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Question 11301

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 4-year-old boy sustains an isolated, closed, length-stable spiral fracture of the femoral shaft. Which of the following is the optimal position for hip and knee immobilization in a spica cast?

. Hip extension and knee extension
. Hip 90 degrees flexion and knee 90 degrees flexion
. Hip 45 degrees flexion and knee 45 degrees flexion
. Hip extension and knee 90 degrees flexion
. Hip 90 degrees flexion and knee extension

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hip extension and knee extension


Explanation

For pediatric femoral shaft fractures in young children, a spica cast is often applied with the hips and knees flexed to 90 degrees. This 90-90 position relaxes the deforming muscles, maintains fracture length, and prevents the child from pistoning within the cast.

Question 11302

Topic: 2. Trauma
A 45-year-old male sustains an APC-III pelvic ring injury. After pelvic binder application and 2 liters of crystalloid, his systolic BP remains 75 mmHg. The FAST exam is negative. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Diagnostic peritoneal lavage
. CT angiography of the abdomen and pelvis
. Preperitoneal pelvic packing
. Exploratory laparotomy
. Application of a REBOA in zone 1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Preperitoneal pelvic packing


Explanation

In a hemodynamically unstable patient with an unstable pelvic fracture and a negative FAST exam, hemorrhage is likely retroperitoneal. Preperitoneal pelvic packing (or angiography, depending on institutional protocol) is the treatment of choice for mechanical hemostasis.

Question 11303

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 35-year-old male sustains a high-energy varus and axial load injury to his knee, resulting in a medial tibial plateau fracture with coronal extension. Which surgical approach and fixation strategy is most critical to prevent displacement of this fracture pattern?

. Anterolateral approach with a locked plate
. Medial submeniscal arthrotomy with lag screws
. Posterior approach with a posteromedial buttress plate
. Anterior approach with dual plating
. Spanning external fixation only

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterolateral approach with a locked plate


Explanation

Medial tibial plateau fractures with a coronal split (posteromedial fragment) are highly unstable. They typically require a posterior or posteromedial approach with an antiglide buttress plate to counteract the deforming shear forces.

Question 11304

Topic: 2. Trauma
A Monteggia fracture-dislocation consists of a fracture of the ulnar diaphysis and dislocation of the radial head. According to the Bado classification, which type is characterized by posterior or posterolateral dislocation of the radial head with an apex-posterior angulated diaphyseal ulnar fracture, and is most commonly seen in adult populations?
. Bado Type I
. Bado Type II
. Bado Type III
. Bado Type IV
. Bado Type V

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Bado Type II


Explanation

The Bado classification categorizes Monteggia fractures based on the direction of radial head dislocation. Type I (anterior dislocation, most common in children), Type II (posterior/posterolateral dislocation, most common in adults), Type III (lateral dislocation), and Type IV (associated with both radius and ulna fractures). Therefore, Type II matches the description.

Question 11305

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 12-year-old gymnast falls during a tumbling routine and sustains an acute right elbow dislocation. In the emergency department, a closed reduction is performed successfully. Post-reduction radiographs reveal a medial epicondyle fracture. Which of the following is considered an absolute indication for open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) of the medial epicondyle?

. Displacement of 3 to 5 mm
. Displacement of > 2 mm in the dominant arm of a throwing athlete
. Incarceration of the epicondylar fragment within the joint
. Subjective ulnar nerve paresthesia
. Concomitant radial neck fracture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Displacement of 3 to 5 mm


Explanation

Absolute indications for ORIF of a medial epicondyle fracture include an incarcerated fragment within the elbow joint that cannot be extracted closed, and an open fracture. Relative indications include displacement > 5 mm, ulnar nerve dysfunction, and high-demand athletes requiring valgus stability. Incarceration within the joint is the only absolute indication among the choices.

Question 11306

Topic: Upper Extremity Trauma

A 28-year-old competitive weightlifter feels a sudden 'pop' and sharp pain in his anterior chest wall while performing a heavy bench press. On examination, he has extensive ecchymosis over the anterior axillary fold and weakness in internal rotation and adduction. The vast majority of pectoralis major muscle ruptures occur at which specific anatomical location?

