Menu

Question 9061

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 35-year-old sustains a displaced femoral neck fracture. Which of the following arteries provides the majority of the blood supply to the weight-bearing dome of the femoral head?

. Lateral epiphyseal artery
. Inferior gluteal artery
. Artery of the ligamentum teres
. Anterior retinacular artery
. Superior gluteal artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral epiphyseal artery


Explanation

The lateral epiphyseal artery, a terminal branch of the medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA), provides the primary blood supply to the superolateral weight-bearing dome of the femoral head.

Question 9062

Topic: 2. Trauma

A patient develops acute compartment syndrome in the anterior compartment of the leg following a high-energy tibial shaft fracture. Which of the following sensory deficits would most likely be observed if the nerve traversing this compartment becomes ischemic?

. Dorsum of the foot excluding the first web space
. First dorsal web space
. Medial aspect of the leg and foot
. Plantar aspect of the foot
. Lateral aspect of the foot

Correct Answer & Explanation

. First dorsal web space


Explanation

The deep peroneal nerve runs within the anterior compartment of the leg. Its sensory distribution is uniquely isolated to the first dorsal web space between the great and second toes.

Question 9063

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 24-year-old man falls on an outstretched hand and sustains a displaced fracture through the proximal pole of the scaphoid. What anatomical feature of the scaphoid's blood supply predisposes this specific fracture pattern to nonunion and osteonecrosis?

. The scaphoid receives its blood supply from a single volar vessel
. Blood supply enters distally and flows retrogradely to the proximal pole
. The proximal pole is supplied exclusively by the anterior interosseous artery
. The blood supply enters solely through the scapholunate ligament
. The proximal pole lacks an intraosseous blood supply

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Blood supply enters distally and flows retrogradely to the proximal pole


Explanation

The scaphoid is supplied primarily by branches of the radial artery that enter the dorsal ridge distally and flow in a retrograde direction to supply the proximal pole. This unique vascular pattern leaves proximal pole fractures at high risk for avascular necrosis.

Question 9064

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 30-year-old male sustains a closed midshaft humerus fracture. Examination reveals an inability to extend the wrist and fingers, with decreased sensation over the dorsal web space. The injured nerve penetrates which structure as it transitions from the posterior to the anterior compartment of the arm?

. Medial intermuscular septum
. Lateral intermuscular septum
. Coracobrachialis muscle
. Supinator muscle
. Pronator teres muscle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral intermuscular septum


Explanation

The radial nerve pierces the lateral intermuscular septum approximately 10 cm proximal to the radiocapitellar joint to pass from the posterior to the anterior compartment of the arm. It is frequently injured in Holstein-Lewis fractures.

Question 9065

Topic: 2. Trauma

A patient undergoes fasciotomies for compartment syndrome of the foot following a crush injury. The surgeon plans to release the compartment that contains the quadratus plantae muscle. Which compartment is this?

. Medial compartment
. Lateral compartment
. Superficial central compartment
. Deep central compartment
. Calcaneal compartment

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Deep central compartment


Explanation

The calcaneal compartment contains the quadratus plantae muscle and the lateral plantar nerve. It communicates directly with the deep posterior compartment of the leg.

Question 9066

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 24-year-old man develops compartment syndrome of the forearm following a crush injury. The surgeon plans a volar release. Which of the following muscles is included in the mobile wad of Henry?

. Flexor carpi radialis
. Pronator teres
. Brachioradialis
. Extensor digitorum communis
. Flexor digitorum superficialis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Brachioradialis


Explanation

The mobile wad of Henry consists of three muscles: the brachioradialis, the extensor carpi radialis longus (ECRL), and the extensor carpi radialis brevis (ECRB). These are functionally and anatomically distinct from the purely volar or dorsal compartments.

Question 9067

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 65-year-old woman sustains a displaced femoral neck fracture. Which of the following arteries provides the predominant blood supply to the weight-bearing dome of the femoral head in an adult?

. Artery of the ligamentum teres
. Inferior gluteal artery
. Medial femoral circumflex artery
. Lateral femoral circumflex artery
. Superior gluteal artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medial femoral circumflex artery


Explanation

The medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA) provides the predominant blood supply to the adult femoral head via the lateral epiphyseal artery branches. The lateral femoral circumflex and artery of the ligamentum teres provide significantly less supply.

