Menu

Question 7361

Topic: 2. Trauma

During a four-compartment fasciotomy for acute compartment syndrome of the lower leg, the deep posterior compartment must be completely decompressed. Which of the following muscles is contained within this compartment?

. Gastrocnemius
. Soleus
. Peroneus brevis
. Flexor hallucis longus
. Tibialis anterior

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Gastrocnemius


Explanation

The deep posterior compartment contains the flexor hallucis longus, flexor digitorum longus, and tibialis posterior, along with the posterior tibial neurovascular bundle. The gastrocnemius and soleus belong to the superficial posterior compartment.

Question 7362

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 45-year-old male presents with weakness in thumb extension and index finger extension following a radial head fracture. Sensation in the first web space is normal. Compression of the involved nerve most commonly occurs at which of the following structures?

. Arcade of Frohse
. Ligament of Struthers
. Lacertus fibrosus
. Arcade of Struthers
. Osborne's ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arcade of Frohse


Explanation

The patient has posterior interosseous nerve (PIN) palsy, presenting with pure motor loss of the finger/thumb extensors. The PIN is most commonly compressed at the arcade of Frohse, the proximal fascial edge of the supinator muscle.

Question 7363

Topic: 2. Trauma

The proximal pole of the scaphoid is notoriously susceptible to avascular necrosis following fracture. The major blood supply to the proximal pole enters the scaphoid at which anatomical location?

. Volar distal tuberosity
. Dorsal ridge
. Scapholunate interosseous ligament
. Volar proximal pole
. Dorsal proximal pole

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Volar distal tuberosity


Explanation

The scaphoid receives 70-80% of its blood supply from branches of the radial artery that enter at the dorsal ridge. This blood supply flows in a retrograde fashion to the proximal pole, explaining the high rate of AVN in proximal pole fractures.

Question 7364

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 35-year-old male sustains a midshaft clavicle fracture. During open reduction and internal fixation, the surgeon must be mindful of the underlying neurovascular structures. Which of the following structures is most closely applied to the posterior-inferior aspect of the middle third of the clavicle?

. Axillary artery
. Subclavian vein
. Subclavian artery
. Brachial plexus
. Suprascapular nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Axillary artery


Explanation

The subclavian vein is the most medial and anterior structure of the neurovascular bundle at this level. It lies closely applied to the posterior-inferior surface of the medial and middle thirds of the clavicle, separated only by the subclavius muscle.

Question 7365

Topic: 2. Trauma

During a posterolateral approach to the ankle for fixation of a posterior malleolus fracture, the sural nerve must be protected. The sural nerve typically courses in close proximity to which structure in the distal leg?

. Great saphenous vein
. Small saphenous vein
. Peroneal artery
. Posterior tibial artery
. Tibial nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Great saphenous vein


Explanation

The sural nerve courses distally in the posterior leg adjacent to the small saphenous vein. It passes posterior to the lateral malleolus.

Question 7366

Topic: Pelvic & Acetabular Trauma

When placing iliosacral screws for pelvic ring injuries, the surgeon must remain within the osseous safe zone of the sacral ala. The anterior limit of this safe zone in S1 is defined by the risk of injury to which structure?

. L4 nerve root
. L5 nerve root
. S1 nerve root
. Internal iliac artery
. Sympathetic chain

Correct Answer & Explanation

. L4 nerve root


Explanation

The L5 nerve root runs directly anterior to the sacral ala. Breaching the anterior cortex of the S1 body or ala places the L5 nerve root at significant risk of iatrogenic injury.

Question 7367

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 25-year-old male develops acute compartment syndrome of the deep posterior compartment of the leg after a tibial fracture. Which of the following neurovascular structures is contained within this compartment?

. Deep peroneal nerve
. Superficial peroneal nerve
. Sural nerve
. Tibial nerve
. Saphenous nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Deep peroneal nerve


Explanation

The deep posterior compartment of the leg contains the tibialis posterior, flexor hallucis longus, flexor digitorum longus, tibial nerve, and posterior tibial vessels.

Question 7368

Topic: Lower Extremity Trauma

During a medial subvastus approach to the distal femur, the adductor canal (Hunter's canal) is visualized. Which of the following nerves runs within the adductor canal?