. Musculotendinous junction
. Sternal origin
. Clavicular origin
. Humeral insertion
. Mid-substance of the muscle belly

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Musculotendinous junction


Explanation

The vast majority of pectoralis major ruptures occur at the tendinous insertion onto the proximal humerus, specifically involving the sternocostal head. This injury typically occurs during eccentric loading (e.g., the descent phase of a bench press). Acute surgical repair yields the best functional outcomes for athletes.

Question 11307

Topic: Upper Extremity Trauma

A 30-year-old cyclist falls directly onto the point of his shoulder. Radiographs demonstrate an acromioclavicular (AC) joint separation where the clavicle is elevated by 150% relative to the acromion. He is diagnosed with a Rockwood Type V injury. Which of the following structures are disrupted in this specific injury grade?

. Acromioclavicular (AC) ligaments only
. Coracoclavicular (CC) ligaments only
. AC ligaments, CC ligaments, and the deltotrapezial fascia
. AC ligaments and coracoacromial (CA) ligament
. CC ligaments and coracoacromial (CA) ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Acromioclavicular (AC) ligaments only


Explanation

Rockwood Type V AC separations involve disruption of both the AC ligaments and the CC ligaments, along with significant stripping and disruption of the deltotrapezial fascia from the distal clavicle. This extreme displacement (>100% to 300% superiorly) requires surgical reconstruction for optimal functional recovery.

Question 11308

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 65-year-old osteoporotic female sustains a proximal humerus fracture.

According to the Hertel criteria, which combination of radiographic findings provides the most accurate and sensitive prediction of subsequent humeral head avascular necrosis (ischemia)?

. Metaphyseal extension < 8 mm, intact medial hinge, anatomic neck fracture pattern
. Metaphyseal extension < 8 mm, disrupted medial hinge, anatomic neck fracture pattern
. Metaphyseal extension > 8 mm, disrupted medial hinge, surgical neck fracture pattern
. Metaphyseal extension > 8 mm, intact medial hinge, surgical neck fracture pattern
. Bicipital groove involvement, disrupted medial hinge, anatomic neck fracture pattern

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Metaphyseal extension < 8 mm, intact medial hinge, anatomic neck fracture pattern


Explanation

Hertel et al. (2004) identified specific criteria that strongly predict humeral head ischemia following proximal humerus fractures. The combination most predictive of avascular necrosis (positive predictive value of 97%) consists of: a short calcar segment attached to the articular surface (metaphyseal extension < 8 mm), disruption of the medial hinge (> 2 mm displacement), and an anatomic neck fracture pattern (separation of the articular segment from the tuberosities).

Question 11309

Topic: 2. Trauma
A 32-year-old cyclist falls directly onto his shoulder and sustains a displaced distal clavicle fracture. Radiographs show the fracture line is medial to the coracoclavicular (CC) ligaments. The CC ligaments remain intact and attached to the distal fracture fragment, while the proximal fragment is displaced significantly superiorly by the trapezius. Under the Neer classification, what type of fracture is this, and what is its hallmark characteristic?
. Type I; structurally stable with high union rate
. Type IIA; mechanically unstable with a high non-union rate
. Type IIB; torn conoid ligament with intact trapezoid ligament
. Type III; intra-articular extension into the AC joint
. Type IV; physeal injury in a child

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Type IIA; mechanically unstable with a high non-union rate


Explanation

This describes a Neer Type IIA distal clavicle fracture. The fracture occurs medial to the coracoclavicular (CC) ligaments. The ligaments remain intact and attached to the distal fragment, pulling it inferiorly, while the proximal fragment is displaced superiorly by the pull of the trapezius and SCM muscles. This significant displacement and mechanical instability lead to a very high rate of non-union (up to 30-40%) if treated non-operatively, making surgery the standard of care for displaced Type II distal clavicle fractures.

