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Question 4301

Topic: 2. Trauma
A 40-year-old male motorcyclist sustains a Gustilo-Anderson IIIB open fracture of the middle third of the tibia. Following thorough surgical debridement and skeletal stabilization, what is the optimal timeframe for soft tissue coverage to minimize the risk of deep infection?
. Within 72 hours
. Within 1 week
. Between 7 to 10 days
. Between 2 to 3 weeks
. After complete secondary granulation tissue formation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Within 72 hours


Explanation

Based on Godina's classic principles, early soft tissue coverage of severe open tibia fractures, ideally within 72 hours, significantly decreases the rates of deep infection, flap failure, and nonunion compared to delayed coverage.

Question 4302

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 55-year-old male heavy smoker falls from a roof, sustaining a highly comminuted, centrally depressed Sanders Type IV calcaneus fracture. Which treatment approach is associated with the lowest rate of long-term surgical complications and need for secondary procedures in this specific patient?

. Open reduction and internal fixation via an extensile lateral approach
. Closed reduction and percutaneous pinning
. Conservative management with prolonged non-weight bearing
. Primary subtalar arthrodesis
. Ilizarov external fixation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Open reduction and internal fixation via an extensile lateral approach


Explanation

Sanders Type IV calcaneus fractures (highly comminuted articular surface) have extremely poor outcomes with ORIF, especially in heavy smokers who are at high risk for wound complications. Primary subtalar arthrodesis provides faster recovery and avoids secondary salvage fusions.

Question 4303

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 30-year-old trauma patient arrives hemodynamically unstable with an "open book" pelvic fracture. A circumferential pelvic binder is applied in the emergency department. To optimally reduce the pelvic volume, over which anatomical landmarks should the binder be centered?

. The iliac crests
. The anterior superior iliac spines (ASIS)
. The greater trochanters
. The inferior pubic rami
. The umbilical line

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The iliac crests


Explanation

A pelvic binder must be centered over the greater trochanters to effectively close the pelvic ring and reduce the retroperitoneal volume. Placing it too high (e.g., over the iliac crests) is less effective and may inadvertently cause outward flaring of the lower pelvis.

Question 4304

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 22-year-old male sustains a severe bilateral pulmonary contusion and a closed midshaft femur fracture in a motor vehicle collision. His lactate is 4.5 mmol/L and he requires high FiO2. Following the principles of Damage Control Orthopedics (DCO), what is the most appropriate initial management of his femur fracture?

. Early Total Care with reamed intramedullary nailing
. Open reduction and plate fixation
. Skeletal traction via a proximal tibial pin for 6 weeks
. Temporary spanning external fixation
. Immediate unreamed intramedullary nailing

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Early Total Care with reamed intramedullary nailing


Explanation

In a borderline or unstable polytrauma patient with severe chest injury (pulmonary contusion) and elevated lactate, Damage Control Orthopedics is indicated. Temporary external fixation prevents the 'second hit' phenomenon (e.g., ARDS from marrow embolization during reaming) associated with early definitive nailing.

Question 4305

Topic: Upper Extremity Trauma
A 29-year-old quarterback falls onto his dominant shoulder and sustains the injury shown in Figures 14a and 14b. Management should consist of
. an arm sling.
. nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and a rapid return to activity.
. arthroscopic partial claviculectomy.
. acromioclavicular joint reduction and stabilization.
. acromionectomy.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. acromioclavicular joint reduction and stabilization.


Explanation

Type V acromioclavicular dislocations are characterized by elevation of the clavicle of 100% to 300% and involve extensive soft-tissue stripping. The treatment of choice is surgical reduction of the acromioclavicular joint and some type of stabilization. Treatment of type III injuries is controversial.

Question 4306

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 19-year-old collegiate middistance runner has a 4-year history of bilateral leg pain. Pain begins within 10 minutes after starting to run and is described as a “tightness and cramping in the front of the legs.” Symptoms resolve within 15 to 20 minutes of running cessation. A presumptive diagnosis of exercise-induced compartment syndrome (EICS) is made, and the patient elects to undergo compartmental pressure testing. What is the strongest indication for elective fasciotomy of the anterior compartment?