Question 9068

Topic: 2. Trauma

A patient sustains a midshaft humerus fracture and presents with a wrist drop. The radial nerve is at highest risk where it pierces the lateral intermuscular septum. At what approximate distance proximal to the lateral epicondyle does the radial nerve pierce the septum?

. 5 cm
. 10 cm
. 15 cm
. 20 cm
. 25 cm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 10 cm


Explanation

The radial nerve passes from the posterior compartment to the anterior compartment by piercing the lateral intermuscular septum approximately 10 cm proximal to the lateral epicondyle. This anatomical tether point puts it at high risk in distal third diaphyseal fractures (Holstein-Lewis).

Question 9069

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 32-year-old man develops acute compartment syndrome of the leg following a high-energy tibial shaft fracture. A dual-incision, four-compartment fasciotomy is performed. During release of the deep posterior compartment, which specific muscle is most frequently missed and inadequately decompressed?

. Flexor digitorum longus
. Soleus
. Tibialis posterior
. Flexor hallucis longus
. Peroneus brevis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tibialis posterior


Explanation

The tibialis posterior is situated deep within the deep posterior compartment and is invested by its own distinct fascial sheath. Failure to specifically open this epimysial sheath is the most common cause of inadequate decompression and subsequent severe foot and ankle contractures.

Question 9070

Topic: Lower Extremity Trauma

During a posterolateral approach to the tibial plateau, the common peroneal nerve must be carefully identified and protected. As it wraps around the fibular neck, it passes between the two heads of which muscle?

. Gastrocnemius
. Peroneus longus
. Extensor digitorum longus
. Soleus
. Tibialis anterior

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Peroneus longus


Explanation

The common peroneal nerve wraps around the fibular neck and enters the anterior/lateral leg by passing between the superficial and deep heads of the peroneus longus muscle.

Question 9071

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 55-year-old man presents with an unstable proximal humerus fracture. During the deltopectoral approach, the cephalic vein is identified. The cephalic vein lies in the deltopectoral groove between the deltoid and pectoralis major. To which structure should the vein be retracted to minimize the risk of tearing its primary tributary branches?

. Medially with the pectoralis major
. Laterally with the deltoid
. Superiorly towards the clavicle
. Inferiorly towards the biceps
. Deep to the coracobrachialis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Laterally with the deltoid


Explanation

The cephalic vein should ideally be retracted laterally with the deltoid during a deltopectoral approach. Most of its venous tributaries drain from the deltoid muscle, so lateral retraction minimizes the risk of tearing these branches.

Question 9072

Topic: 2. Trauma

A patient with an impending pathologic fracture of the distal femur undergoes prophylactic fixation. The femoral artery becomes the popliteal artery as it passes through the adductor hiatus. The adductor hiatus is formed by the tendinous insertions of which muscle?

. Vastus medialis
. Adductor longus
. Adductor magnus
. Semimembranosus
. Gracilis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Adductor magnus


Explanation

The adductor hiatus is an opening in the aponeurotic insertion of the adductor magnus muscle. It marks the transition of the femoral vessels into the popliteal vessels as they pass from the anterior compartment of the thigh into the popliteal fossa.

Question 9073

Topic: 2. Trauma

Fasciotomy of the leg is planned for a patient with compartment syndrome. When releasing the lateral compartment, which nerve is most at risk of injury as it exits the deep fascia to become subcutaneous in the distal third of the leg?

. Deep peroneal nerve
. Superficial peroneal nerve
. Sural nerve
. Saphenous nerve
. Tibial nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Superficial peroneal nerve


Explanation

The superficial peroneal nerve exits the deep fascia of the lateral compartment approximately 10 to 12 cm proximal to the lateral malleolus. It is highly susceptible to injury during lateral compartment fasciotomy or placement of anterolateral arthroscopy portals.

Question 9074

Topic: 2. Trauma

In a displaced femoral neck fracture, the main blood supply to the adult femoral head is disrupted. This critical vascular supply predominantly arises from which of the following?

