant risk. The text notes that this nerve typically crosses the surgical field anteriorly within the subcutaneous tissue or superficial fascia. It must be meticulously identified and protected during the superficial dissection to prevent iatrogenic injury, which could result in painful neuromas or sensory deficits over the dorsum of the foot.

Question 12625

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 30-year-old male sustains a severe crush injury to the lower leg, resulting in anterior compartment syndrome. Following emergent fasciotomy, he is noted to have a sensory deficit. Based on the anatomical distribution of the nerve traversing the anterior compartment, where would the patient most likely experience decreased sensation?

. The plantar aspect of the heel
. The lateral border of the foot
. The dorsum of the foot, excluding the web spaces
. The first dorsal web space
. The medial aspect of the ankle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The first dorsal web space


Explanation

Correct Answer: The first dorsal web spaceThe common peroneal nerve bifurcates into the superficial and deep peroneal nerves. The deep peroneal nerve travels through the anterior compartment of the leg, providing motor innervation to the anterior compartment muscles (tibialis anterior, extensor hallucis longus, extensor digitorum longus). Its sensory distribution is highly specific, providing sensation exclusively to the first dorsal web space of the foot. The superficial peroneal nerve, in contrast, supplies sensation to the majority of the dorsum of the foot.

Question 12626

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 35-year-old female is undergoing open reduction and internal fixation of a displaced lateral malleolus fracture. The surgeon utilizes a standard anterolateral approach to the distal fibula. During the superficial dissection, which of the following neurological structures is at greatest risk and must be meticulously identified and protected as it crosses the surgical field anteriorly?

. Deep peroneal nerve
. Sural nerve
. Superficial peroneal nerve
. Saphenous nerve
. Tibial nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Superficial peroneal nerve


Explanation

Correct Answer: C (Superficial peroneal nerve)During the anterolateral approach to the lateral malleolus, the superficial peroneal nerve is at significant risk. It typically courses within the subcutaneous tissue or superficial fascia and crosses the surgical field anterior to the fibula. Meticulous dissection is required to identify and retract this nerve to prevent iatrogenic injury, which can lead to painful neuromas or sensory deficits over the dorsum of the foot. The deep peroneal nerve is located deeper within the anterior compartment, while the sural nerve is located posterolaterally.

Question 12627

Topic: 2. Trauma

A hospital administrator is reviewing resource allocation for the orthopedic trauma service and notes a high volume of ankle fractures. Based on established epidemiological data, the administrator should anticipate the highest incidence of these injuries to occur in which of the following demographic distributions?

. A unimodal distribution peaking in adolescent females
. A unimodal distribution peaking in elderly males
. A bimodal distribution peaking in young males and older females
. A bimodal distribution peaking in young females and older males
. An equal distribution across all age groups and genders

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A bimodal distribution peaking in young males and older females


Explanation

Correct Answer: C (A bimodal distribution peaking in young males and older females)Ankle fractures are among the most prevalent lower extremity injuries, with an incidence estimated at 187 per 100,000 person-years. Epidemiologically, they demonstrate a classic bimodal distribution. The first peak occurs in young males, typically secondary to high-energy trauma or sports-related injuries. The second peak occurs in older females, largely due to low-energy falls associated with osteopenia or osteoporosis.Options A, B, D, and Eincorrectly describe the well-documented epidemiological distribution of ankle fractures.

Question 12628

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 19-year-old basketball player sustains a fracture of the proximal fifth metatarsal. Radiographs show a transverse fracture line located 2 cm distal to the tuberosity, extending into the fourth-fifth intermetatarsal articulation. This specific fracture pattern is at high risk for nonunion due to a vascular watershed area located between which two blood supplies?

. The medial plantar artery and the lateral plantar artery
. The metaphyseal arteries and the diaphyseal nutrient artery
. The dorsalis pedis artery and the peroneal artery
. The sural artery and the lateral tarsal artery
. The perforating peroneal artery and the anterior tibial artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The metaphyseal arteries and the diaphyseal nutrient artery


Explanation

A Jones fracture occurs at the metaphyseal-diaphyseal junction of the fifth metatarsal. This region is a vascular watershed zone situated between the proximal metaphyseal blood supply and the distal intramedullary diaphyseal nutrient artery.

