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Question 7121

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 45-year-old sustains a displaced subcapital femoral neck fracture. The primary blood supply to the adult femoral head is disrupted. Which vessel is the predominant contributor to this supply?

. Medial femoral circumflex artery
. Lateral femoral circumflex artery
. Artery of the ligamentum teres
. Inferior gluteal artery
. Superior gluteal artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medial femoral circumflex artery


Explanation

The medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA) provides the primary blood supply to the adult femoral head via its lateral epiphyseal branches. The artery of the ligamentum teres provides a negligible supply in adults.

Question 7122

Topic: 2. Trauma

A patient develops avascular necrosis of the proximal pole of the scaphoid following a nonunion. The predominant blood supply to the scaphoid enters at which anatomical location?

. Dorsal ridge
. Volar tubercle
. Proximal pole
. Scapholunate interosseous ligament
. Volar radiocarpal ligaments

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Dorsal ridge


Explanation

The primary blood supply to the scaphoid is derived from the radial artery, with dorsal branches entering the dorsal ridge (waist). The blood then flows in a retrograde fashion to supply the proximal pole, making it vulnerable to avascular necrosis in fractures.

Question 7123

Topic: 2. Trauma

During a syndesmotic fixation for an ankle fracture, the surgeon visualizes the anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL). At its distal insertion on the fibula, what specific tubercle does the AITFL attach to?

. Chaput's tubercle
. Wagstaffe's tubercle
. Volkmann's tubercle
. Gerdy's tubercle
. Lister's tubercle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Chaput's tubercle


Explanation

The AITFL attaches laterally to Wagstaffe's tubercle on the anterior aspect of the distal fibula. It attaches medially to Chaput's tubercle on the anterolateral distal tibia.

Question 7124

Topic: 2. Trauma

During open reduction and internal fixation of a medial malleolus fracture, a retractor is placed posterior to the medial malleolus. Which of the following structures is most anterior in the retro-malleolar groove and at highest risk of injury?

. Tibialis posterior tendon
. Flexor digitorum longus tendon
. Posterior tibial artery
. Tibial nerve
. Flexor hallucis longus tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tibialis posterior tendon


Explanation

The structures passing posterior to the medial malleolus from anterior to posterior are the Tibialis posterior tendon, Flexor digitorum longus, Posterior tibial Artery, Tibial Nerve, and Flexor hallucis longus. The tibialis posterior is the most anterior structure.

Question 7125

Topic: 2. Trauma

During a posteromedial surgical approach to the tibial plateau for internal fixation of a shear fracture, the surgeon dissects between the medial head of the gastrocnemius and the popliteus. Which major neurovascular structures are immediately at risk in this deep interval?

. Popliteal artery and tibial nerve
. Sural nerve and lesser saphenous vein
. Saphenous nerve and great saphenous vein
. Anterior tibial artery and deep peroneal nerve
. Peroneal artery and superficial peroneal nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Popliteal artery and tibial nerve


Explanation

The popliteal artery and tibial nerve pass vertically through the posterior knee, lying deep to the medial head of the gastrocnemius and superficial to the popliteus muscle.

Question 7126

Topic: 2. Trauma

A patient suffers a severe compartment syndrome of the anterior leg. Following fasciotomy, the patient has an irreversible loss of function of the deep peroneal nerve. Which of the following sensory deficits will definitively be present?

. Numbness over the lateral aspect of the foot
. Numbness over the plantar heel
. Numbness in the first dorsal web space
. Numbness along the medial lower leg
. Numbness over the lateral calf

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Numbness over the lateral aspect of the foot


Explanation

The deep peroneal nerve provides motor function to the anterior leg compartment and isolated sensory innervation to the first dorsal web space of the foot.

Question 7127

Topic: 2. Trauma

Following a displaced femoral neck fracture in an adult, the femoral head is at high risk for osteonecrosis. The most significant contributor to the vascular supply of the adult femoral head is the:

. Obturator artery
. Artery of the ligamentum teres
. Medial femoral circumflex artery
. Lateral femoral circumflex artery
. Inferior gluteal artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Obturator artery


Explanation

The deep branch of the medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA) provides the predominant blood supply to the adult femoral head. It courses posterior to the femoral neck, making it vulnerable in displaced fractures.