. Medial femoral cutaneous nerve
. Obturator nerve
. Saphenous nerve
. Tibial nerve
. Deep peroneal nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medial femoral cutaneous nerve


Explanation

The adductor canal contains the superficial femoral artery, superficial femoral vein, and the saphenous nerve. The saphenous nerve exits anteriorly before the hiatus.

Question 7369

Topic: Lower Extremity Trauma

Figure 19 highlights an arthroscopic view of a meniscus.

Which of the following describes a key anatomical difference between the medial and lateral menisci?

. Medial meniscus is more circular
. Lateral meniscus covers a larger percentage of its respective tibial plateau
. Medial meniscus is more mobile
. Lateral meniscus has a firmer attachment to the capsule
. Both have an avascular inner two-thirds

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medial meniscus is more circular


Explanation

The lateral meniscus is more circular, covers a larger percentage of the articular surface area, and is more mobile because it lacks a dense continuous capsular attachment due to the popliteus hiatus.

Question 7370

Topic: 2. Trauma

An anterolateral approach to the distal tibia is used for pilon fracture fixation. The superficial peroneal nerve is at risk in this exposure. Where does this nerve predictably pierce the deep fascia to become subcutaneous?

. Just distal to the fibular neck
. 5 cm distal to the lateral epicondyle
. 10 to 12 cm proximal to the tip of the lateral malleolus
. 2 cm proximal to the tip of the lateral malleolus
. Over the extensor retinaculum

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Just distal to the fibular neck


Explanation

The superficial peroneal nerve typically pierces the crural fascia to become superficial about 10 to 12 cm proximal to the lateral malleolus. It then divides into medial and intermediate dorsal cutaneous branches.

Question 7371

Topic: Lower Extremity Trauma

A 6-year-old child presents with a painless snapping knee. MRI demonstrates a lateral meniscus covering the entire tibial plateau. Arthroscopy reveals hypermobility of the posterior horn with an absent coronary ligament. Which discoid meniscus variant is this?

. Complete variant
. Incomplete variant
. Wrisberg variant
. Ring variant
. Anterior variant

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Complete variant


Explanation

The Wrisberg variant of a discoid lateral meniscus lacks normal posterior meniscotibial (coronary) attachments. The meniscus is attached posteriorly only by the meniscofemoral ligament of Wrisberg, leading to hypermobility and a symptomatic snapping knee in young children.

Question 7372

Topic: 2. Trauma

Radiographs of a 19-year-old skier's acutely injured knee show a Segond fracture. This pathognomonic avulsion fracture of the anterolateral proximal tibia is highly associated with an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear. Which specific structure avulses to cause this fracture?

. Iliotibial band
. Biceps femoris tendon
. Anterolateral ligament (ALL) and lateral capsule
. Lateral collateral ligament
. Popliteus tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Iliotibial band


Explanation

The Segond fracture is a cortical avulsion off the anterolateral proximal tibia. It represents an avulsion of the anterolateral capsular structures, specifically the anterolateral ligament (ALL), and is a radiographic marker of an ACL tear.

Question 7373

Topic: Upper Extremity Trauma

A 35-year-old laborer falls directly on the lateral aspect of his shoulder and is diagnosed with a grade III acromioclavicular (AC) joint separation. Which ligaments are completely disrupted in this injury?

. Acromioclavicular ligaments only
. Coracoclavicular ligaments only
. Both acromioclavicular and coracoclavicular ligaments
. Coracoacromial ligament
. Sternoclavicular ligaments

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Acromioclavicular ligaments only


Explanation

A Rockwood grade III AC joint separation involves complete disruption of both the acromioclavicular (AC) and coracoclavicular (CC) ligaments. This results in superior displacement of the clavicle by 25-100%.

Question 7374

Topic: Upper Extremity Trauma

A 29-year-old cyclist falls directly onto his shoulder point. Radiographs confirm a 150% superior displacement of the distal clavicle relative to the acromion, and the coracoclavicular distance is increased by 150% compared to the contralateral side. This represents which type of acromioclavicular (AC) joint injury according to the Rockwood classification?

. Type II
. Type III
. Type IV
. Type V
. Type VI

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Type II


Explanation

A Rockwood Type V AC joint injury is characterized by >100% to 300% superior displacement of the clavicle relative to the acromion. This involves severe disruption of the AC ligaments, coracoclavicular (CC) ligaments, and the deltotrapezial fascia.