. Medial femoral circumflex artery
. Lateral femoral circumflex artery
. Obturator artery
. Inferior gluteal artery
. Superior gluteal artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medial femoral circumflex artery


Explanation

The predominant blood supply to the adult femoral head comes from the lateral epiphyseal artery, a terminal branch of the medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA). The MFCA is routinely protected during posterior hip approaches by identifying the quadratus femoris.

Question 9075

Topic: 2. Trauma

A surgeon performing an extensile lateral approach to the calcaneus for a highly comminuted intra-articular fracture must be cautious to avoid devascularizing the lateral skin flap. The primary blood supply to this surgical flap is derived from which of the following arteries?

. Medial plantar artery
. Anterior tibial artery
. Lateral calcaneal artery
. Sural artery
. Peroneal artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral calcaneal artery


Explanation

The lateral calcaneal artery, a terminal branch of the peroneal artery, provides the primary vascular supply to the L-shaped lateral flap used in calcaneus fracture fixation. Careful full-thickness handling is required to prevent flap necrosis.

Question 9076

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 45-year-old male requires a subtrochanteric fracture fixation using a cephalomedullary nail. During the lateral approach for distal locking screw placement, a branch of the profunda femoris artery is at risk. The first perforating artery typically pierces which of the following structures?

. Adductor longus and medial intermuscular septum
. Adductor brevis and adductor magnus
. Adductor magnus and lateral intermuscular septum
. Vastus lateralis and linea aspera
. Pectineus and iliopsoas

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Adductor magnus and lateral intermuscular septum


Explanation

The perforating branches of the profunda femoris artery wrap around the posterior femur. The first perforating artery pierces the adductor magnus and the lateral intermuscular septum to supply the posterior thigh, placing it at risk during lateral femoral exposures.

Question 9077

Topic: 2. Trauma

A patient with a displaced proximal pole scaphoid fracture is counseled regarding the high risk of nonunion and avascular necrosis. This risk is primarily due to the retrograde blood supply of the scaphoid. The major vascular contribution enters the scaphoid at which specific location?

. Volar proximal pole
. Dorsal distal pole
. Volar distal pole
. Dorsal ridge at the waist
. Scaphoid tuberosity

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Dorsal ridge at the waist


Explanation

Approximately 70 to 80 percent of the scaphoid's blood supply comes from branches of the radial artery that enter at the dorsal ridge near the waist and perfuse the proximal pole in a retrograde fashion.

Question 9078

Topic: 2. Trauma

A patient develops acute compartment syndrome of the leg after a high-energy tibia fracture. A four-compartment fasciotomy is planned. Which of the following muscles is located within the deep posterior compartment of the lower leg?

. Gastrocnemius
. Soleus
. Peroneus brevis
. Flexor hallucis longus
. Extensor hallucis longus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Flexor hallucis longus


Explanation

The deep posterior compartment of the leg contains the flexor hallucis longus, flexor digitorum longus, tibialis posterior, and popliteus muscles, along with the posterior tibial and peroneal vessels and tibial nerve.

Question 9079

Topic: Upper Extremity Trauma

A 35-year-old sustains an Essex-Lopresti injury, characterized by a radial head fracture, distal radioulnar joint dislocation, and rupture of the interosseous membrane (IOM). In the anatomical position, what is the correct orientation of the fibers of the central band of the forearm IOM?

. Proximal-radial to distal-ulnar
. Distal-ulnar to proximal-radial
. Transversely from radius to ulna
. Distal-radial to proximal-ulnar
. Obliquely from the radial styloid to the coronoid process

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Proximal-radial to distal-ulnar


Explanation

The central band of the interosseous membrane is the primary stabilizer against longitudinal migration of the radius. Its fibers run obliquely from proximal on the radius to distal on the ulna.

Question 9080

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 65-year-old female sustains a displaced femoral neck fracture. Which artery provides the predominant blood supply to the adult femoral head, placing it at high risk of avascular necrosis in this fracture pattern?

. Anterior circumflex humeral artery
. Artery of the ligamentum teres
. Medial femoral circumflex artery
. Lateral femoral circumflex artery
. Inferior gluteal artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medial femoral circumflex artery


Explanation

The medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA) provides the primary blood supply to the adult femoral head. It branches into the lateral epiphyseal artery which enters the femoral head posterosuperiorly.