Question 7128

Topic: 2. Trauma

An intracapsular femoral neck fracture frequently compromises the blood supply to the femoral head. Which artery provides the primary blood supply to the mature adult femoral head?

. Artery of the ligamentum teres
. Inferior gluteal artery
. Medial femoral circumflex artery
. Lateral femoral circumflex artery
. First perforating artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Artery of the ligamentum teres


Explanation

The medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA) provides the dominant blood supply to the mature femoral head via its lateral epiphyseal branches. The artery of the ligamentum teres provides a negligible supply in adults.

Question 7129

Topic: Upper Extremity Trauma

The anterior bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) of the elbow is the primary restraint to valgus stress. Where is its primary anatomical insertion on the ulna?

. Tip of the olecranon
. Sublime tubercle
. Supinator crest
. Coronoid tip
. Radial notch

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tip of the olecranon


Explanation

The anterior bundle of the UCL originates on the anteroinferior surface of the medial epicondyle. It inserts on the sublime tubercle of the proximal ulna.

Question 7130

Topic: 2. Trauma

Avascular necrosis of the proximal pole of the scaphoid is a known complication following a waist fracture. This occurs because the primary arterial supply to the scaphoid enters at which location?

. Volar aspect of the proximal pole
. Dorsal ridge via the distal pole
. Directly into the waist via the volar radiocarpal ligaments
. The scapholunate interosseous ligament
. The tuberosity via the superficial palmar arch

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Volar aspect of the proximal pole


Explanation

The primary blood supply to the scaphoid comes from the dorsal carpal branch of the radial artery, which enters at the dorsal ridge near the distal pole. Blood flows retrograde to the proximal pole, making proximal fractures highly susceptible to osteonecrosis.

Question 7131

Topic: 2. Trauma

A patient undergoes a two-incision fasciotomy for a tibial shaft fracture complicated by compartment syndrome. Which muscle group must be carefully identified and released to ensure adequate decompression of the deep posterior compartment?

. Tibialis anterior and extensor hallucis longus
. Gastrocnemius and soleus
. Tibialis posterior and flexor digitorum longus
. Peroneus longus and brevis
. Popliteus and plantaris

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tibialis anterior and extensor hallucis longus


Explanation

The deep posterior compartment of the leg contains the tibialis posterior, flexor digitorum longus, and flexor hallucis longus. This compartment is notoriously under-released if the soleus bridge is not adequately taken down.

Question 7132

Topic: 2. Trauma

During a medial approach to the distal tibia for minimally invasive plating of a pilon fracture, the surgeon must protect the saphenous nerve. Which vascular structure closely travels with the saphenous nerve in this region?

. Great saphenous vein
. Small saphenous vein
. Popliteal vein
. Posterior tibial vein
. Anterior tibial vein

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Great saphenous vein


Explanation

The great saphenous vein courses anterior to the medial malleolus alongside the saphenous nerve, making both structures highly susceptible to injury during medial approaches to the distal tibia and ankle.

Question 7133

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 45-year-old sustains a displaced femoral neck fracture. Which of the following vessels provides the primary blood supply to the adult femoral head and is at greatest risk of disruption in this injury?

. Lateral femoral circumflex artery
. Medial femoral circumflex artery
. Obturator artery
. Inferior gluteal artery
. Superior gluteal artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral femoral circumflex artery


Explanation

The medial femoral circumflex artery, particularly its lateral epiphyseal branches, provides the predominant blood supply to the adult femoral head. Disruption of this vessel in displaced femoral neck fractures significantly increases the risk of avascular necrosis.

Question 7134

Topic: 2. Trauma

During open reduction internal fixation of a medial malleolus fracture, the surgeon explores the structures posterior to the medial malleolus. Moving from anterior to posterior, which structure lies immediately posterior to the flexor digitorum longus (FDL) tendon?

. Tibialis posterior tendon
. Posterior tibial artery
. Posterior tibial vein
. Tibial nerve
. Flexor hallucis longus tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tibialis posterior tendon


Explanation

The structures passing behind the medial malleolus from anterior to posterior are: Tibialis posterior, Flexor digitorum longus, Posterior tibial artery, Vein, Tibial nerve, and Flexor hallucis longus. Therefore, the posterior tibial artery lies immediately posterior to the FDL.

