This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 2. Trauma. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 7121
Topic: 2. Trauma
A 45-year-old sustains a displaced subcapital femoral neck fracture. The primary blood supply to the adult femoral head is disrupted. Which vessel is the predominant contributor to this supply?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Medial femoral circumflex artery
Explanation
The medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA) provides the primary blood supply to the adult femoral head via its lateral epiphyseal branches. The artery of the ligamentum teres provides a negligible supply in adults.
Question 7122
Topic: 2. Trauma
A patient develops avascular necrosis of the proximal pole of the scaphoid following a nonunion. The predominant blood supply to the scaphoid enters at which anatomical location?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Dorsal ridge
Explanation
The primary blood supply to the scaphoid is derived from the radial artery, with dorsal branches entering the dorsal ridge (waist). The blood then flows in a retrograde fashion to supply the proximal pole, making it vulnerable to avascular necrosis in fractures.
Question 7123
Topic: 2. Trauma
During a syndesmotic fixation for an ankle fracture, the surgeon visualizes the anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL). At its distal insertion on the fibula, what specific tubercle does the AITFL attach to?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Chaput's tubercle
Explanation
The AITFL attaches laterally to Wagstaffe's tubercle on the anterior aspect of the distal fibula. It attaches medially to Chaput's tubercle on the anterolateral distal tibia.
Question 7124
Topic: 2. Trauma
During open reduction and internal fixation of a medial malleolus fracture, a retractor is placed posterior to the medial malleolus. Which of the following structures is most anterior in the retro-malleolar groove and at highest risk of injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Tibialis posterior tendon
Explanation
The structures passing posterior to the medial malleolus from anterior to posterior are the Tibialis posterior tendon, Flexor digitorum longus, Posterior tibial Artery, Tibial Nerve, and Flexor hallucis longus. The tibialis posterior is the most anterior structure.
Question 7125
Topic: 2. Trauma
During a posteromedial surgical approach to the tibial plateau for internal fixation of a shear fracture, the surgeon dissects between the medial head of the gastrocnemius and the popliteus. Which major neurovascular structures are immediately at risk in this deep interval?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Popliteal artery and tibial nerve
Explanation
The popliteal artery and tibial nerve pass vertically through the posterior knee, lying deep to the medial head of the gastrocnemius and superficial to the popliteus muscle.
Question 7126
Topic: 2. Trauma
A patient suffers a severe compartment syndrome of the anterior leg. Following fasciotomy, the patient has an irreversible loss of function of the deep peroneal nerve. Which of the following sensory deficits will definitively be present?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Numbness over the lateral aspect of the foot
Explanation
The deep peroneal nerve provides motor function to the anterior leg compartment and isolated sensory innervation to the first dorsal web space of the foot.
Question 7127
Topic: 2. Trauma
Following a displaced femoral neck fracture in an adult, the femoral head is at high risk for osteonecrosis. The most significant contributor to the vascular supply of the adult femoral head is the:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Obturator artery
Explanation
The deep branch of the medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA) provides the predominant blood supply to the adult femoral head. It courses posterior to the femoral neck, making it vulnerable in displaced fractures.
Question 7128
Topic: 2. Trauma
An intracapsular femoral neck fracture frequently compromises the blood supply to the femoral head. Which artery provides the primary blood supply to the mature adult femoral head?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Artery of the ligamentum teres
Explanation
The medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA) provides the dominant blood supply to the mature femoral head via its lateral epiphyseal branches. The artery of the ligamentum teres provides a negligible supply in adults.
Question 7129
Topic: Upper Extremity Trauma
The anterior bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) of the elbow is the primary restraint to valgus stress. Where is its primary anatomical insertion on the ulna?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Tip of the olecranon
Explanation
The anterior bundle of the UCL originates on the anteroinferior surface of the medial epicondyle. It inserts on the sublime tubercle of the proximal ulna.
Question 7130
Topic: 2. Trauma
Avascular necrosis of the proximal pole of the scaphoid is a known complication following a waist fracture. This occurs because the primary arterial supply to the scaphoid enters at which location?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Volar aspect of the proximal pole
Explanation
The primary blood supply to the scaphoid comes from the dorsal carpal branch of the radial artery, which enters at the dorsal ridge near the distal pole. Blood flows retrograde to the proximal pole, making proximal fractures highly susceptible to osteonecrosis.
Question 7131
Topic: 2. Trauma
A patient undergoes a two-incision fasciotomy for a tibial shaft fracture complicated by compartment syndrome. Which muscle group must be carefully identified and released to ensure adequate decompression of the deep posterior compartment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Tibialis anterior and extensor hallucis longus
Explanation
The deep posterior compartment of the leg contains the tibialis posterior, flexor digitorum longus, and flexor hallucis longus. This compartment is notoriously under-released if the soleus bridge is not adequately taken down.