Question 11310

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 45-year-old male presents with acute posterior elbow pain and an inability to actively extend his elbow against gravity after decelerating a heavy barbell. A lateral elbow radiograph demonstrates a small osseous avulsion fragment ('fleck sign') located 2 cm proximal to the olecranon fossa. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment consideration to avoid a common postoperative complication?

. Immediate excision of the olecranon bursa to prevent infection
. Repair of the triceps tendon to the olecranon footprint using transosseous tunnels while securing the elbow in 90 degrees of flexion to prevent overtensioning
. Casting the elbow in full extension for 8 weeks without surgery
. Repair using a single cortical button through the radial tuberosity
. Ulnar nerve transposition is mandatory during all triceps repairs

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Immediate excision of the olecranon bursa to prevent infection


Explanation

This patient has an acute triceps tendon rupture, characterized by the 'fleck sign' (avulsion of a piece of the olecranon). Surgical repair is indicated for complete tears to restore active extension power. The triceps tendon should be reattached to its anatomic footprint on the olecranon via transosseous tunnels or suture anchors. A critical technical pearl is to tie the sutures with the elbow in approximately 90 degrees of flexion; tying them in full extension can overtension the repair, resulting in a profound permanent loss of elbow flexion.

Question 11311

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 40-year-old male undergoes operative fixation of a complex, comminuted distal humerus fracture. To effectively prevent the formation of heterotopic ossification, which of the following prophylactic regimens is most appropriate?

. Indomethacin 25mg daily for 1 week
. Single-dose radiation therapy (700 cGy) within 72 hours
. Colchicine for 6 weeks
. Methotrexate weekly for 3 weeks
. Oral corticosteroids for 2 weeks

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Indomethacin 25mg daily for 1 week


Explanation

Single-dose radiation therapy (typically 700 cGy) administered within 48-72 hours post-operatively is highly effective for preventing heterotopic ossification. Alternatively, a 3- to 6-week course of Indomethacin (e.g., 75mg sustained release daily) can be used.

Question 11312

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 38-year-old female sustains a fall on an outstretched hand and presents with elbow pain. A lateral elbow radiograph demonstrates the "double-arc sign." What specific injury pattern does this radiographic finding indicate?

. A terrible triad injury with a displaced radial head fracture
. An isolated Hahn-Steinthal type capitellum fracture
. A posterior Monteggia fracture-dislocation
. A coronal shear fracture involving both the capitellum and lateral trochlear ridge
. A transolecranon fracture-dislocation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A terrible triad injury with a displaced radial head fracture


Explanation

The double-arc sign on a lateral elbow radiograph indicates a McKee Type IV coronal shear fracture. The two arcs represent the subchondral bone of the capitellum and the lateral ridge of the trochlea, necessitating operative fixation.

Question 11313

Topic: Upper Extremity Trauma
A 25-year-old cyclist crashes and sustains an acromioclavicular (AC) joint injury. Radiographs show the clavicle is displaced superiorly with a coracoclavicular (CC) distance that is 150% of the contralateral side. According to the Rockwood classification, what type of injury is this?
. Type II
. Type III
. Type IV
. Type V
. Type VI

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Type V


Explanation

A Rockwood Type V AC joint separation is defined by >100% (to 300%) superior displacement of the distal clavicle compared to the contralateral side. This involves disruption of the AC and CC ligaments with significant deltotrapezial fascial stripping.

Question 11314

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 35-year-old male sustains a high-energy anterior transolecranon fracture-dislocation. What is the most critical surgical step to restore elbow stability in this specific injury pattern?

. Excision of the radial head
. Repair of the lateral ulnar collateral ligament
. Plate fixation of the ulna to restore the contour of the greater sigmoid notch
. Reconstruction of the medial ulnar collateral ligament
. Tension band wiring of the olecranon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Excision of the radial head


Explanation

Transolecranon fracture-dislocations involve the ulna breaking and the forearm displacing anteriorly, often sparing the collateral ligaments. Restoring the exact dimensions of the greater sigmoid notch with a dorsal contour plate is critical to restore joint congruence and stability.

Question 11315

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 10-year-old gymnast falls and sustains a displaced medial epicondyle fracture. Which of the following is an absolute indication for open reduction and internal fixation?

