This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 2. Trauma. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 11301
Topic: 2. Trauma
A 4-year-old boy sustains an isolated, closed, length-stable spiral fracture of the femoral shaft. Which of the following is the optimal position for hip and knee immobilization in a spica cast?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Hip extension and knee extension
Explanation
For pediatric femoral shaft fractures in young children, a spica cast is often applied with the hips and knees flexed to 90 degrees. This 90-90 position relaxes the deforming muscles, maintains fracture length, and prevents the child from pistoning within the cast.
Question 11302
Topic: 2. Trauma
A 45-year-old male sustains an APC-III pelvic ring injury. After pelvic binder application and 2 liters of crystalloid, his systolic BP remains 75 mmHg. The FAST exam is negative. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Preperitoneal pelvic packing
Explanation
In a hemodynamically unstable patient with an unstable pelvic fracture and a negative FAST exam, hemorrhage is likely retroperitoneal. Preperitoneal pelvic packing (or angiography, depending on institutional protocol) is the treatment of choice for mechanical hemostasis.
Question 11303
Topic: 2. Trauma
A 35-year-old male sustains a high-energy varus and axial load injury to his knee, resulting in a medial tibial plateau fracture with coronal extension. Which surgical approach and fixation strategy is most critical to prevent displacement of this fracture pattern?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterolateral approach with a locked plate
Explanation
Medial tibial plateau fractures with a coronal split (posteromedial fragment) are highly unstable. They typically require a posterior or posteromedial approach with an antiglide buttress plate to counteract the deforming shear forces.
Question 11304
Topic: 2. Trauma
A Monteggia fracture-dislocation consists of a fracture of the ulnar diaphysis and dislocation of the radial head. According to the Bado classification, which type is characterized by posterior or posterolateral dislocation of the radial head with an apex-posterior angulated diaphyseal ulnar fracture, and is most commonly seen in adult populations?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Bado Type II
Explanation
The Bado classification categorizes Monteggia fractures based on the direction of radial head dislocation. Type I (anterior dislocation, most common in children), Type II (posterior/posterolateral dislocation, most common in adults), Type III (lateral dislocation), and Type IV (associated with both radius and ulna fractures). Therefore, Type II matches the description.
Question 11305
Topic: 2. Trauma
A 12-year-old gymnast falls during a tumbling routine and sustains an acute right elbow dislocation. In the emergency department, a closed reduction is performed successfully. Post-reduction radiographs reveal a medial epicondyle fracture. Which of the following is considered an absolute indication for open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) of the medial epicondyle?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Displacement of 3 to 5 mm
Explanation
Absolute indications for ORIF of a medial epicondyle fracture include an incarcerated fragment within the elbow joint that cannot be extracted closed, and an open fracture. Relative indications include displacement > 5 mm, ulnar nerve dysfunction, and high-demand athletes requiring valgus stability. Incarceration within the joint is the only absolute indication among the choices.
Question 11306
Topic: Upper Extremity Trauma
A 28-year-old competitive weightlifter feels a sudden 'pop' and sharp pain in his anterior chest wall while performing a heavy bench press. On examination, he has extensive ecchymosis over the anterior axillary fold and weakness in internal rotation and adduction. The vast majority of pectoralis major muscle ruptures occur at which specific anatomical location?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Musculotendinous junction
Explanation
The vast majority of pectoralis major ruptures occur at the tendinous insertion onto the proximal humerus, specifically involving the sternocostal head. This injury typically occurs during eccentric loading (e.g., the descent phase of a bench press). Acute surgical repair yields the best functional outcomes for athletes.
Question 11307
Topic: Upper Extremity Trauma
A 30-year-old cyclist falls directly onto the point of his shoulder. Radiographs demonstrate an acromioclavicular (AC) joint separation where the clavicle is elevated by 150% relative to the acromion. He is diagnosed with a Rockwood Type V injury. Which of the following structures are disrupted in this specific injury grade?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Acromioclavicular (AC) ligaments only
Explanation
Rockwood Type V AC separations involve disruption of both the AC ligaments and the CC ligaments, along with significant stripping and disruption of the deltotrapezial fascia from the distal clavicle. This extreme displacement (>100% to 300% superiorly) requires surgical reconstruction for optimal functional recovery.