Question 7132
Topic: 2. Trauma
During a medial approach to the distal tibia for minimally invasive plating of a pilon fracture, the surgeon must protect the saphenous nerve. Which vascular structure closely travels with the saphenous nerve in this region?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Great saphenous vein
Explanation
The great saphenous vein courses anterior to the medial malleolus alongside the saphenous nerve, making both structures highly susceptible to injury during medial approaches to the distal tibia and ankle.
Question 7133
Topic: 2. Trauma
A 45-year-old sustains a displaced femoral neck fracture. Which of the following vessels provides the primary blood supply to the adult femoral head and is at greatest risk of disruption in this injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lateral femoral circumflex artery
Explanation
The medial femoral circumflex artery, particularly its lateral epiphyseal branches, provides the predominant blood supply to the adult femoral head. Disruption of this vessel in displaced femoral neck fractures significantly increases the risk of avascular necrosis.
Question 7134
Topic: 2. Trauma
During open reduction internal fixation of a medial malleolus fracture, the surgeon explores the structures posterior to the medial malleolus. Moving from anterior to posterior, which structure lies immediately posterior to the flexor digitorum longus (FDL) tendon?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Tibialis posterior tendon
Explanation
The structures passing behind the medial malleolus from anterior to posterior are: Tibialis posterior, Flexor digitorum longus, Posterior tibial artery, Vein, Tibial nerve, and Flexor hallucis longus. Therefore, the posterior tibial artery lies immediately posterior to the FDL.
Question 7135
Topic: 2. Trauma
A patient with an unstable pelvic ring fracture requires percutaneous iliosacral screw fixation at the S1 level. If the screw trajectory is placed too far anteriorly and inferiorly to the sacral ala, which nerve root is at highest risk of iatrogenic injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. L3
Explanation
The L5 nerve root courses directly anterior to the sacral ala. An anteriorly misdirected iliosacral screw at S1 risks lacerating or compressing this nerve root.
Question 7136
Topic: 2. Trauma
A runner requires a lateral compartment fasciotomy for chronic exertional compartment syndrome. The surgeon must protect the superficial peroneal nerve. At what anatomical location does this nerve typically pierce the deep fascia to become subcutaneous?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 2-3 cm distal to the fibular head
Explanation
The superficial peroneal nerve typically pierces the crural fascia in the distal third of the leg, roughly 10-12 cm proximal to the lateral malleolus. It then transitions from the lateral compartment to the subcutaneous tissue.
Question 7137
Topic: 2. Trauma
A 26-year-old female presents with acute knee pain after a twisting injury while skiing. Plain radiographs demonstrate a small avulsion fracture from the lateral tibial plateau just distal to the articular surface. This radiographic finding is virtually pathognomonic for a concurrent tear of which of the following structures?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Medial collateral ligament
Explanation
The Segond fracture is an avulsion fracture of the anterolateral capsule and the anterolateral ligament (ALL) from the proximal lateral tibia. It is highly associated (greater than 75% of cases) with an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear.
Question 7138
Topic: 2. Trauma
An AP radiograph of a 30-year-old skier's knee following an acute pivoting injury demonstrates a small elliptical avulsion fracture of the lateral tibial plateau, just distal to the joint line. This radiographic finding is most highly associated with an injury to which of the following structures?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior cruciate ligament
Explanation
A Segond fracture is an avulsion of the anterolateral capsule (anterolateral ligament) from the lateral tibial plateau. It is considered highly pathognomonic (up to 75-100% association) for an underlying anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear.
Question 7139
Topic: Lower Extremity Trauma
A patient presents with a knee injury sustained from a blow to the anterolateral aspect of the flexed knee. Clinical examination reveals anteromedial rotatory instability (AMRI), characterized by valgus laxity and anterior subluxation of the medial tibial plateau. Which primary structure of the posteromedial corner is injured?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior oblique ligament (POL)
Explanation
Anteromedial rotatory instability (AMRI) is the clinical hallmark of a posteromedial corner injury. The posterior oblique ligament (POL) and the superficial MCL are the primary restraints to valgus and external rotation forces in this quadrant.
Question 7140
Topic: 2. Trauma
A 30-year-old male is brought to the trauma bay after a high-speed motorcycle collision. Examination of his right lower extremity reveals a grossly unstable knee with positive anterior, posterior, and valgus stress testing. The foot is warm, and dorsalis pedis pulses are palpable. The Ankle-Brachial Index (ABI) is measured at 0.8. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Discharge with a hinged knee brace and schedule an outpatient MRI
Explanation
In the setting of a multiligament knee injury (knee dislocation), an ABI less than 0.9 mandates further advanced vascular imaging, such as a CT angiogram, to rule out a popliteal artery injury. Palpable pulses alone do not reliably exclude an intimal tear or evolving occlusion.
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