Question 4021
Topic: 2. TraumaFigures 31a and 31b are the radiographs of a 5-year-old boy with an elbow injury.
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Plain radiographs
Practice Set 202 of 640
This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 2. Trauma. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Figures 31a and 31b are the radiographs of a 5-year-old boy with an elbow injury.
. Plain radiographs
. Ganz periacetabular
. Annular ligament interposition
. non-weight-bearing crutch ambulation until symptoms resolve, followed by a gradual resumption of activities.
. Exertional compartment pressures
. 72 hours
. Protrusion of Kirschner wire fixation through the volar cortex of the proximal ulna
A 24-year-old woman is thrown from her motorcycle and sustains the closed injury shown in Figures A through C. Open reduction and internal fixation is planned. What surgical technique will best allow visualization of the joint surface and allow early range of motion?

. Bryan-Morrey approach and parallel plating
. Decreased risk of compartment syndrome
A 12-year-old boy reports the acute onset of pain and a pop over the right side of his pelvis while swinging a baseball bat during a Little League game. Radiographs reveal an avulsion of the anterior superior iliac spine with 2 cm of displacement. Management should consist of Review Topic
. open reduction and internal fixation of the fragment along with the rectus femoris.
. Intramedullary rodding
. deep and centrally placed, respecting the articular surface.
. Insert a standard humeral prosthesis with suture fixation and autogenous cancellous bone grafting of the greater tuberosity fracture.
. related mainly to the timing of soft-tissue coverage.
. Neutralization
Figures 1 and 2 are the radiograph and MRI scan of a 16-year-old boy who injured his right knee by a lateral side impact while playing football. The MRI indicates what structure was most likely injured?

. Lateral collateral ligament
A 35-year-old construction worker sustained a midshaft clavicle fracture that developed a hypertrophic nonunion. One year after the injury, it was internally fixed without bone graft. Four months after the surgery he was asymptomatic and he was released to full activity. Five months following surgery, the patient was digging a ditch and he felt pain in the clavicle. The 4-month and 5-month postoperative radiographs are shown in Figures 117a and 117b. What is the most likely cause of this failure? Review Topic

. Iliac crest bone graft was not used to augment the fixation
. ulnar collateral ligament insufficiency.
Use of titanium elastic nailing for treatment of pediatric femur fractures is associated with a higher complication rate among
. patients younger than age 6.5.
A 26-year-old male underwent statically locked intramedullary nail fixation for a comminuted left femur fracture. An early post-operative computed tomography (CT) scanogram was taken to check rotational alignment, as shown in Figure A. What would be the next best step in the management of this patient?

. Observation and close follow-up