Question 12629

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 32-year-old skier sustains an acute twisting injury to his ankle. Radiographs reveal a small cortical avulsion fracture at the posterolateral margin of the distal fibula. This pathognomonic "fleck sign" is most highly associated with which of the following injuries?

. Anterior talofibular ligament complete rupture
. Calcaneofibular ligament avulsion
. Superior peroneal retinaculum avulsion with peroneal tendon subluxation
. Inferior extensor retinaculum tear
. Syndesmotic rupture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Superior peroneal retinaculum avulsion with peroneal tendon subluxation


Explanation

The "fleck sign" on an AP or mortise ankle radiograph represents an osseous avulsion of the superior peroneal retinaculum (SPR) from the lateral malleolus. This injury mechanism is strongly associated with acute peroneal tendon subluxation or dislocation.

Question 12630

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 28-year-old male sustains a severe crush injury to his right foot and develops worsening, intractable pain out of proportion to the injury. The surgeon diagnoses compartment syndrome of the foot and prepares for emergent fasciotomies. To ensure complete decompression, how many distinct anatomical fascial compartments must be recognized and released?

. Four
. Five
. Seven
. Nine
. Eleven

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Nine


Explanation

There are nine distinct fascial compartments in the foot: medial, lateral, superficial, calcaneal, four interosseous compartments, and the adductor compartment. Complete decompression typically requires a dual dorsal approach and occasionally a medial approach.

Question 12631

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 3-year-old boy sustains an isolated, closed, diaphyseal spiral fracture of the right femur after a fall from a playground structure. Radiographs show 1.5 cm of shortening. What is the most appropriate definitive treatment?

. Pavlik harness
. Early spica casting
. Flexible intramedullary nailing
. Rigid antegrade intramedullary nailing
. Submuscular plating

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Early spica casting


Explanation

Correct Answer: Early spica castingAccording to AAOS clinical practice guidelines, early spica casting is the treatment of choice for children aged 6 months to 5 years with diaphyseal femur fractures and less than 2-3 cm of shortening. A Pavlik harness is indicated for infants under 6 months. Flexible intramedullary nailing is typically indicated for children aged 5 to 11 years.

Question 12632

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 7-year-old boy weighing 25 kg sustains a closed, isolated transverse midshaft femur fracture. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment modality associated with the best clinical outcomes for this patient?

. Immediate hip spica casting
. Rigid locked intramedullary nailing via piriformis fossa
. Flexible titanium elastic intramedullary nailing
. External fixation
. Open reduction and internal fixation with a compression plate

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Flexible titanium elastic intramedullary nailing


Explanation

For children aged 5 to 11 years (or weight <50 kg), flexible intramedullary nailing is the standard of care for diaphyseal femur fractures. Rigid nailing is contraindicated due to the risk of avascular necrosis of the femoral head.

Question 12633

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 9-year-old boy presents with mild, vague shoulder pain. A radiograph of the proximal humerus reveals a centrally located, completely radiolucent metaphyseal lesion with a "fallen leaf" sign. The cortices are thinned but intact. What is the most appropriate initial management?

. En bloc resection and allograft reconstruction
. Curettage and bone grafting
. Observation
. Intralesional corticosteroid injection
. Prophylactic flexible intramedullary nailing

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Observation


Explanation

The "fallen leaf" sign is pathognomonic for a unicameral bone cyst (UBC). For an asymptomatic or mildly symptomatic UBC in the upper extremity without an impending fracture risk, observation is the most appropriate initial step.

Question 12634

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 35-year-old man presents with progressive intrinsic hand weakness, clawing of the small and ring fingers, and numbness on the ulnar aspect of his hand. He reports a history of a childhood elbow fracture treated non-operatively. Physical examination reveals a profound cubitus valgus deformity. Which of the following pediatric fractures did he most likely sustain?

. Supracondylar humerus fracture
. Lateral condyle humerus fracture
. Medial epicondyle avulsion fracture
. Radial neck fracture
. Olecranon fracture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral condyle humerus fracture


Explanation

Nonunion of a pediatric lateral condyle humerus fracture frequently leads to a progressive cubitus valgus deformity over many years. This late valgus deformity stretches the ulnar nerve, predictably causing a tardy ulnar nerve palsy in adulthood.