Question 7135

Topic: 2. Trauma

A patient with an unstable pelvic ring fracture requires percutaneous iliosacral screw fixation at the S1 level. If the screw trajectory is placed too far anteriorly and inferiorly to the sacral ala, which nerve root is at highest risk of iatrogenic injury?

. L3
. L4
. L5
. S1
. S2

Correct Answer & Explanation

. L3


Explanation

The L5 nerve root courses directly anterior to the sacral ala. An anteriorly misdirected iliosacral screw at S1 risks lacerating or compressing this nerve root.

Question 7136

Topic: 2. Trauma

A runner requires a lateral compartment fasciotomy for chronic exertional compartment syndrome. The surgeon must protect the superficial peroneal nerve. At what anatomical location does this nerve typically pierce the deep fascia to become subcutaneous?

. 2-3 cm distal to the fibular head
. At the level of the tibial tubercle
. In the middle third of the leg
. Approximately 10-12 cm proximal to the lateral malleolus tip
. Directly behind the lateral malleolus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 2-3 cm distal to the fibular head


Explanation

The superficial peroneal nerve typically pierces the crural fascia in the distal third of the leg, roughly 10-12 cm proximal to the lateral malleolus. It then transitions from the lateral compartment to the subcutaneous tissue.

Question 7137

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 26-year-old female presents with acute knee pain after a twisting injury while skiing. Plain radiographs demonstrate a small avulsion fracture from the lateral tibial plateau just distal to the articular surface. This radiographic finding is virtually pathognomonic for a concurrent tear of which of the following structures?

. Medial collateral ligament
. Posterior cruciate ligament
. Anterior cruciate ligament
. Lateral collateral ligament
. Popliteus tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medial collateral ligament


Explanation

The Segond fracture is an avulsion fracture of the anterolateral capsule and the anterolateral ligament (ALL) from the proximal lateral tibia. It is highly associated (greater than 75% of cases) with an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear.

Question 7138

Topic: 2. Trauma

An AP radiograph of a 30-year-old skier's knee following an acute pivoting injury demonstrates a small elliptical avulsion fracture of the lateral tibial plateau, just distal to the joint line. This radiographic finding is most highly associated with an injury to which of the following structures?

. Posterior cruciate ligament
. Medial collateral ligament
. Lateral collateral ligament
. Anterior cruciate ligament
. Medial patellofemoral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior cruciate ligament


Explanation

A Segond fracture is an avulsion of the anterolateral capsule (anterolateral ligament) from the lateral tibial plateau. It is considered highly pathognomonic (up to 75-100% association) for an underlying anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear.

Question 7139

Topic: Lower Extremity Trauma

A patient presents with a knee injury sustained from a blow to the anterolateral aspect of the flexed knee. Clinical examination reveals anteromedial rotatory instability (AMRI), characterized by valgus laxity and anterior subluxation of the medial tibial plateau. Which primary structure of the posteromedial corner is injured?

. Posterior oblique ligament (POL)
. Popliteofibular ligament
. Fibular collateral ligament
. Anterolateral ligament (ALL)
. Biceps femoris tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior oblique ligament (POL)


Explanation

Anteromedial rotatory instability (AMRI) is the clinical hallmark of a posteromedial corner injury. The posterior oblique ligament (POL) and the superficial MCL are the primary restraints to valgus and external rotation forces in this quadrant.

Question 7140

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 30-year-old male is brought to the trauma bay after a high-speed motorcycle collision. Examination of his right lower extremity reveals a grossly unstable knee with positive anterior, posterior, and valgus stress testing. The foot is warm, and dorsalis pedis pulses are palpable. The Ankle-Brachial Index (ABI) is measured at 0.8. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Discharge with a hinged knee brace and schedule an outpatient MRI
. Immediate operative exploration and primary ligamentous repair
. CT angiography of the lower extremity
. Application of a knee immobilizer and weight-bearing as tolerated
. Prophylactic four-compartment fasciotomy of the leg

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Discharge with a hinged knee brace and schedule an outpatient MRI


Explanation

In the setting of a multiligament knee injury (knee dislocation), an ABI less than 0.9 mandates further advanced vascular imaging, such as a CT angiogram, to rule out a popliteal artery injury. Palpable pulses alone do not reliably exclude an intimal tear or evolving occlusion.