This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 2. Trauma. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 8181
Topic: 2. Trauma
A 25-year-old male undergoes a four-compartment fasciotomy of the leg for acute compartment syndrome following a high-energy tibial plateau fracture. During the procedure, the deep posterior compartment is carefully released. Which of the following muscles is NOT located within the deep posterior compartment of the leg?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Flexor hallucis longus
Explanation
The deep posterior compartment of the lower leg contains the flexor hallucis longus, flexor digitorum longus, tibialis posterior, and popliteus muscles. The peroneus brevis is located in the lateral compartment, alongside the peroneus longus muscle and the superficial peroneal nerve.
Question 8182
Topic: 2. Trauma
A surgeon is performing a posterolateral approach to the tibial plateau for a complex bicondylar fracture. To safely expose the posterior aspect of the lateral tibial plateau, the popliteus muscle must be carefully mobilized. Which of the following structures is most at risk of iatrogenic injury during the deep dissection when elevating the popliteus muscle off the posterior tibia?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Common peroneal nerve
Explanation
The inferior lateral genicular artery courses along the lateral joint line deep to the lateral collateral ligament and runs transversely over the popliteus tendon. When elevating or retracting the popliteus to expose the posterolateral corner of the tibial plateau, this artery is placed at significant risk and must be identified and protected, or safely ligated.
Question 8183
Topic: 2. Trauma
An orthopedic trauma surgeon is preparing to plate a displaced midshaft clavicle fracture. To avoid catastrophic injury to the neurovascular bundle during drilling, the surgeon must be aware of the local anatomy. Which muscular structure serves as the primary anatomical landmark separating the subclavian vein anteriorly from the subclavian artery posteriorly?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Pectoralis minor
Explanation
The anterior scalene muscle is the critical anatomical landmark in the base of the neck. The subclavian vein passes anterior to the anterior scalene muscle, while the subclavian artery and the roots/trunks of the brachial plexus pass posterior to it, emerging through the interscalene triangle (between the anterior and middle scalene muscles).
Question 8184
Topic: 2. Trauma
A 22-year-old collegiate runner develops acute anterior leg pain and numbness in the first dorsal web space after a marathon, consistent with acute compartment syndrome. A decompressive fasciotomy is performed. To fully release the anterior compartment, the surgeon must ensure all structures within it are decompressed. Which of the following muscles is NOT located in the anterior compartment of the leg?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Tibialis anterior
Explanation
The peroneus brevis muscle is located in the lateral compartment of the leg, along with the peroneus longus, both innervated by the superficial peroneal nerve. The anterior compartment contains the tibialis anterior, extensor hallucis longus, extensor digitorum longus, and peroneus tertius, all innervated by the deep peroneal nerve.
Question 8185
Topic: 2. Trauma
A 22-year-old male sustains a proximal pole fracture of the scaphoid. He is educated regarding his high risk of avascular necrosis and nonunion. This risk is primarily due to the precarious retrograde blood supply of the scaphoid. The primary blood supply to the proximal pole of the scaphoid enters at which location and originates from which artery?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Enters at the distal pole and originates from the radial artery
Explanation
The scaphoid receives 70% to 80% of its blood supply from the dorsal carpal branch of the radial artery. These vessels enter the scaphoid distally (at the dorsal ridge and distal pole) and course in a retrograde fashion to supply the proximal pole. Consequently, fractures occurring at the waist or proximal pole disrupt this delicate intraosseous supply, leading to a high rate of avascular necrosis and nonunion of the proximal fragment.
Question 8186
Topic: Pelvic & Acetabular Trauma
An orthopedic trauma surgeon is stabilizing an anteroposterior compression type III (APC-III) pelvic ring injury. Complete disruption of the posterior sacroiliac complex is noted. Which specific ligamentous structure in this complex is primarily responsible for resisting vertical shear/translation of the hemipelvis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Sacrospinous ligament
Explanation
The posterior sacroiliac complex is the strongest ligamentous complex in the body. The robust interosseous sacroiliac ligaments are the primary stabilizers against vertical translation (shear) of the hemipelvis. The anterior sacroiliac ligaments resist external rotation, while the sacrotuberous and sacrospinous ligaments also primarily limit external rotation and secondary vertical translation.
Question 8187
Topic: 2. Trauma
A 26-year-old marathon runner undergoes a four-compartment fasciotomy for acute exertional compartment syndrome of the lower leg. During the release of the deep posterior compartment, the surgeon must carefully protect the neurovascular bundle that travels intimately with these deep muscles. Which structures make up this specific neurovascular bundle?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Superficial peroneal nerve and anterior tibial artery
Explanation
The deep posterior compartment of the lower leg contains the tibialis posterior, flexor digitorum longus, and flexor hallucis longus muscles. It also houses the tibial nerve and the posterior tibial artery/veins. The deep peroneal nerve and anterior tibial artery are located in the anterior compartment, while the superficial peroneal nerve is in the lateral compartment.
Question 8188
Topic: 2. Trauma
A 45-year-old patient undergoes an open reduction and internal fixation of a midshaft clavicle fracture. Postoperatively, the patient notes numbness over the anterolateral shoulder and anterior chest wall. Which of the following nerves was most likely injured during the procedure?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Suprascapular nerve
Explanation
The supraclavicular nerves arise from the superficial cervical plexus (C3, C4) and descend to provide sensation over the clavicle, anterolateral shoulder, and superior chest wall. They are frequently encountered crossing the clavicle and can be stretched, sacrificed, or injured during superior approaches, leading to the common postoperative complaint of numbness in this distribution.