Question 12635

Topic: 2. Trauma

An 8-year-old boy presents with acute arm pain after throwing a baseball. Radiographs demonstrate a centrally located, completely lytic lesion in the proximal humeral metaphysis with a subtle "fallen leaf" sign and a pathologic fracture. What is the most appropriate initial management?

. Immediate curettage and bone grafting
. En bloc resection and endoprosthetic reconstruction
. Sling immobilization to allow the fracture to heal
. Intralesional corticosteroid injection immediately
. Radiation therapy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sling immobilization to allow the fracture to heal


Explanation

The patient has a unicameral bone cyst (UBC) that has sustained a pathologic fracture. The best initial management is conservative treatment (sling immobilization) to allow the fracture to heal. Up to 15% of UBCs may resolve spontaneously after a fracture.

Question 12636

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 30-year-old mechanic sustains a closed fracture of the proximal phalanx of the index finger after a minor trauma. Radiographs reveal a central, lytic lesion with thin cortices and a non-displaced pathologic fracture.

What is the recommended treatment plan?

. Immediate wide resection and allograft reconstruction
. Immediate curettage and bone grafting with internal fixation
. Immobilization until fracture healing, followed by curettage and bone grafting
. Amputation of the digit
. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by curettage

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Immobilization until fracture healing, followed by curettage and bone grafting


Explanation

Enchondromas of the hand commonly present with pathologic fractures. The standard of care is to allow the fracture to heal with immobilization, followed by definitive curettage and bone grafting.

Question 12637

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 30-year-old patient presents with acute finger pain after minor trauma. Imaging shows a pathologic fracture through a central, lytic lesion with faint calcification.

What is the most appropriate initial management?

. Immediate curettage and bone grafting
. Immobilization until fracture healing, followed by definitive curettage and grafting
. Ray amputation
. Wide resection and structural allograft
. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Immobilization until fracture healing, followed by definitive curettage and grafting


Explanation

When a patient presents with a pathologic fracture through an enchondroma in the hand, the initial treatment is non-operative immobilization to allow the fracture to heal. Once healed, intralesional curettage and bone grafting can be safely performed.

Question 12638

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 22-year-old man presents with acute pain and swelling in his index finger after a minor fall. Radiographs demonstrate a pathologic fracture through a central, lytic, expansile lesion with stippled calcification in the proximal phalanx.

What is the recommended management?

. Immediate ray amputation
. Immediate intralesional curettage, bone grafting, and internal fixation
. Immobilization to allow fracture healing, followed by intralesional curettage and grafting
. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by wide local excision
. Intravenous antibiotics and irrigation and debridement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Immobilization to allow fracture healing, followed by intralesional curettage and grafting


Explanation

Enchondroma is the most common primary bone tumor of the hand. When presenting with a pathologic fracture, the standard treatment is to allow the fracture to heal first, followed by definitive curettage and bone grafting to prevent recurrence.

Question 12639

Topic: Upper Extremity Trauma

A 16-year-old boy presents with a painless lump on his proximal humerus. Imaging demonstrates a surface lesion causing saucerization of the underlying cortex with a sclerotic margin and cartilaginous matrix.

What is the most appropriate management for a growing, symptomatic lesion of this type?

. Observation
. Intralesional curettage
. Marginal excision including the underlying sclerotic cortex
. Wide en bloc resection
. Radiation therapy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Marginal excision including the underlying sclerotic cortex


Explanation

The image and clinical description are classic for a periosteal chondroma. Symptomatic or growing lesions are best treated with marginal excision that includes the underlying sclerotic cortex to minimize recurrence risk.

Question 12640

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 35-year-old man sustains a closed, minimally displaced fracture through a lytic lesion in the proximal phalanx of his ring finger. Radiographs show a well-circumscribed, expansile lucency with stippled calcifications.

What is the most appropriate initial management?

. Immediate curettage and bone grafting
. Ray amputation
. Immobilization to allow fracture healing followed by curettage and bone grafting
. Intravenous chemotherapy
. Wide local excision with an allograft reconstruction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Immobilization to allow fracture healing followed by curettage and bone grafting


Explanation

The clinical scenario and image represent a pathologic fracture through an enchondroma. The standard of care is to allow the fracture to heal with immobilization, followed by intralesional curettage and bone grafting.