Question 9801
Topic: 2. TraumaWhich of the following factors is most strongly associated with an increased risk of nonunion following non-operative treatment of a humeral shaft fracture?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Transverse fracture pattern
Practice Set 491 of 640
This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 2. Trauma. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Which of the following factors is most strongly associated with an increased risk of nonunion following non-operative treatment of a humeral shaft fracture?
. Transverse fracture pattern
A 40-year-old male with a nonunion of a humeral shaft fracture previously treated with a functional brace presents with pain and instability. Radiographs show a sclerotic nonunion gap. Which surgical option is generally considered most appropriate for revision surgery in this scenario?
. Plate osteosynthesis with compression and bone grafting
What is a potential advantage of using a retrograde intramedullary nail for a distal third humeral shaft fracture?
. Less potential for shoulder impingement and rotator cuff injury
A 22-year-old female presents with a closed humeral shaft fracture in the setting of severe osteogenesis imperfecta. Given her bone fragility, what is the most appropriate surgical approach to stabilize this fracture?
. Flexible intramedullary nailing (e.g., Fassier-Duval rods)
Which of the following scenarios is a strong contraindication for functional bracing in a humeral shaft fracture?
. Segmental fracture in a conscious, cooperative patient
A 38-year-old male sustains a closed transverse mid-shaft humeral fracture. He is a smoker and poorly compliant. He reports persistent pain and lack of healing after 6 months of functional bracing, with radiographs showing a nonunion. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Perform open reduction and internal fixation with a plate and autogenous bone graft
A 48-year-old male sustains a humeral shaft fracture that is associated with an ipsilateral forearm (both bone) fracture (a 'floating elbow'). What is the recommended management strategy for the humeral fracture?
. Intramedullary nailing or plate fixation for the humerus, ORIF for the forearm
Which type of humeral shaft fracture is typically best suited for functional bracing due to its inherent stability once reduced?
. Spiral fracture
A 30-year-old male with a closed, oblique mid-shaft humeral fracture is treated with a functional brace. At 3 weeks post-injury, he presents with increased pain and marked shortening (4 cm) on follow-up radiographs. He has intact neurovascular status. What is the most appropriate next step?
. Proceed with open reduction and internal fixation with a plate
Which biomechanical property is a significant advantage of intramedullary nailing over plate fixation for highly comminuted humeral shaft fractures?
. Load-sharing fixation
A 50-year-old female presents with a pathological fracture of the humeral shaft due to metastatic breast cancer. She is expected to have a life expectancy of 6-12 months. What is the primary goal of treatment, and what is the most suitable fixation method?
. Pain relief and functional stability for palliation; intramedullary nailing
A 25-year-old male sustains a closed, transverse mid-shaft humeral fracture. He also has a severe traumatic brain injury and is non-ambulatory. What is the optimal treatment for the humeral fracture?
. Intramedullary nailing
What is the primary rationale for recommending a functional brace over a hanging cast for most humeral shaft fractures amenable to non-operative treatment?
. Functional braces provide better fracture compression and prevent shortening
When performing ORIF with a plate and screws for a mid-shaft humeral fracture, what is the minimum number of cortices that should be engaged by screws both proximal and distal to the fracture to achieve adequate stability?
. 8 cortices (4 screws)
A 65-year-old female sustains a closed, spiral mid-shaft humeral fracture. She has severe Parkinson's disease, leading to significant tremors and poor muscle control. What is the most appropriate treatment option?
. Intramedullary nailing
Which of the following is a common complication specific to retrograde intramedullary nailing of the humeral shaft?
. Elbow stiffness or pain
In managing a delayed union of a humeral shaft fracture (e.g., 4 months post-injury with persistent fracture line but some callus), what adjunctive treatment might be considered before surgical intervention?
. Pulsed electromagnetic fields (PEMF) or low-intensity pulsed ultrasound (LIPUS)
What is the primary concern when considering non-operative management for a high-energy, open (Gustilo-Anderson Type I) humeral shaft fracture?
. High risk of infection and nonunion if not stabilized operatively
A 42-year-old male with a closed, spiral mid-shaft humeral fracture has been non-operatively managed in a functional brace for 12 weeks. Radiographs show a persistent fracture line and pain with activity. There is mild callus formation but no bridging. Which term best describes this situation?
. Delayed union
Which surgical technique for humeral shaft fracture fixation has the highest reported incidence of iatrogenic radial nerve injury?
. Conventional open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) with plate