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Question 3981

Topic: 2. Trauma
A 24-year-old woman who has hypotension, a head injury, and who experienced a poor response to resuscitation has been taken to the operating room for a splenectomy. Following abdominal surgery she remains unstable with increasing pulmonary respiratory pressures and decreasing oxygen saturation. She has a transverse mid-diaphyseal fracture of the tibia with a 4-cm laceration and soil-contaminated muscle in the wound. Based on these findings, management should consist of
. debridement and locked intramedullary nailing.
. debridement and plate fixation.
. debridement and external fixation.
. debridement and traction.
. skeletal traction.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. debridement and external fixation.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Because the patient is critically ill and requires expeditious care, stabilization of the long bone fracture is required, but definitive care of the fracture should be postponed. The treatment of choice at this time is irrigation with 12 L of saline solution, followed by debridement and nondefinitive stabilization with a simple four-pin external frame to regain axial and rotational alignment. When the patientโ€™s condition is more stable, more definitive care can be performed.

Question 3982

Topic: Pelvic & Acetabular Trauma
Which of the following radiographic images is best for detecting anterior acetabular deficiency in the dysplastic hip?
. Pelvic inlet
. Judet
. AP pelvis
. False profile
. Frog lateral

Correct Answer & Explanation

. False profile


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The false profile view of Lequesne and de Seze is obtained with the patient standing with the affected hip on the cassette, the ipsilateral foot parallel to the cassette, and the pelvis rotated 65 degrees from the plane of the cassette. This view best assesses anterior coverage of the femoral head.

Question 3983

Topic: 2. Trauma

A polytrauma patient sustains a right bicondylar tibial plateau fracture and a right humeral shaft fracture both treated with open reduction and internal fixation. He also underwent statically locked intramedullary nailing of a left femoral shaft fracture. What is the appropriate weightbearing status?

. Non-weight bearing bilateral lower extremities and right upper extremity
. Weight bearing as tolerated bilateral lower extremities and right upper extremity
. Non-weight bearing left lower extremity and weight bearing as tolerated right upper and right lower extremities
. Non-weight bearing right lower extremity and weight bearing as tolerated right upper and left lower extremities
. Weight bearing as tolerated bilateral lower extremities and non-weight bearing right upper extremity

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Non-weight bearing bilateral lower extremities and right upper extremity


Explanation

The standard treatment for a bicondylar tibial plateau fractures is a period of post-operative non-weight bearing.Tingstad et al found favorable results of immediate weightbearing on humeral shaft fractures treated with plating and full weightbearing did not have any effect on the union or malunion rates.Brumback et al evaluated the feasibility, safety and efficacy of immediateweightbearing after treatment of femoral shaft fractures with statically locked IM nail. All the patients went on to union and no loss of fixation occurred.OrthoCash 2020

Question 3984

Topic: 2. Trauma
An active 49-year-old woman who sustained a diaphyseal fracture of the clavicle 8 months ago now reports persistent shoulder pain with daily activities. An AP radiograph is shown in Figure 8. Management should consist of
. external electrical stimulation.
. external ultrasound stimulation.
. implanted electrical stimulation.
. closed reduction and percutaneous fixation.
. open reduction and internal fixation with bone graft.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. open reduction and internal fixation with bone graft.


Explanation

The radiograph reveals an atrophic nonunion of the diaphysis of the clavicle. Electrical or ultrasound stimulation may be an option in diaphyseal nonunions that have shown some healing response with callus formation, but these techniques are not successful in an atrophic nonunion. The preferred technique for achieving union is open reduction and internal fixation with bone graft. Percutaneous fixation has no role in treatment of nonunions of the clavicle.