. Displacement of 5 mm
. Ulnar nerve neurapraxia
. Valgus instability on stress views
. Incarceration of the fracture fragment within the elbow joint
. High-demand athletic status

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Displacement of 5 mm


Explanation

Incarceration of the medial epicondyle fragment within the elbow joint is an absolute indication for surgery. Other relative indications include open fracture, significant displacement (>5-15 mm depending on criteria), or gross valgus instability.

Question 11316

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 45-year-old male is involved in an MVA and sustains a "floating shoulder" (ipsilateral displaced midshaft clavicle fracture and a displaced extra-articular scapular neck fracture). What is a primary radiographic indication for surgical fixation of this injury complex?

. Any displacement of the clavicle
. Glenohumeral subluxation
. Greater than 1 cm medial translation or 40 degrees angulation of the glenoid
. Coracoclavicular distance increased by 50%
. Associated rib fractures

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Any displacement of the clavicle


Explanation

A floating shoulder may be treated nonoperatively if minimally displaced. Surgical fixation is indicated for significant deformity, generally defined as >1 cm of medial translation or >40 degrees of angular displacement of the glenoid/scapular neck.

Question 11317

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 38-year-old male sustains a fall resulting in elbow trauma. CT imaging reveals an isolated anteromedial facet fracture of the coronoid process. This specific fracture pattern is most strongly associated with which of the following mechanisms and instability patterns?

. Terrible triad of the elbow
. Posterolateral rotatory instability
. Varus posteromedial rotatory instability
. Valgus extension overload
. Olecranon fracture-dislocation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Terrible triad of the elbow


Explanation

Varus posteromedial rotatory instability (VPMRI) typically involves an anteromedial facet fracture of the coronoid accompanied by disruption of the lateral collateral ligament complex. It results from a varus force applied to the elbow combined with axial loading.

Question 11318

Topic: 2. Trauma

During surgical approach and fixation of a displaced 4-part proximal humerus fracture, preservation of the primary blood supply to the humeral head is critical. Recent anatomical studies indicate that the predominant blood supply to the humeral head is derived from which vessel?

. Anterior humeral circumflex artery (arcuate branch)
. Posterior humeral circumflex artery
. Suprascapular artery
. Thoracoacromial artery
. Profunda brachii artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior humeral circumflex artery (arcuate branch)


Explanation

Recent microvascular studies demonstrate that the posterior humeral circumflex artery provides the main blood supply to the humeral head (posterior, superior, and inferior aspects). Historically, the anterior circumflex (arcuate artery) was incorrectly thought to be the primary supply.

Question 11319

Topic: Upper Extremity Trauma

Following operative fixation of a terrible triad elbow injury involving LCL repair, coronoid fixation, and radial head arthroplasty, what is the most appropriate early postoperative rehabilitation protocol to permit motion while minimizing the risk of subluxation?

. Active extension in supination
. Active extension in pronation
. Passive flexion in supination
. Immobilization in 90 degrees of flexion for 4 weeks
. Immobilization in full extension for 2 weeks

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Active extension in supination


Explanation

Early active range of motion is crucial. Performing extension in pronation tightens the medial structures and relies on the intact medial soft tissue envelope to protect the repaired lateral structures, preventing posterolateral subluxation.

Question 11320

Topic: Upper Extremity Trauma

A 25-year-old cyclist falls directly onto his shoulder. Radiographs demonstrate a 150% superior displacement of the clavicle relative to the acromion, consistent with a Rockwood Type V injury. Which ligaments must be surgically reconstructed to properly restore superior-inferior stability?

. Acromioclavicular ligaments only
. Coracoclavicular ligaments (conoid and trapezoid)
. Coracoacromial ligament
. Sternoclavicular ligaments
. Superior transverse scapular ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Acromioclavicular ligaments only


Explanation

Rockwood Type V injuries involve severe disruption of both the AC and coracoclavicular (CC) ligaments with >100% superior displacement. Surgical reconstruction primarily targets the conoid and trapezoid (CC) ligaments to restore vertical stability.