. Resting anterior compartment pressure of 13 mm Hg
. Numbness/tingling of the plantar foot during the exercise portion of the test
. minute postexercise anterior compartment pressure of 42 mm Hg
. minute postexercise anterior compartment pressure of 19 mm Hg

Correct Answer & Explanation

. minute postexercise anterior compartment pressure of 42 mm Hg


Explanation

DISCUSSIONThis clinical scenario describes a patient with EICS, marked by a nonphysiologic rise in muscle compartment pressure during exercise. Pressure testing is the best currently accepted method of diagnosis. Most physicians use the following criteria for diagnosis: resting pressure higher than 15 mm Hg, 1-minute postexercise pressure higher than 30 mm Hg, or 5-minute postexercise pressure higher than 20 mm Hg. Only 1-minute postexercise anterior compartment pressure of 42 mm Hg meets these criteria. Neurologic symptoms in the plantar foot would imply involvement of the posterior compartments and would not support the diagnosis of anterior compartment involvement.

Question 4307

Topic: 2. Trauma

03 A 13 y/o girl sustains the injury shown in Figures 69a and 69b in a fall. Examination reveals this to be an isolated injury, and the patient’s neurologic and vascular examinations are normal. Based on these findings, management should consist of

. – a long arm cast
. – closed reduction in the emergency dept and a long arm cast
. – closed reduction under general anesthesia and a long arm cast
. – closed reduction and percutaneous pin fixation
. – open reduction and internal fixationback answerQuestion 198.03

Correct Answer & Explanation

. – open reduction and internal fixationback answerQuestion 198.03


Explanation

Type B & C lateral condyle fxs in children are potentially unstable. Mintzer and associates recommended pinning of these fractures in the articular surface is not disrupted. To determine the status of the articular surface, they recommended arthrography. If the articular surface is intact, percpinning may be performed. If the articular surface shows that the fx line has extended into the joint and the articular surface is separated, open reduction and pinning are necessary. Once the fx is stabilized, the elbow is immobilized for 4 wks. The pins are then removed & motion is begun.back to this question next question

Question 4308

Topic: 2. Trauma

Which of the following injuries is most likely associated with the fracture seen in Figure A?

. Medial meniscal tear
. Lateral meniscal tear
. Lateral collateral ligament rupture
. Medial collateral ligament rupture
. Posterior cruciate ligament rupture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral meniscal tear


Explanation

Lateral meniscal tears are most commonly associated with Schatzker II tibial plateau fractures (split/depressed).Soft tissue pathology is common in tibial plateau fractures. In general, fractures that are largely displaced and/or a result of high energy trauma are more likely to have associated soft tissue pathology. A majority of meniscal injuries that occur in the setting of tibial plateau fractures are meniscocapsular detachments. This has important implications for healing (more reliable healing in the vascular zone). Additionally, the meniscus usually remains in close contact with the femoral condyle, while the tibial plateau widens around it. It is generally agreed upon that meniscal tears should be repaired, if possible, at the time of internal fixation to decrease the likelihood ofpostraumatic arthritis.Gardner et al. review 62 patients with Schatzker II tibial plateau fractures that had an MRI preoperatively. For displaced fractures, the incidence of lateral meniscal tears was 83%, while the incidence of lateral collateral and posterior cruciate ligament injuries was 30%.Ringus et al. attempted to determine if the degree of lateral tibial plateau fracture depression on computed tomography (CT) images predicted the presence of lateral meniscus tears. Fractures with > 9mm depression had an eight-fold increase in lateral meniscal tears, and those younger than 48 years-old had a four-fold increase in lateral meniscal tears.Illustration A shows an MRI of a Schatzker II tibial plateau fracture with a lateral meniscal detachment and a medial meniscal tear. Illustration B shows the Schatzker Classification, I-VI.Incorrect Answers:

Question 4309

Topic: 2. Trauma
A 12-year-old girl sustains an acute injury to the right elbow in a fall. An AP radiograph is shown in Figure 5. Nonsurgical management will most likely result in
. a painful nonunion.
. asymptomatic nonunion.
. chronic elbow instability.
. tardy ulnar nerve palsy.
. cubitus varus.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. asymptomatic nonunion.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The patient has a significantly displaced medial epicondyle fracture. The only absolute indication for surgical treatment is irreducible incarceration in the joint. Nonsurgical management usually results in a painless nonunion with good elbow function and little elbow instability. Prolonged immobilization should be avoided to prevent stiffness. Tardy ulnar nerve palsy and cubitus varus are not complications of medial epicondyle fractures. REFERENCES: Chamber HG, Wilkins KE: Part IV: Apophyseal injuries of the distal humerus, in Rockwood CA Jr, Wilkins KE, Beaty JH (eds): Fractures in Children, ed 4. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott-Raven, 1996, vol 3, pp 801-812. Farsetti P, Potenza V, Caterini R, Ippolito E: Long-term results of treatment of fractures of the medial humeral epicondyle in children. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2001;83:1299-1305.