Question 3985

Topic: 2. Trauma
A 23-year-old man had a laparotomy and splenectomy with packing of the abdomen after a motorcycle collision. Laboratory studies show a hemoglobin level of 7.1 g/dL (reference range [rr], 14.0-17.5 g/dL) and a lactate level of 8.0 mmol/L (rr, 0.6-1.7 mmol/L). He also has a left humeral fracture, an anteroposterior compression I pelvic fracture, bilateral distal third femur fractures, and an open Gustilo-type IIIA tibial diaphysis fracture with moderate contamination. What is the most appropriate treatment to administer before leaving the operating room?
. Saline lavage and splinting of the tibia and knee immobilizers of both femurs
. Betadine dressing and splinting of the tibia with unlocked retrograde nailing of both femurs
. Betadine dressing and external fixation of the tibia and knee immobilizers of both femurs
. Irrigation and debridement and external fixation of the tibia and external fixation of both femurs
. Irrigation and debridement and external fixation of the tibia and unlocked retrograde nailing of both femurs

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Irrigation and debridement and external fixation of the tibia and external fixation of both femurs


Explanation

DISCUSSION: In a patient with damage control orthopedics (DCO) criteria (e.g., polytrauma, coagulopathy, acidosis), the goal is to stabilize fractures with the least invasive method possible to minimize systemic inflammatory response. External fixation is the preferred method for both the open tibial fracture and the femoral fractures in this unstable patient.

Question 3986

Topic: 2. Trauma

Haversian canals are found in the center of an osteon in compact bone. They contain blood vessels and nerves.

. A prosthetic foot which incorporates a multi-axis articulated foot assembly is recommended for which of the following amputees?
. Low functioning diabetic who needs to transfer bed to chair
. Long distance runner with below knee amputation
. Elderly male with above knee amputation
. Below knee amputee who needs to regularly walk on uneven ground
. year-old male with above knee amputation from osteosarcoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A prosthetic foot which incorporates a multi-axis articulated foot assembly is recommended for which of the following amputees?