Question 8189
Topic: 2. Trauma
During a posterior approach to the proximal humerus for a nonunion, you are identifying the axillary nerve in the quadrilateral space. Which of the following defines the superior border of this space when viewed posteriorly?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Teres major
Explanation
Viewed posteriorly, the superior border of the quadrilateral space is the teres minor. The other borders are the teres major (inferior), long head of the triceps (medial), and the surgical neck of the humerus (lateral).
Question 8190
Topic: 2. Trauma
During an anterolateral approach to the distal tibia for plating a pilon fracture, the surgeon must protect the superficial peroneal nerve. At what average distance proximal to the tip of the lateral malleolus does this nerve typically pierce the deep fascia to become superficial?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 2 to 4 cm
Explanation
The superficial peroneal nerve typically pierces the deep crural fascia in the anterolateral leg approximately 10 to 12 cm proximal to the tip of the lateral malleolus. It is highly vulnerable to injury during anterolateral approaches to the ankle.
Question 8191
Topic: 2. Trauma
A 30-year-old man sustains a closed tibial shaft fracture and develops compartment syndrome. During a four-compartment fasciotomy, the deep posterior compartment must be released. Which of the following muscles is NOT located in the deep posterior compartment of the leg?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Flexor hallucis longus
Explanation
The deep posterior compartment of the leg contains the flexor hallucis longus, flexor digitorum longus, tibialis posterior, and popliteus muscles. The peroneus brevis is located in the lateral compartment.
Question 8192
Topic: 2. Trauma
The anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL) is frequently injured in rotational ankle sprains. What is the eponym for the bony avulsion of the AITFL from its fibular attachment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Tillaux-Chaput fracture
Explanation
A Wagstaffe-Le Fort fracture describes a bony avulsion of the AITFL from the anterior aspect of the distal fibula. A Tillaux-Chaput fracture is the equivalent avulsion from the anterolateral tibia.
Question 8193
Topic: 2. Trauma
A patient is scheduled for open reduction and internal fixation of a displaced intra-articular calcaneus fracture using an extensile lateral approach. The viability of the full-thickness soft tissue flap relies predominantly on which of the following vessels?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Medial plantar artery
Explanation
The extensile lateral approach involves a full-thickness flap that derives its main blood supply from the lateral calcaneal artery, a terminal branch of the peroneal artery. Careful tissue handling is mandatory to prevent wound necrosis.
Question 8194
Topic: 2. Trauma
A dorsal approach to the wrist is performed for a scaphoid nonunion. The surgeon makes an incision and enters the interval between the 3rd and 4th extensor compartments. Which tendon exclusively occupies the 3rd extensor compartment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Extensor pollicis longus
Explanation
The 3rd dorsal extensor compartment contains solely the extensor pollicis longus (EPL) tendon. It hooks around Lister's tubercle, serving as a reliable landmark during dorsal wrist surgery.
Question 8195
Topic: 2. Trauma
Blood supply to the adult femoral head is predominantly derived from the medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA). Which specific branch of the MFCA provides the vast majority of this perfusion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Deep branch (lateral epiphyseal artery)
Explanation
The lateral epiphyseal arteries, which are terminal extensions of the deep branch of the medial femoral circumflex artery, supply the majority of the blood to the adult femoral head and are at risk in femoral neck fractures.
Question 8196
Topic: 2. Trauma
A 25-year-old runner complains of chronic exertional anterior compartment syndrome. During surgical release, the surgeon must protect the deep peroneal nerve, which runs closely with which artery?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior tibial artery
Explanation
The anterior compartment of the leg contains the deep peroneal nerve. This nerve travels in close proximity to the anterior tibial artery to supply the anterior musculature.
Question 8197
Topic: Lower Extremity Trauma
During a posterolateral approach to the tibial plateau, the surgeon must identify the common peroneal nerve. Immediately distal to the fibular head, which muscle does the common peroneal nerve dive beneath?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Peroneus longus
Explanation
After coursing distally and wrapping around the fibular neck, the common peroneal nerve dives deep to the origin of the peroneus longus muscle before bifurcating.
Question 8198
Topic: 2. Trauma
During a surgical dislocation of the hip to treat a femoral head fracture, the surgeon performs a trochanteric flip osteotomy. To preserve the primary blood supply to the femoral head, the osteotomy must remain superficial to the external rotator muscles to protect branches of which artery?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Medial femoral circumflex artery
Explanation
The medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA) provides the primary blood supply to the adult femoral head. Leaving the short external rotators attached to the intact proximal femur during a trochanteric flip osteotomy protects the deep branch of the MFCA.
Question 8199
Topic: 2. Trauma
A 30-year-old cyclist sustains a direct blow to his superior shoulder during a fall. Radiographs demonstrate a type III acromioclavicular (AC) joint separation. While deciding between surgical and non-operative management, which of the following is considered an absolute indication for acute surgical intervention?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Skin tenting with signs of impending skin necrosis
Explanation
While type III AC joint separations are controversial and generally treated non-operatively in the acute setting, absolute indications for acute surgical stabilization include open injuries, skin tenting causing impending necrosis, and concomitant neurovascular compromise.
Question 8200
Topic: Upper Extremity Trauma
A 30-year-old cyclist falls directly onto his shoulder. Clinical examination reveals significant superior displacement of the clavicle with a prominent step-off. Radiographs show superior displacement of the clavicle by 150% compared to the contralateral side.
According to the Rockwood classification, what specific anatomical disruption distinguishes this injury from a Type III AC joint separation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Disruption of the deltotrapezial fascia
Explanation
This patient has a Rockwood Type V acromioclavicular (AC) joint injury, which is defined by greater than 100% (up to 300%) superior displacement of the clavicle relative to the acromion. Both Type III and Type V injuries involve complete tears of the AC and CC ligaments. However, Type V is distinguished by the complete disruption and stripping of the deltotrapezial fascia from the distal clavicle. Type IV involves posterior displacement, and Type VI involves inferior displacement.
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