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Question 4081

Topic: 2. Trauma
Figure 33 shows the radiograph of a 28-year-old avid golfer who has chronic right wrist pain. Management should consist of
. cast immobilization.
. splinting with a bone stimulator.
. excision of the fracture fragment.
. arthroscopically assisted percutaneous fixation.
. trephination of the fibrous union.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. excision of the fracture fragment.


Explanation

The patient’s chronic symptoms are associated with a fracture of the base of the hook of the hamate; therefore, the treatment of choice is simple excision of the fracture fragment, with reasonable expectations of functional return. Acute fractures may be difficult to treat because of the high incidence of nonunion, but once nonunion is discovered, nonsurgical management usually is unsuccessful. Bone grafting may be a surgical alternative, but successful outcomes with percutaneous fixation or trephination of the fibrous union have not been reported.

Question 4082

Topic: 2. Trauma

What is the most common complication following surgical treatment of a displaced talar neck fracture?

. Osteonecrosis
. Varus malunion
. Posttraumatic arthritis
. Fracture delayed union/nonunion
. Wound dehiscence/delayed wound healing

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Osteonecrosis


Explanation

The most frequent complication is posttraumatic arthritis. With talar neck fractures, osteonecrosis is relatively common, occurring in up to 50% of patients. Fracture nonunion occurs in 10% to 12% of patients. Varus malunion can occur with medial comminution. Wound dehiscence and deep infection are much less frequently encountered.(SBQ12TR.14) Elevated interleukin 6 (IL-6) is most closely associated to which of the following clinical outcomes in orthopedic trauma patients?Decreased mortality ratesIncreased mortality ratesDecreased osteomyelitis infection ratesIncreased rhabdomyolysis ratesIncreased compartmental syndrome ratesElevated levels of Interleukin 6 (IL-6) is most closely associated with higher injury severity scores and increased mortality rates in polytrauma orthopaedic patients.Hyperstimulation of the inflammatory system by major trauma is considered to be the key element in the pathogenesis of severe inflammatory response syndrome and multi-organ dysfunction syndrome. IL-6 is a complex acute-reactant cytokinase that is expressed by cells in response to tissue injury. IL-6 levels are associated with injury severity, complications, and mortality. Patients with the most severe injuries have the highest IL-6 serum levels.Sears et al. reviewed the markers of inflammation in major trauma. They suggest that interleukin-6 and human leukocyte antigen-DR class II molecules appear to have the greatest potential for use in predicting the clinical course and outcome in trauma patients. Early identification of traumatic patients, based on inflammatory markers and genomic predisposition, could help to guide intervention and treatment.Pape et al measured the perioperative concentrations of interleukin-6 in sixty-eight blunt trauma patients with non-life threatening pelvic fractures. Release of proinflammatory cytokines were higher in patients undergoing surgical procedures that cause increased blood loss. The release of markers seems to be related to the type and magnitude of surgery, rather than to the duration of the procedure.Illustration A shows a diagram of the acute inflammatory response after major trauma Incorrect Answers:

Question 4083

Topic: 2. Trauma
All of the following techniques can help to prevent apex-anterior angulation during intramedullary nailing of proximal one-third tibia fractures EXCEPT:
. posterior blocking screw
. posterior starting hole
. interlocking the nail in a semi-extended knee position
. anteriorly directing the nail
. anterior blocking screw

Correct Answer & Explanation

. interlocking the nail in a semi-extended knee position


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Sagittal malalignment is commonly seen after nailing proximal tibia fractures. The start point as well as the direction of the nail can lead to sagittal deformity. Lang found that a medialized nail entry point and a posteriorly and laterally directed nail insertion angle contributed to malalignment. It is logical that a fracture that is reamed and then nailed in the posterior direction will lead to a gap anteriorly, and that posterior comminution will lead to anterior angulation as the fracture hinges on the intact cortex anteriorly. An anterior starting hole will tend to lead to more of a posterior nail direction. Tornetta found that using only 15 degrees knee flexion (semi-extended) eliminated the extension force of the quadriceps on the proximal fragment, which otherwise would have tended to cause anterior angulation at the fracture site; therefore, interlocking in flexion leads to anterior angulation. Krettek found that a posteriorly placed blocking screw is meant to prevent posterior placement of the nail and therefore encourages decreased anterior angulation of the fracture.