Explanation

The multi-axis articulated foot assembly is the best prosthetic for ambulation over uneven ground, and functions best for below knee amputations. Low functioning patients who need a prosthesis for transfers would probably benefit from a solid ankle, cushioned heel prosthesis. Runners and athletes often require high end carbon fiber prostheses. Patients with above kneeamputations have several options to optimize ambulation including solid, energy storing, and multi-axial prothesis.Aaron et al. reviews the important considerations for patient specific prostheses and new developments on the horizon to maximize ambulation in prosthesis users.Mesenchymal stem cells have the capacity to differentiate into all the following cell types EXCEPT?OsteoclastsChondrocytesAdipocytesOsteoblastsFibroblastsMesenchymal stem cells are multipotent stem cells which retain the ability to self-renew and to form cells of the mesenchymal lineage. They can therefore form muscle, fat, tendon (made from fibroblasts), bone, cartilage, and the marrow stromal cells. Mesenchymal stem cells do not however form osteoclasts, which are formed from the monocyte lineage - from hematopoietic stem cells.Caterson et al review the use of mesenchymal stem cells in tissue engineering and regeneration of musculoskeletal tissue.A 60 year-old male was brought into the operating room for total hip replacement. Before making the incision, what precautionary procedure must be performed by the entire staff to minimize surgical error?Mark the word "No" on the nonoperative extremitiesUse intraoperative fluoroscopic imagingPerform "timeout"Have blood products ready in the operating roomUse the newest prosthesisSurgical "timeout" is now part of the standard procedure which must be performed before starting surgery to minimize surgical error such as wrong site surgery.Which of the following statements regarding articular cartilage is TRUE?Cartilage is an isotropic materialMost of the water in articular cartilage exists in the deep layer next to the calcified cartilageCartilage only heals if the injury does not pass through the tidemarkCalcified cartilage is the only place that type IV collagen is foundCartilage exhibits stress shielding of the solid matrix componentsCartilage exhibits significant stress shielding of the solid matrix components due to its high water content, the non-compressibility of water, and the structural organization of collagen and proteoglycans. Cartilage is composed of a permeable porous matrix and 65 to 80% of the total weight of articular cartilage is made up of water. A pressure gradient causes the water to flow through the porous-permeable solid matrix. Significant flow of fluid through the solid matrix requires high hydrodynamic pressures because of the lowpermeability of the solid matrix.The other answers are incorrect because cartilage is anisotropic, most of the water is located in the superficial layers, it only heals if the injury does pass through the tidemark, type X collagen is found in calcified cartilage and is thought to be involved in mineralization. Type IV collagen is found in the basal lamina.A 38-year-old patient presents 6 months after intramedullary nailing of a distal third tibia fracture with symptoms consistent with complex regional pain syndrome. During the early stage of the disease he was treated with intermittent splinting, elevation and massage, contrast baths, and transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation. Despite these modalities, he continues to have severe and debilitating symptoms. Which of the following treatment options is indicated as a second line of treatment?Long leg cast immobilization for 3 monthsWalking boot with non weight bearing for three monthsExchange nailing to stimulate healing response to the limbEpidural spinal cord stimulatorSurgical sympathectomy of the affected limbComplex regional pain syndrome is a chronic progressive disease of unknown etiology characterized by pain, swelling and skin changes. If nonoperative modalities fail, a surgical sympathectomy of the affected limb is indicated.The first line of treatment is physical therapy including intermittent splinting, elevation and massage, contrast baths, and transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation. Aggressive passive range-of-motion exercises should be avoided. If nonoperative modalites fail and symptoms remain severe, a surgical sympathectomy of the affected limb is indicated.Keys to successful treatment include early clinical suspicion and treatment. Late CRPS is highly refractory to treatment and often results in permanent disability.Two forms of Complex regional pain syndrome exist: 1) Reflex sympathetic dystrophy- which does not demonstrate nerve lesions, and 2) Causalgia - which is associated with damage to peripheral nerves. Diagnostic criteria include:Major criteria: intense and prolonged pain, swelling, stiffness, and discoloration (vasomotor disturbances).Minor criteria: trophic changes, osseous demineralization, temperature changes, and palmar fibromatosis.Tran et al present their systemic review of 41 RCTs of the research regarding treatment of CRPS. Their data suggest that only bisphosphonates offer clear medicinal benefits in the treatment of CRPS. Evidence regarding a beneficial effect of lumbar sympathetic blocks, gabapentin, and physical therapy is lacking. As such, these authors advocate for further study thru well-designed RCTs to better evaluate appropriate and effective treatment strategies.You are planning an intramedullary nail to treat a geriatric patient with a peritrochanteric femur fracture. Which of the following preoperative considerations is correct regarding your implant?The radius of curvature of an intramedullary nail is generally greater than the radius of curvature of the femurClosed section nails have less stiffness than slotted nailsThe medial/lateral nail starting point relative to the greater trochanter does not affect varus/valgus position in the fractureThe bending stiffness of your nail is proportional to the second power of the radiusIntramedullary nails allow for mostly direct intramembranous bone healingThe radius of curvature of an intramedullary nail is generally greater than the radius of curvature of the femur, which is why anterior distal femurpenetration is a known complication of intramedullary nailing procedures.Egol et al. evaluated the radius of curvature of 948 femurs (474 matched pairs) and compared those data with current intramedullary nails. He found the average femoral anterior radius of curvature was 120 cm (ยฑ 36 cm)whereas the radius of curvature of the intramedullary nails ranged from 186 to 300 cm.The other answers are incorrect because closed section nails have more stiffness than slotted nails. The starting position on the greater trochanter greatly affects the post- operative varus/valgus of the fracture. Intramedullary nails allow for mostly indirect enchondral bone healing due to relative motion at the fracture site.All of the following antibiotics function by interfering with protein synthesis by inhibiting ribosomes EXCEPTgentamicintobramycinvancomycinerythromycinlinezolidGentamicin and tobramycin are aminoglycosides that function by inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis via irreversible binding to ribosomal subunits. Erythromycin functions by binding to the 50s subunit of the bacterial 70s rRNA complex and thereby inhibits protein synthesis. Linezolid binds to the 23s portion of the ribosomal subunit and inhibits protein synthesis. In contrast, Vancomycin acts by inhibiting proper cell wall synthesis and does not inhibit the ribosome.The bending rigidity of the implant shown in Figure A is proportional to what power of the measured radius of the implant?