Question 4310

Topic: 2. Trauma

An 80-year-old patient presents 8 months postoperatively with right groin pain. Examination reveals a leg length discrepancy of 1.5cm. Recent radiographs are seen in Figures A and B. What is the most appropriate treatment plan?

. Nail dynamization
. Hardware removal, correction of alignment with a Taylor spatial frame, insertion of bone autograft
. Exchange unreamed nailing with a longer, larger implant
. Augmentative plate fixation without nail removal, insertion of bone autograft
. Hardware removal, correction of alignment, plate fixation, insertion of bone autograft

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Nail dynamization


Explanation

This patient has atrophic non-union (NU) and varus collapse following cephalomedullary nailing of a subtrochanteric fracture. The ideal treatment involves nail removal, correction of alignment, fracture fixation, and bone grafting. Fixation can be achieved with a nail or plate.Subtrochanteric fractures can be treated with cephalomedullary nailing or fixed angle plates. Nailing of these fractures is technically challenging because the fracture must be reduced prior to nail passage. Failure to do so leads to varus and procurvatum malreduction.Bellabarba et al. reviewed plating of femoral nonunions after intramedullary nailing. Of 23 nonunions, 21 healed at an average of 12 weeks. The remaining 2 cases required repeat plating (at 2 and 8 weeks) for hardware breakage because of noncompliance with weightbearing restrictions. They advocate plating because it allows for correction of malalignment and provides a biomechanically superior tension band construct.Incorrect Answers:(SBQ12TR.48) A 28-year-old male college student sustains a severe foot injury from gunshot-related violence, and subsequently undergoes a lower-extremity amputationas shown in Figure A. At long-term follow-up, which of the following is the strongest predictor of patient satisfaction as related to his injury?Age less than 30Marijuana useUse of negative pressure wound therapyMale genderAbility to return to workThe strongest factor to predict patient-reported outcomes after trauma-related lower extremity amputations is the patient's ability to return to work. This is likely due to the effect of the return to work on the physical, emotional, and financial aspects of the patient's life.The LEAP study is a multicenter, prospective study evaluating multiple aspects of reconstruction versus amputation in the treatment of mangled extremity injuries. With regard to patient satisfaction, treatment variables such as decision for reconstruction versus amputation, or initial presence or absence of plantar sensation have little impact. In addition, demographic factors such as age, gender, socioeconomic status, and education level do not predict patient satisfaction. Instead, the most important predictors of patient satisfaction at 2 years after injury include the ability to return to work, absence of depression, faster walking speed, and decreased pain.O'Toole et al reviewed 463 patients treated for limb-threatening lower-extremity injuries and identified factors associated with patient reported outcomes two years after surgery. They found that return to work was the most associated with outcomes, but that physical functioning, walking speed, pain levels, and presence of depression were also associated to a lesser extent with outcomes.Bosse et al performed a multicenter, prospective study to assess outcomes of 569 patients with severe lower extremity limb injuries that resulted in either amputation orlimb salvage procedures. They found that at two years postoperatively, no significant differences were seen between groups in patient-reported outcome. Worse outcomes were associated with rehospitalization for a major complication, a low educational level, nonwhite race, poverty, lack of private health insurance, poor social-support network, low self-efficacy (the patient's confidence in being able to resume life activities), and involvement in disability-compensation litigation.Figure A shows a clinical photograph of a Pirigoff amputation at early follow-up. This amputation is an end-bearing amputation that utilizes the plantar heel pad for weightbearing, and relies on a tibiocalcaneal arthrodesis.Incorrect Answers:1-4: These options are not as strong of a factor of patient satisfaction in long-term follow up after trauma-induced lower extremity amputation.

Question 4311

Topic: 2. Trauma
A 28-year-old female firefighter fell from the top of a three-story building in the line of duty. She sustained a displaced pelvic fracture with more than 5 mm displacement. Compared to normal healthy controls, these patients have a higher incidence of
. normal sexual function and normal vaginal childbirth.
. sexual dysfunction (dyspareunia) and normal vaginal childbirth.
. normal sexual function and caesarean section childbirth.
. sexual dysfunction (dyspareunia) and caesarean section childbirth.
. normal sexual function and caesarean section childbirth until hardware removal.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. sexual dysfunction (dyspareunia) and caesarean section childbirth.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Pelvic trauma in women has been shown to increase the risk of sexual dysfunction and dyspareunia. Additionally, caesarean section childbirth is almost universal following pelvic trauma regardless of whether anterior pelvic hardware is present or not. REFERENCES: Copeland CE, Bosse MJ, McCarthy ML et al: Effect of trauma and pelvic fracture on female genitourinary, sexual, and reproductive function. J Orthop Trauma 1997;11:73-81. Wright JL, Nathans AB, Rivara FP, et al: Specific fracture configurations predict sexual and excretory dysfunction in men and women 1 year after pelvic fracture. J Urol 2006;176:1540-1545.