Question 4084

Topic: 2. Trauma
A 53-year-old man is involved in a motor vehicle collision and sustains the closed distal femur fracture seen in Figures 54a and 54b. A precontoured distal femoral locking plate is selected for fixation. A locking construct should be used to
. make the construct as rigid as possible and minimize strain to promote primary bone healing.
. make the construct as rigid as possible and provide a high-strain environment to promote primary bone healing.
. provide a fixed-angle construct and bridge the area of comminution to minimize strain and promote secondary bone healing.
. provide a fixed-angle construct and bridge the area of comminution to provide a high-strain environment and promote secondary bone healing.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. provide a fixed-angle construct and bridge the area of comminution to minimize strain and promote secondary bone healing.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: This patient has a comminuted distal femur fracture. A fixed-angle device such as a locking plate is preferred to confer angular stability to the construct and prevent varus collapse. The strategy to promote union of the fracture is to provide a low-strain environment to allow bone healing. Strain is determined by the amount of motion over the length of a fracture. In the case of a noncomminuted fracture, the fracture surfaces can be compressed and rigid fixation applied to abolish strain and promote primary bone healing without callus. In the case of a comminuted fracture, the preferred fixation strategy focuses on distributing motion along the length of the fracture to provide a low-strain environment that will promote secondary bone healing and callus formation.

Question 4085

Topic: 2. Trauma
A 32-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after being involved in an MVC. He is found to have a closed left femoral shaft fracture (Figures A and B) and a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 13. A CT scan of the head is performed and demonstrates no significant bleeding. He has no other injuries and is hemodynamically stable. Which of the following statements is true?
. Early stabilization of the patient's femur fracture places him at risk for increased pulmonary complications
. Surgical intervention should be delayed due to the patient's head injury
. Damage control orthopaedics (DCO) using external fixation is indicated for this patient
. Early stabilization of the patient's femur fracture does not place the patient at increased risk for worsening neurologic outcomes
. A concomitant chest injury would always be a contraindication to early fixation of the patient's femur fracture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Early stabilization of the patient's femur fracture does not place the patient at increased risk for worsening neurologic outcomes


Explanation

Early stabilization of femur fractures in patients with concomitant head injuries has been found to have no increased risk of worsening neurologic outcomes. Recent data suggests that intramedullary nails done acutely leads to decreased pulmonary complications, decreased thromboembolic events, improved rehabilitation, decreased length of stay, and cost of hospitalization.

Question 4086

Topic: 2. Trauma
A 28-year-old woman who is training for the New York Marathon reports pain in the posteromedial aspect of her right ankle. Examination reveals tenderness just posterior to the medial malleolus. Radiographs are normal. An MRI scan is shown in Figure 3. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Posterior tibial tendinitis
. Osteoid osteoma
. Posterior ankle impingement
. Tibial stress fracture
. Flexor hallucis longus tendinitis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tibial stress fracture


Explanation

The MRI scan unequivocally shows the stress fracture in the distal tibia. Most tibial stress fractures can be managed with rest and immobilization.

Question 4087

Topic: 2. Trauma
Figures 75a through 75d show the radiographs of an 85-year-old woman who fell from a step and sustained a right proximal femur fracture. Six months after surgery she has knee pain. What is the most likely cause of her pain?
. Nail radius of curvature
. Osteoarthrosis
. Nonunion of fracture
. Improper starting point for nail

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Nail radius of curvature


Explanation

Discussion: Three cases of anterior distal femoral cortex penetration during intramedullary nailing for subtrochanteric fractures were documented by Ostrum and Levy in a 2005 study. It appears that the difference in femoral anteroposterior bow between the bone and the implant is a contributing factor to distal femoral anterior cortex penetration in intramedullary nailing of subtrochanteric fractures. There is no evidence of osteoarthrosis on the radiographs. Although nonunion is possible, based on the radiographic findings it is more likely that this patient's pain is attributable to the curvature of the nail. The lateral image of the hip reveals an appropriate starting point for the device.

Question 4088

Topic: 2. Trauma

An 18-month-old child was involved in a motor vehicle accident and sustained an isolated injury to the left upper extremity. A radiograph is shown in Figure 33. What is the most appropriate management for this injury?

. Hanging arm cast
. Closed reduction with flexible intramedullary nail fixation
. Coaptation splinting and bandaging the arm to the thorax
. Closed reduction and external fixation
. Locking plate fixation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hanging arm cast


Explanation

Humeral shaft fractures in infants and young children heal rapidly and have excellent remodeling potential. Appropriate treatment in this age group is immobilization with a coaptation splint and bandaging the arm to the thorax for comfort. Internal fixation is appropriate in multiple trauma, and external fixation may be useful when soft-tissue injury is extensive.