Question 3987

Topic: 2. Trauma
A patient was treated with a revision reamed intramedullary nail for a nonunion 6 months ago. A current radiograph is shown in Figure 62. Based on these findings, what is the most appropriate treatment?
. Electrical stimulation
. Bone grafting
. No weight bearing
. Bone grafting and compression plating
. Free vascularized bone transport

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Bone grafting and compression plating


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Nonunions after intramedullary nails are often treated with exchange reamed nailing. In a recent study, this resulted in a union rate of 53%. After failed exchange nailing, bone grafting and compression plating should be used. The other options resulted in less satisfactory results as compared to bone grafting and compression plating.

Question 3988

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 7-year-old girl is hit by a motor vehicle and sustains the isolated ipsilateral injuries shown in Figures 16a and 16b. What is the optimal definitive method of treatment? Review Topic

. Spica cast immobilization
. Rigid reamed nailing of the femur and a short leg cast
. Flexible nailing of the femur and tibia
. Reamed nails of the femur and tibia
. Spanning external fixator

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Spica cast immobilization


Explanation

The child has isolated ipsilateral femoral shaft and tibial shaft fractures. Spica cast immobilization is unlikely to accommodate for shortening and alignment in this child with multiple levels of injury. In this instance, efforts should be made to mobilize a least one level of the limb; therefore, treatment should include flexible nailing of the femur and tibia. Rigid reamed nails are not indicated in this young patient secondary to risk of a growth arrest and osteonecrosis of the proximal femur.

Question 3989

Topic: 2. Trauma

Which of the following findings helps to distinguish between stress fractures of the tibia and shin splints? Review Topic

. With shin splints, a bone scan shows the posterior tibial cortex in a diffuse, longitudinal orientation.
. With tibial shin splints, the bone scan is more intense.
. A more diffuse area of tenderness is seen in tibial stress fractures.
. A three-phase bone scan is positive in all phases with shin splints, but only positive in delayed images with tibial stress fractures.
. After activity, pain persists longer with tibial stress fractures.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. With shin splints, a bone scan shows the posterior tibial cortex in a diffuse, longitudinal orientation.


Explanation

Anterior tibial pain can often be difficult to diagnose. A bone scan showing the tibial cortex in a diffuse, longitudinal orientation is consistent with shin splints compared to a more discreet, localized uptake more commonly seen with a stress fracture. Bone stress injuries are due to cyclical overuse of the bone. They are relatively common in athletes and military recruits but are also seem in otherwise healthy people who have recently started new or intensive physical activity. Diagnosis of bone stress injuries is based on the patient's history of increased physical activity and on imaging findings.The general symptom of a bone stress injury is stress-related pain. Bone stress injuries are difficult to diagnose based only on a clinical examination because the clinical symptoms may vary depending on the phase of the pathophysiological spectrum in the bone stress injury. Imaging studies are needed to ensure an early and exact diagnosis. If the diagnosis is made early, most bone stress injuries heal well without complications.

Question 3990

Topic: 2. Trauma
A 35-year-old patient is involved in a motor vehicle accident and sustains multiple fractures including a closed comminuted proximal meta-diaphyseal tibia fracture. The surgeon is considering bridge plating the fracture using a minimally invasive approach. Which of the following is true regarding bridge plating?
. A locked plate construct (locked screws) or hybrid construct (locked and non-locked screws) is necessary.
. Periosteal stripping is performed through two incisions proximal and distal to the fracture.
. Bridge plating is performed following direct reduction of the fracture.
. AO Type A diaphyseal fractures are best treated with this technique.
. Bridge plating with a long working length creates a flexible, axially stable construct.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Bridge plating with a long working length creates a flexible, axially stable construct.


Explanation

In bridged plating, only the most proximal and distal screw holes are filled. This creates a flexible, axially stable construct. The construct is flexible because of increased distance between the two screws closest to the fracture (long working length), allowing for stress distribution and permitting more motion at the fracture site. The construct is also axially stable because the plate acts as an extramedullary splint and resists axial compression.

