Question 4301
Topic: 2. TraumaCorrect Answer & Explanation
. Within 72 hours
Practice Set 216 of 640
This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 2. Trauma. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
. Within 72 hours
A 55-year-old male heavy smoker falls from a roof, sustaining a highly comminuted, centrally depressed Sanders Type IV calcaneus fracture. Which treatment approach is associated with the lowest rate of long-term surgical complications and need for secondary procedures in this specific patient?
. Open reduction and internal fixation via an extensile lateral approach
A 30-year-old trauma patient arrives hemodynamically unstable with an "open book" pelvic fracture. A circumferential pelvic binder is applied in the emergency department. To optimally reduce the pelvic volume, over which anatomical landmarks should the binder be centered?
. The iliac crests
A 22-year-old male sustains a severe bilateral pulmonary contusion and a closed midshaft femur fracture in a motor vehicle collision. His lactate is 4.5 mmol/L and he requires high FiO2. Following the principles of Damage Control Orthopedics (DCO), what is the most appropriate initial management of his femur fracture?
. Early Total Care with reamed intramedullary nailing
. acromioclavicular joint reduction and stabilization.
A 19-year-old collegiate middistance runner has a 4-year history of bilateral leg pain. Pain begins within 10 minutes after starting to run and is described as a “tightness and cramping in the front of the legs.” Symptoms resolve within 15 to 20 minutes of running cessation. A presumptive diagnosis of exercise-induced compartment syndrome (EICS) is made, and the patient elects to undergo compartmental pressure testing. What is the strongest indication for elective fasciotomy of the anterior compartment?
. minute postexercise anterior compartment pressure of 42 mm Hg
03 A 13 y/o girl sustains the injury shown in Figures 69a and 69b in a fall. Examination reveals this to be an isolated injury, and the patient’s neurologic and vascular examinations are normal. Based on these findings, management should consist of
. – open reduction and internal fixationback answerQuestion 198.03
Which of the following injuries is most likely associated with the fracture seen in Figure A?

. Lateral meniscal tear
. asymptomatic nonunion.
An 80-year-old patient presents 8 months postoperatively with right groin pain. Examination reveals a leg length discrepancy of 1.5cm. Recent radiographs are seen in Figures A and B. What is the most appropriate treatment plan?

. Nail dynamization
. sexual dysfunction (dyspareunia) and caesarean section childbirth.
. There is an increased risk of more vertebral fractures.
. CT scan along the scaphoid axis
Which of the following is the best method of initial pelvic stabilization for a patient with hemodynamic instability and the pelvic ring injury seen in Figure 199?

. Symphyseal plating
For a patient with a type II odontoid fracture, which of the following factors best predicts the development of a nonunion with nonsurgical management? Review Topic
. Frontal oblique pattern
. Episodic hypotension
. closed reduction and stabilization using retrograde flexible intramedullary nails.
. Closed head injury
. humeral hemiarthroplasty with tuberosity repair.
. Compression plate and bone graft