Question 4089

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 32-year-old man sustains a pilon fracture which is treated initially with a spanning external fixator, as shown in figure A. He is now 3 weeks from injury and skin swelling has subsided significantly. What is the most appropriate definitive treatment?

. open reduction internal fixation of the fibula only
. open reduction internal fixation of the tibia and fibula
. removal of external fixator and conversion to a walking cast
. dynamization of the external fixator
. tibio-talar arthrodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. open reduction internal fixation of the fibula only


Explanation

External fixation is a temporizing treatment that allows the soft tissues to return to normal while maintaining your overall alignment. A fibular plate can help keep the length. Final treatment involves restoration of the tibial plafond articular surface which can only be done with ORIF +/- bone grafting. There is no role for primary arthrodesis in this young patient.OrthoCash 2020

Question 4090

Topic: 2. Trauma
A 25-year-old male is involved in a high-speed motor vehicle collision and sustains a closed femoral shaft fracture. During further evaluation, a CT scan of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis reveals a non-displaced ipsilateral femoral neck fracture. Which of the following treatment options will most likely achieve anatomic healing of both fractures, mobilize the patient, and minimize the risk of complications?
. Retrograde femoral nail followed by compression hip screw
. Lag screw fixation followed by plating of the femoral shaft
. Antegrade femoral nail followed by lag screw fixation
. Lag screw fixation followed by retrograde femoral nail
. Proximal femoral locking plate

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lag screw fixation followed by retrograde femoral nail


Explanation

An ipsilateral femoral neck fracture occurs in approximately 6% to 9% of all femoral shaft fractures. A comminuted midshaft femoral fracture secondary to axial loading should alert the treating physician to the possibility of an associated femoral neck fracture. Trauma CT scans should be reviewed for non-displaced or minimally displaced femoral neck fractures during the initial workup. Lag screw fixation of the femoral neck fracture and reamed intramedullary nailing for shaft fracture stabilization are associated with the fewest complications. Due to the potentially devastating complications of the femoral neck fracture in young patients (avascular necrosis, nonunion, and malunion), the neck fracture should be treated first, followed by the shaft. Current recommendations involve treating the neck with a sliding hip screw or cannulated screws, followed by intramedullary nailing of the femoral shaft.

Question 4091

Topic: 2. Trauma
An anatomic reduction is obtained at the femoral neck. The most likely reason for development of avascular necrosis (AVN) in this scenario would be:
. An ORIF delay exceeding 24 hours because of hemodynamic instability.
. An associated femur fracture.
. Patient age and mechanism of injury.
. Treatment with a closed reduction.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Patient age and mechanism of injury.


Explanation

Avascular necrosis (AVN) is more common among physiologically young patients after femoral neck fractures. The higher energy of injury is a likely contributor. Closed reduction has not been shown to increase the risk for AVN when an anatomic reduction is obtained. A surgical delay of 24 hours does not cause AVN. Patients with associated femoral shaft fractures are not at increased risk for AVN; in fact, some studies have shown a relatively lower rate of AVN when a femoral neck fracture is associated with a femoral shaft fracture.

Question 4092

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 25-year-old woman sustains a fall on an outstretched hand. She complains of elbow pain. Examination reveals tenderness over the lateral elbow and pain on elbow motion. Injury radiographs and CT scans are shown in Figures A and B, respectively. What is the next best step?

. Splint until swelling subsides, then long-arm cast
. Excision of fracture fragments
. Closed reduction and percutaneous pinning
. Open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF)
. Radial head replacement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Splint until swelling subsides, then long-arm cast


Explanation

This patient has Mason II radial head fracture. ORIF will give the best results.Non-/minimally displaced radial head fractures without a block to rotation can be managed nonoperatively. Complete articular fractures with >=3 fragments do better with radial head replacement. Indications for ORIF include large articular surface fragments, > 2 mm of displacement, mechanical block to forearm rotation, or associated fractures or ligament injuries requiring surgery.Pike et al. retrospectively compared patients undergoing ORIF for isolated radial head fractures with radial fractures associated with other fractures/dislocations. They found no differences in pain/disability and complications or secondary capsular release between groups.Yoon et al. retrospectively compared isolated partial articular displaced (2-5mm) radial head fractures treated nonoperatively vs ORIF. They found no clinical benefit with ORIF compared to non-operative management. The ORIF group had more complications. Younger patient age and larger fracture displacement favored operative intervention. Younger patients fared worse.Figures A and B are radiographs and 3D reformatted CT images showing a displaced partial articular radial head fracture.Incorrect Answers:>= 3 fragments.