Question 3991

Topic: 2. Trauma

Treatment consisting of halo vest immobilization is most likely to fail with which of the following cervical injuries? Review Topic

. C1 lateral mass fracture
. C2 pars fracture
. C4 burst fracture
. C5 burst fracture
. C6-C7 facet fracture-dislocation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C1 lateral mass fracture


Explanation

Facet joint fracture or dislocation is associated with an increased risk of loss of alignment with halo vest immobilization. The recently published study by van Middendorp and associates confirms the findings of prior studies that facet fracture-subluxations or dislocations are difficult to immobilize with a halo vest due to a limited ability to maintain reduction and alignment. C2 pars fractures, burst fractures, and C1 lateral mass fractures can be managed with halo vest immobilization.

Question 3992

Topic: Upper Extremity Trauma
A 46-year-old woman fell from her bicycle and sustained the injury shown in Figure 24. Which of the following ligaments has been disrupted?
. Acromioclavicular
. Acromioclavicular and coracoclavicular
. Coracoclavicular
. Coracoacromial and sternoclavicular
. Sternoclavicular

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Acromioclavicular and coracoclavicular


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The radiograph shows a type V acromioclavicular joint injury. Type V injuries involve disruption of the acromioclavicular and coracoclavicular ligaments. Type I injuries involve a sprain of the acromioclavicular joint ligaments. Type II injuries involve disruption of the acromioclavicular joint ligaments; the coracoclavicular ligaments are partially injured. Sternoclavicular ligaments stabilize the medial clavicle and the sternum; they are not damaged with acromioclavicular joint dislocations. REFERENCES: Fukuda K, Craig EV, An KN, et al: Biomechanical study of the ligamentous system of the acromioclavicular joint. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1986;68:434-439. Bosworth B: Complete acromioclavicular dislocation. N Engl J Med 1949;241:221-225.

Question 3993

Topic: 2. Trauma
A 24-year-old man sustains an injury to his right elbow after falling 10 feet. Radiographs are shown in Figures 41a and 41b. Treatment should consist of
. open reduction and internal fixation, followed by casting.
. open reduction and internal fixation, followed by early range of motion.
. open reduction and internal fixation, medial collateral ligament repair, and early range of motion.
. open reduction and internal fixation of the ulna, application of a hinged external fixator, and early range of motion.
. closed reduction and splinting, followed by early range of motion.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. open reduction and internal fixation, followed by early range of motion.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Transolecranon fracture-dislocations are most effectively managed with open reduction and internal fixation, followed by early aggressive range of motion. Concomitant injury to the collateral ligament is rare, and stability is achieved by anatomic reconstruction of the olecranon fracture with rigid fixation. The need for collateral ligament repair or a hinged external fixator is uncommon in this fracture pattern. REFERENCE: Ring D, Jupiter JB, Sanders RW, et al: Transolecranon fracture-dislocation of the elbow. J Orthop Trauma 1997;11:545-550.

Question 3994

Topic: 2. Trauma
A 20-year-old collegiate football player sustains an injury to his left foot 3 weeks before the start of the fall season. Examination reveals localized tenderness over the lateral midfoot and normal foot alignment. Radiographs are shown in Figures 28a through 28c. What is the treatment of choice?
. Intramedullary screw fixation
. Onlay bone graft
. Application of a walking boot with weight bearing as tolerated
. Application of a short leg cast with weight bearing as tolerated
. Application of a short leg cast and non-weight-bearing

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Intramedullary screw fixation


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Due to the relatively high incidence of delayed union and nonunion associated with this mildly displaced Jones-type fracture, and the temporal proximity to his playing season, intramedullary screw fixation is the treatment of choice in this collegiate athlete to best ensure healing and expedite his return to football. If nonsurgical management were elected, application of a non-weight-bearing short leg cast would be appropriate since a higher likelihood of healing is expected with it versus a short leg walking cast. The risk of recurrent fracture of fractures that heal with nonsurgical management has reportedly been high (approximately 30%). REFERENCES: Quill GE: Fractures of the proximal fifth metatarsal. Orthop Clin North Am 1995;26:353-361. Torg JS, Balduini FC, Zelko RR, et al: Fractures of the base of the fifth metatarsal distal to the tuberosity: Classification and guidelines for nonsurgical and surgical management. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1984;66:209-214. Dameron TB Jr: Fractures of the proximal fifth metatarsal: Selecting the best treatment option. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1995;3:110-114.