Question 7375

Topic: Upper Extremity Trauma

A 32-year-old manual laborer falls directly onto the tip of his shoulder. Radiographs demonstrate a 100% superior displacement of the distal clavicle relative to the acromion, with the coracoclavicular distance increased by 50% compared to the uninjured side. The most appropriate initial management is:

. Nonoperative management with a sling and early ROM
. Clavicle hook plate fixation
. Coracoclavicular ligament reconstruction
. Weaver-Dunn procedure
. Primary acromioclavicular joint repair

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Nonoperative management with a sling and early ROM


Explanation

The patient has a Type III acromioclavicular (AC) joint separation. Despite being a manual laborer, literature supports an initial trial of nonoperative management with a sling and physical therapy, as most patients achieve satisfactory functional outcomes without surgery.

Question 7376

Topic: Upper Extremity Trauma

A 25-year-old cyclist sustains a direct blow to the point of his shoulder. Radiographs demonstrate a Type V acromioclavicular (AC) joint injury. Which of the following correctly describes the fascial disruption distinguishing a Type V from a Type III AC joint injury?

. Disruption of the acromioclavicular ligaments only
. Disruption of the coracoclavicular ligaments only
. Disruption of the deltotrapezial fascia
. Disruption of the coracoacromial ligament
. Avulsion of the conjoined tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Disruption of the acromioclavicular ligaments only


Explanation

A Type V AC joint injury involves disruption of the AC ligaments, CC ligaments, and the deltotrapezial fascia, resulting in >100% superior displacement of the clavicle. Type III injuries have intact deltotrapezial fascia.

Question 7377

Topic: Upper Extremity Trauma

A 26-year-old cyclist falls directly onto his right shoulder. Radiographs show superior displacement of the clavicle relative to the acromion, with an 80% increase in the coracoclavicular distance compared to the uninjured side. The deltotrapezial fascia remains structurally intact. This represents which Rockwood classification of acromioclavicular (AC) joint separation?

. Type II
. Type III
. Type IV
. Type V
. Type VI

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Type II


Explanation

Rockwood Type III injuries involve complete disruption of both the AC and CC ligaments, with 25-100% superior displacement of the clavicle. The deltotrapezial fascia remains intact, unlike in Type V injuries where it is stripped and displacement is >100%.

Question 7378

Topic: Upper Extremity Trauma

A 42-year-old heavy laborer sustains an acromioclavicular (AC) joint injury. Radiographs reveal a 150% superior displacement of the clavicle relative to the acromion with significant posterior displacement into the trapezius fascia. Based on the Rockwood classification, what is the injury type and optimal management?

. Type III; non-operative management with a sling
. Type III; acute surgical reconstruction
. Type IV; acute surgical reconstruction
. Type V; acute surgical reconstruction
. Type VI; non-operative management

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Type III; non-operative management with a sling


Explanation

A Rockwood Type IV AC joint separation is characterized by posterior displacement of the distal clavicle into or through the trapezius fascia. Unlike many Type III injuries, Type IV injuries typically require surgical reconstruction due to significant functional impairment and pain.

Question 7379

Topic: Lower Extremity Trauma

A 24-year-old football player sustains an external rotation injury to his right ankle. Radiographs demonstrate a widened medial clear space and decreased tibiofibular overlap. In a syndesmotic injury, which ligament serves as the primary restraint to anterior translation of the distal fibula?

. Posterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (PITFL)
. Anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL)
. Interosseous membrane
. Deltoid ligament
. Anterior talofibular ligament (ATFL)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (PITFL)


Explanation

The anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL) is the primary restraint to anterior translation of the distal fibula and is typically the first ligament to tear in a syndesmotic injury.

Question 7380

Topic: Upper Extremity Trauma

A 28-year-old male falls directly onto the point of his shoulder while cycling. Radiographs demonstrate a Type III acromioclavicular (AC) joint separation. Based on the Rockwood classification, what is the status of the supporting ligaments?

. AC ligaments sprained, CC ligaments intact
. AC ligaments torn, CC ligaments sprained
. AC ligaments torn, CC ligaments torn
. AC ligaments intact, CC ligaments torn
. Only the conoid ligament is torn

Correct Answer & Explanation

. AC ligaments sprained, CC ligaments intact


Explanation

A Rockwood Type III AC joint injury involves complete rupture of both the acromioclavicular (AC) and coracoclavicular (CC) ligaments, resulting in 25% to 100% superior translation of the distal clavicle.