Question 4093

Topic: 2. Trauma
A 12-year-old boy sustained a grade III open tibial fracture 1 week ago and underwent multiple debridements and fracture fixation. He now has a soft-tissue defect that measures 6 cm × 6 cm, with an area of exposed bone and muscle on the distal medial leg that is a few centimeters proximal to the ankle. Management of the soft-tissue defect should now consist of:
. A gastrocnemius flap.
. A split-thickness skin graft.
. Vacuum-assisted closure (VAC), followed by possible skin graft.
. Wet-to-dry dressing, followed by possible skin graft.
. Below-knee amputation.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Vacuum-assisted closure (VAC), followed by possible skin graft.


Explanation

The soft-tissue defect is in a difficult position—the distal tibia. The defect is too distal for a gastrocnemius flap, and the exposed bone precludes an immediate skin graft. Vacuum-assisted closure (VAC) is very effective in soft-tissue defects such as this one. Healthy granulation tissues form quickly. VAC can be the definitive treatment, or it can be used before skin grafting. Wet-to-dry dressings could promote granulation, but the process is hastened substantially by VAC.

Question 4094

Topic: 2. Trauma
In a statement put forth by the AAOS, the role of the orthopaedic surgeon in the face of domestic and family abuse includes all of the following EXCEPT:
. Be aware that he or she may be the first physician to be caring for the victims
. Ensure that they maintain comprehensive and accurate medical records documenting the events and examinations
. Care should resume once the patient's social situation is evaluated and assessed
. Transfer an elderly victim who is in immediate danger to a hospital emergency department and notify the emergency department physician of the transfer and the reasons for your concern
. Advocate for appropriate legislation and public policy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Care should resume once the patient's social situation is evaluated and assessed


Explanation

Regardless of the social situation, the orthopaedic surgeon's primary role is to proceed and offer expeditious and appropriate care for the patient's injuries. The statement put forth by the AAOS implores the orthopaedic surgeon to be aware of the integral components to identify, document, and care for minors, elders, and/or partners who are victims of domestic abuse. Care should not be delayed while waiting for a social situation to be evaluated.

Question 4095

Topic: 2. Trauma
Figure 76 is the radiograph of a 77-year-old patient with a history of myeloma who has had severe arm pain after opening a jar. Pain was present for 3 months prior to injury. The most biomechanically stable construct for this fracture is
. intramedullary nailing (IMN).
. IMN and cement.
. plate.
. plate and cement.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. plate and cement.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Although intramedullary nails or plates with screws, either of which may be combined with cement, may be used as internal fixation for a displaced humeral diaphyseal pathologic fracture, torsional performance is best biomechanically when the canal is filled with cement and fixed with a plate. In the largest comparative biomechanical study to date, 40 artificial humeri were divided into 5 different constructs and tested in torsion. The construct that resisted the largest load to failure was the construct at which the canal and tumor defect were filled with bone cement and the screws were inserted into dry cement. That being said, the weaknesses of the plate and cement technique include the potential for poor quality bone adjacent to and extending away from the fracture site and difficulty in protecting the entire bone from progression of local disease. Numerous factors beyond just the biomechanics, including the patient’s disease load and comorbidities, the underlying primary disease and responsiveness to radiotherapy and other adjuvant treatments, and the location and local extent of disease, must be considered when determining the best operative technique to employ in each patient with a pathologic fracture.

Question 4096

Topic: 2. Trauma
A 26-year-old man sustains a displaced bimalleolar fracture by sliding into second base while playing baseball. Following initial closed reduction and splinting of the fracture, moderate swelling is noted. What is the safest time to perform surgery?
. Immediately
. When skin wrinkles are present and abrasions are epithelialized
. Five days after injury
. Following analysis of laser Doppler skin measurements
. Following measurement of transcutaneous oxygen tension

Correct Answer & Explanation

. When skin wrinkles are present and abrasions are epithelialized


Explanation

Following any closed fracture, the most important determinant for the timing of surgery is the condition of the soft tissues and especially the skin. The best determinant of appropriate soft-tissue condition is the presence of wrinkling of the skin (wrinkle sign) at the site of the incision. A wrinkle sign is present when all the interstitial edema has left the skin; this may take up to 14 to 21 days of elevation. Any abrasion must be epithelialized so that there are no bacteria left at the site. To date, no other method of soft-tissue viability measurement has been shown to be of any clinical benefit.