Question 4312

Topic: 2. Trauma
What is the most likely consequence of a vertebral compression fracture associated with osteoporosis?
. The fractured vertebral body gradually becomes more stiff than before the fracture.
. Scoliosis develops.
. There is an increased risk of more vertebral fractures.
. Overall sagittal alignment remains stable because the adjacent segments of the spine are able to compensate.
. The extensor musculature will often hypertrophy in an attempt to stabilize the painful fracture.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. There is an increased risk of more vertebral fractures.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: After an osteoporotic vertebral compression fracture, the risk of subsequent fractures at adjacent levels increases. This is felt to be the result of a shifting of the sagittal alignment more anteriorly, putting more stress on the osteopenic vertebral bodies and their anterior cortices. Pain generally resolves with rest, but this may take weeks or months. It has been demonstrated experimentally that osteoporotic vertebral bodies are actually less stiff and weaker after a compression fracture; therefore, deformity predisposes to further deformity. The extensor musculature often fatigues over time and usually does not hypertrophy. Frontal plane deformity is a rare development. REFERENCES: Heaney RP: The natural history of vertebral osteoporosis: Is low bone mass an epiphenomenon? Bone 1992;13:S23-S26. Tohmeh AG, Mathias JM, Fenton DC, et al: Biomechanical efficacy of unipedicular versus bipedicular vertebroplasty for the management of osteoporotic compression fractures. Spine 1999;24:1772-1776.

Question 4313

Topic: 2. Trauma
Figures 1 and 2 are the radiographs of an 18-year-old man who had surgery 6 months ago at an outside institution. He is being referred now because he has persistent pain. He is tender over the scaphoid at the snuffbox. What is the most appropriate next imaging step in his pain workup?
. MR imaging with contrast
. MR imaging without contrast
. CT scan along the scaphoid axis
. Axial-cut CT scans with reformats

Correct Answer & Explanation

. CT scan along the scaphoid axis


Explanation

Explanation: Scaphoid nonunions are difficult to diagnose on plain radiographs, which offer poor reliability when attempting to determine if there is bridging trabeculae crossing the fracture site. CT scans are more useful for diagnosing scaphoid nonunion. When scanned using conventional axial cuts, the slices may skip through the fracture nonunion site, thereby missing the defect, even with reformats. MR imaging is useful in diagnosing acute scaphoid fractures and has a high sensitivity and diagnostic value for excluding scaphoid fractures as well. Contrast does not enhance the utility of MR imaging in fracture diagnosis.

Question 4314

Topic: 2. Trauma

Which of the following is the best method of initial pelvic stabilization for a patient with hemodynamic instability and the pelvic ring injury seen in Figure 199?

. Symphyseal plating
. Iliosacral screw fixation
. Pelvic binder
. Pelvic C-clamp
. External fixation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Symphyseal plating


Explanation

For a patient with an unstable pelvic ring injury and hemodyamic instability, the most appropriate initial treatment method is a pelvic sheet or binder. Symphyseal plating and iliosacral screw fixation require surgical intervention and may be appropriate following initial stabilization. External fixation and the pelvic C-clamp can be applied in the emergency setting, but usually are reserved for patients who do not respond to simpler less invasive methods initially.

Question 4315

Topic: 2. Trauma

For a patient with a type II odontoid fracture, which of the following factors best predicts the development of a nonunion with nonsurgical management? Review Topic

. Frontal oblique pattern
. Magnitude of fracture displacement
. Degree of posterior angulation
. Age
. Patient history of diabetes mellitus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Frontal oblique pattern


Explanation

All five factors have been found to be associated with nonunion for type II odontoid fractures. Of these, initial fracture displacement of greater than 6 mm has the greatest association with the development of fracture nonunion.