Question 11308
Topic: 2. Trauma
A 65-year-old osteoporotic female sustains a proximal humerus fracture.
According to the Hertel criteria, which combination of radiographic findings provides the most accurate and sensitive prediction of subsequent humeral head avascular necrosis (ischemia)?
Hertel et al. (2004) identified specific criteria that strongly predict humeral head ischemia following proximal humerus fractures. The combination most predictive of avascular necrosis (positive predictive value of 97%) consists of: a short calcar segment attached to the articular surface (metaphyseal extension < 8 mm), disruption of the medial hinge (> 2 mm displacement), and an anatomic neck fracture pattern (separation of the articular segment from the tuberosities).
Question 11309
Topic: 2. Trauma
A 32-year-old cyclist falls directly onto his shoulder and sustains a displaced distal clavicle fracture. Radiographs show the fracture line is medial to the coracoclavicular (CC) ligaments. The CC ligaments remain intact and attached to the distal fracture fragment, while the proximal fragment is displaced significantly superiorly by the trapezius. Under the Neer classification, what type of fracture is this, and what is its hallmark characteristic?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Type IIA; mechanically unstable with a high non-union rate
Explanation
This describes a Neer Type IIA distal clavicle fracture. The fracture occurs medial to the coracoclavicular (CC) ligaments. The ligaments remain intact and attached to the distal fragment, pulling it inferiorly, while the proximal fragment is displaced superiorly by the pull of the trapezius and SCM muscles. This significant displacement and mechanical instability lead to a very high rate of non-union (up to 30-40%) if treated non-operatively, making surgery the standard of care for displaced Type II distal clavicle fractures.
Question 11310
Topic: 2. Trauma
A 45-year-old male presents with acute posterior elbow pain and an inability to actively extend his elbow against gravity after decelerating a heavy barbell. A lateral elbow radiograph demonstrates a small osseous avulsion fragment ('fleck sign') located 2 cm proximal to the olecranon fossa. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment consideration to avoid a common postoperative complication?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Immediate excision of the olecranon bursa to prevent infection
Explanation
This patient has an acute triceps tendon rupture, characterized by the 'fleck sign' (avulsion of a piece of the olecranon). Surgical repair is indicated for complete tears to restore active extension power. The triceps tendon should be reattached to its anatomic footprint on the olecranon via transosseous tunnels or suture anchors. A critical technical pearl is to tie the sutures with the elbow in approximately 90 degrees of flexion; tying them in full extension can overtension the repair, resulting in a profound permanent loss of elbow flexion.
Question 11311
Topic: 2. Trauma
A 40-year-old male undergoes operative fixation of a complex, comminuted distal humerus fracture. To effectively prevent the formation of heterotopic ossification, which of the following prophylactic regimens is most appropriate?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Indomethacin 25mg daily for 1 week
Explanation
Single-dose radiation therapy (typically 700 cGy) administered within 48-72 hours post-operatively is highly effective for preventing heterotopic ossification. Alternatively, a 3- to 6-week course of Indomethacin (e.g., 75mg sustained release daily) can be used.
Question 11312
Topic: 2. Trauma
A 38-year-old female sustains a fall on an outstretched hand and presents with elbow pain. A lateral elbow radiograph demonstrates the "double-arc sign." What specific injury pattern does this radiographic finding indicate?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. A terrible triad injury with a displaced radial head fracture
Explanation
The double-arc sign on a lateral elbow radiograph indicates a McKee Type IV coronal shear fracture. The two arcs represent the subchondral bone of the capitellum and the lateral ridge of the trochlea, necessitating operative fixation.