Question 4097

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 73-year-old man sustains the fracture shown in Figure 62. Which of the following factors or combination of factors puts this patient at highest risk for nonunion if nonsurgical management is used?

. Advanced age and shortening
. Fracture displacement and rotation
. Mid diaphyseal fracture
. Male gender
. Fracture comminution, fracture displacement, and advanced age

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Advanced age and shortening


Explanation

Most textbooks and early publications list the incidence of complications of nonsurgical treatment of clavicle fractures as very low. However, recent studies on this topic have found an entirely different picture. The studies show that patients reported shoulder weakness and fatigability, upper extremity dysesthesia, and shoulder asymmetry with an incidence of 31%. Indications for surgery in the past have included open fractures, associated neurovascular injury, and widely displaced fractures tenting the skin. Fractures with more than 2 cm of shortening and comminuted fractures with significant displacement have been associated with poor outcomes. Nonunion after nonsurgical management was found to be more common in the study by Robinson and associates in displaced comminuted fractures, in patients with advanced age and female gender.

Question 4098

Topic: 2. Trauma
A 16-year-old high school football player who sustained an acute forceful dorsiflexion ankle injury reported that he felt a pop and then noted immediate swelling over the lateral malleolus. Examination 24 hours later reveals moderate swelling and tenderness along the lateral malleolus. The external rotation, squeeze, anterior drawer, and talar tilt tests are negative. Subluxation of the peroneal tendons is palpable over the peroneal groove of the fibula. Radiographs reveal a small cortical avulsion off the distal rim of the fibula. The stress views show no instability. Initial management for this injury should include:
. a lace-up ankle splint and progressive activities.
. anatomic repair of the anterior talofibular and calcaneofibular ligaments.
. Kirschner wire and tension band fixation of the cortical avulsion fracture off the fibula.
. local ligament transfer and reconstruction of the lateral ankle ligaments.
. protected weight bearing and a short leg cast for 6 weeks.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. protected weight bearing and a short leg cast for 6 weeks.


Explanation

The patient has an acute peroneal tendon dislocation. The evaluation for syndesmotic injury and lateral ankle instability is negative. The cortical avulsion off the distal tip of the lateral malleolus, a rim fracture, is characteristic of peroneal tendon dislocations. The sensation of apprehension or frank subluxation of the peroneal tendons with active dorsiflexion of the foot while the foot is held in plantar flexion confirms the diagnosis. Based on these findings, initial management should consist of cast immobilization and protected weight bearing. If a recurrent or chronic condition develops, surgery is the most reliable treatment option.

Question 4099

Topic: 2. Trauma
A patient sustained the injuries shown in the radiographs and clinical photograph seen in Figures 10a through 10c. The neurovascular examination is normal. The first step in emergent management of the extremity injuries should consist of
. application of a femoral traction pin.
. intramedullary nailing of the femur and tibia.
. surgical irrigation and debridement.
. external fixation of the femoral fracture.
. reduction of the femoral head.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. reduction of the femoral head.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The figures show an open tibial fracture, a femoral shaft fracture, and femoral head dislocation. The most urgent treatment is reduction of the femoral head, as timing to reduction has been correlated with preventing osteonecrosis. After reduction of the femoral head, the next priority is wound management, followed by stabilization of the femoral and tibial fractures with either splinting, traction, or external fixation. REFERENCES: Sahin V, Karakas ES, Aksu S, et al: Traumatic dislocation and fracture-dislocation of the hip: A long-term follow-up study. J Trauma 2003;54:520-529. Moed BR, Willson-Carr SE, Watson JT: Results of operative treatment of fractures of the posterior wall of the acetabulum. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2002;84:752-758.

Question 4100

Topic: 2. Trauma

By which mechanism can a true aneurysm of the ulnar artery result?

. Blunt trauma
. Stab wound
. Gunshot wound
. Arterial catheterizationTrue aneurysms contain all arterial layers. As such, they occur following an arterial injury that allows the vessel to gradually dilate. A true aneurysm is more uniform in shape and is characterized by having an endothelial lining. True aneurysms result from repeated blunt trauma or vessel diseases that weaken the wall. A pseudoaneurysm, or false aneurysm, results from an arterial wall penetration. The extravasated hematoma subsequently organizes and then recanalizes. The lumen of this false aneurysm has no endothelial lining. Pseudoaneurysms result from penetrating injuries from external sources or from fractures.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Blunt trauma


Explanation

Figures 1 and 2 are the radiographs of a 17-year-old boy who injured his wrist 6 months ago. He is experiencing pain and limited motion. What is the most effective treatment option?