Question 4316

Topic: 2. Trauma
A 24-year-old man sustained a grade IIIb open tibial fracture and an ipsilateral grade IIIa femoral fracture in a motorcycle accident. He is unresponsive, intubated, and has a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 8. He is resuscitated and taken to the operating room for definitive orthopaedic care. Which of the following intraoperative problems will most likely adversely affect his long-term outcome?
. Blood loss during debridement
. Prolonged tourniquet time
. Failure to stabilize both fractures with intramedullary nails
. Episodic hypotension
. Loss of dorsalis pedis pulse

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Episodic hypotension


Explanation

Traumatic brain injury is considered to be either primary or secondary. Primary injury is direct or impact damage to the brain, and secondary injury can have intracranial or systemic causes. While treatment has little impact on primary brain injury, secondary brain injury can be avoided. There are many causes of systemic secondary brain injury, but none has a greater impact on outcome than hypotension or hypoxia. In fact, the occurrence of hypotension postinjury causes a 10- to 15-fold increase in mortality.

Question 4317

Topic: 2. Trauma
A 9-year-old boy sustained a traumatic brain injury and right lower extremity trauma in an accident involving a motor vehicle and a pedestrian. Initial evaluation in the emergency department reveals an obtunded patient who is breathing spontaneously and withdraws appropriately to painful stimuli. After initial resuscitation and stabilization, a CT scan reveals a right parietal intracranial hemorrhage. Radiographs of the swollen right thigh are shown in Figures 32a and 32b. Management of the fractured femur should ultimately consist of
. immediate hip spica casting.
. closed reduction and percutaneous pin fixation supplemented by a hip spica cast.
. placement in 90-90 traction after insertion of a distal femoral traction pin.
. insertion of a reamed antegrade intramedullary nail starting at the piriformis fossa, stopping the nail short of the distal femoral growth plate.
. closed reduction and stabilization using retrograde flexible intramedullary nails.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. closed reduction and stabilization using retrograde flexible intramedullary nails.


Explanation

A child with a traumatic brain injury generally achieves significant neurologic recovery and has a more favorable prognosis than an adult. Early stabilization of fractures facilitates transportation of the child for diagnostic tests and decreases the incidence of shortening and malunion. Surgical treatment of the fracture is indicated when cerebral perfusion pressure has stabilized. The transverse femoral fracture in this patient is ideally suited for stabilization with flexible intramedullary nails.

Question 4318

Topic: 2. Trauma
Which of the following is most commonly associated with an open clavicular fracture?
. Scapulothoracic dissociation
. Closed head injury
. Calcaneus fracture
. Pelvic ring injury
. Open tibial fracture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Closed head injury


Explanation

Open clavicular fractures are rare and result from high-energy trauma. In a series of 20 patients with open clavicular fractures, 13 (65%) sustained a closed head injury. Fifteen (75%) had associated pulmonary injuries and 35% had a cervical or thoracic spine fracture. Screening for pulmonary and closed head injuries should be considered in the setting of traumatic open clavicular fractures.

Question 4319

Topic: 2. Trauma
A 65-year-old woman landed on her nondominant left shoulder in a fall. An AP radiograph is shown in Figure 39. Management should consist of
. closed reduction and immobilization.
. closed reduction and percutaneous pinning.
. open reduction and internal fixation.
. humeral hemiarthroplasty with tuberosity repair.
. total shoulder arthroplasty.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. humeral hemiarthroplasty with tuberosity repair.


Explanation

The radiograph reveals a four-part fracture-dislocation of the proximal humerus. Humeral hemiarthroplasty and tuberosity repair is the treatment of choice because the risk of osteonecrosis is high after attempted repair of this injury. Glenoid resurfacing is reserved for acute fractures in which there is significant preexisting glenoid arthrosis, such as in patients with rheumatoid arthritis.

Question 4320

Topic: 2. Trauma
The humeral nonunion shown in Figure 27 is most likely to unite when using what method of treatment?
. Intramedullary nail
. Pulsed electromagnetic fields
. Compression plate
. Intramedullary nail and bone graft
. Compression plate and bone graft

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Compression plate and bone graft


Explanation

The radiograph shows an atrophic nonunion of the humeral shaft. The management of humeral nonunions has been studied with compression plates and bone graft, as well as intramedullary nailing and bone graft. Compression plating with bone graft results in the highest rate of union. Compression plating by itself is not adequate, given the bone loss and lack of callus in this nonunion. Pulsed electromagnetic fields is a viable option for hypertrophic nonunions where there is inherent stability. Intramedullary nailing does not provide as much compression and stability as that achieved with compression plating.