Question 11313
Topic: Upper Extremity Trauma
A 25-year-old cyclist crashes and sustains an acromioclavicular (AC) joint injury. Radiographs show the clavicle is displaced superiorly with a coracoclavicular (CC) distance that is 150% of the contralateral side. According to the Rockwood classification, what type of injury is this?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Type V
Explanation
A Rockwood Type V AC joint separation is defined by >100% (to 300%) superior displacement of the distal clavicle compared to the contralateral side. This involves disruption of the AC and CC ligaments with significant deltotrapezial fascial stripping.
Question 11314
Topic: 2. Trauma
A 35-year-old male sustains a high-energy anterior transolecranon fracture-dislocation. What is the most critical surgical step to restore elbow stability in this specific injury pattern?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Excision of the radial head
Explanation
Transolecranon fracture-dislocations involve the ulna breaking and the forearm displacing anteriorly, often sparing the collateral ligaments. Restoring the exact dimensions of the greater sigmoid notch with a dorsal contour plate is critical to restore joint congruence and stability.
Question 11315
Topic: 2. Trauma
A 10-year-old gymnast falls and sustains a displaced medial epicondyle fracture. Which of the following is an absolute indication for open reduction and internal fixation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Displacement of 5 mm
Explanation
Incarceration of the medial epicondyle fragment within the elbow joint is an absolute indication for surgery. Other relative indications include open fracture, significant displacement (>5-15 mm depending on criteria), or gross valgus instability.
Question 11316
Topic: 2. Trauma
A 45-year-old male is involved in an MVA and sustains a "floating shoulder" (ipsilateral displaced midshaft clavicle fracture and a displaced extra-articular scapular neck fracture). What is a primary radiographic indication for surgical fixation of this injury complex?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Any displacement of the clavicle
Explanation
A floating shoulder may be treated nonoperatively if minimally displaced. Surgical fixation is indicated for significant deformity, generally defined as >1 cm of medial translation or >40 degrees of angular displacement of the glenoid/scapular neck.
Question 11317
Topic: 2. Trauma
A 38-year-old male sustains a fall resulting in elbow trauma. CT imaging reveals an isolated anteromedial facet fracture of the coronoid process. This specific fracture pattern is most strongly associated with which of the following mechanisms and instability patterns?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Terrible triad of the elbow
Explanation
Varus posteromedial rotatory instability (VPMRI) typically involves an anteromedial facet fracture of the coronoid accompanied by disruption of the lateral collateral ligament complex. It results from a varus force applied to the elbow combined with axial loading.
Question 11318
Topic: 2. Trauma
During surgical approach and fixation of a displaced 4-part proximal humerus fracture, preservation of the primary blood supply to the humeral head is critical. Recent anatomical studies indicate that the predominant blood supply to the humeral head is derived from which vessel?
Recent microvascular studies demonstrate that the posterior humeral circumflex artery provides the main blood supply to the humeral head (posterior, superior, and inferior aspects). Historically, the anterior circumflex (arcuate artery) was incorrectly thought to be the primary supply.
Question 11319
Topic: Upper Extremity Trauma
Following operative fixation of a terrible triad elbow injury involving LCL repair, coronoid fixation, and radial head arthroplasty, what is the most appropriate early postoperative rehabilitation protocol to permit motion while minimizing the risk of subluxation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Active extension in supination
Explanation
Early active range of motion is crucial. Performing extension in pronation tightens the medial structures and relies on the intact medial soft tissue envelope to protect the repaired lateral structures, preventing posterolateral subluxation.
Question 11320
Topic: Upper Extremity Trauma
A 25-year-old cyclist falls directly onto his shoulder. Radiographs demonstrate a 150% superior displacement of the clavicle relative to the acromion, consistent with a Rockwood Type V injury. Which ligaments must be surgically reconstructed to properly restore superior-inferior stability?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Acromioclavicular ligaments only
Explanation
Rockwood Type V injuries involve severe disruption of both the AC and coracoclavicular (CC) ligaments with >100% superior displacement. Surgical reconstruction primarily targets the conoid and trapezoid (CC) ligaments to restore vertical stability.
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