Question 3995

Topic: 2. Trauma

A patient who underwent intramedullary nailing of a femoral shaft fracture 2 weeks ago now reports groin pain. What is the next most appropriate step in management?

. Obtain a radiograph of the hip
. Obtain radiographs of the lumbar spine
. Obtain an MRI scan of the lumbar spine
. Review the radiographic report from the time of injury
. Reassure the patient that the pain will improve and order physical therapy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Obtain a radiograph of the hip


Explanation

Whereas ipsilateral fractures of the femoral neck and shaft are uncommon, it is critical to recognize a femoral neck fracture that may occur in conjunction with a femoral shaft fracture. The combined injury is seen in 2% to 9% of femoral shaft fractures and may initially be missed in as many as one third of the cases. Preoperative examination of a thin cut CT scan and dedicated AP internal rotation views of the femoral neck can help identify this injury. In addition, the intraoperative AP and lateral hip fluoroscopic view should be examined, and a dedicated radiograph of the hip obtained at the conclusion of the surgery. At follow-up, Tornetta and associates has recommendedobtaining a dedicated AP radiograph of the hip with the leg internally rotated 15 to 20 degrees. Because the femoral neck is anteverted, 15 to 20 degrees of internal rotation of the hip offers the best view of the femoral neck. Whereas associated lumbar spine pathology may cause groin pain, the presence of a missed femoral neck fracture must first be ruled out prior to investigating other sources of pain.

Question 3996

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 55-year-old male sustained the injury in Figure A. His injury was complicated by an acute compartment syndrome. He underwent external fixation of his extremity and four compartment fasciotomy. When should the treatment shown in Figure B be performed to minimize the risk of infection?

. Before fasciotomy closure
. At fasciotomy closure
. After fasciotomy closure
. After 24 hours of antibiotic treatment
. Timing of definitive fixation does not alter infection riskCorrent answer: 5The timing of definitive fixation of tibial plateau fractures in patients with fasciotomies has no impact on infection risk.The incidence of compartment syndrome is high in tibial plateau fractures. In the presence of tense anterior and lateral tibial compartments, combined with pain with passive stretch of involved muscles or unrelenting pain, compartment pressures should be measured and fasciotomies performed when necessary.Schatzker type V and VI fractures are more likely to have this potential complication. Examination of leg compartments should be repeated at regular intervals because compartment syndrome may occur 24 hours or more after injury.Zura et al. performed a study to analyze whether there is an association between infection and the timing of definitive fracture fixation in relation to fasciotomy closure or coverage. They found that no statistical difference in the rate of infection when tibial plateau fractures with four-compartment fasciotomies were treated with open reduction and internal fixation before fasciotomy closure, at fasciotomy closure, or after fasciotomy closure. They conclude that timing of definitive fracture treatment can be determined by the medical condition of the patient.Shah et al. performed a retrospective chart review of all bicondylar tibial plateau fractures that had fixation with two incisions. They reported an infection rate of 13.8% which is lower than historical reports. They concluded that the lower infection rate was due to their treatment algorithm that requires recovery of the soft tissue envelope prior to definitive fixation.Figure A demonstrates a bicondylar tibial plateau fracture. Figure B demonstrates fixation of a tibial plateau fracture through a dual plating technique.Incorrect Answers:

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Before fasciotomy closure


Explanation

OrthoCash 2020

Question 3997

Topic: 2. Trauma
Figures 9a through 9d are the radiographs of a 21-year-old woman who is involved in a high-speed motor vehicle collision and sustains an isolated right closed-foot injury. Before surgery, the patient is advised about the relatively poor long-term outcomes associated with this injury. What is the most common reason for functional limitations after surgical treatment in this scenario?
. Subtalar arthritis
. Osteonecrosis
. Nonunion
. Varus malunion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Subtalar arthritis


Explanation

DISCUSSION: When a displaced talar neck fracture occurs, the rate of osteonecrosis is high; however, many revascularize the talus without collapse. A nonunion can occur but is less common than osteonecrosis and arthritis. A varus malunion can be debilitating and lead to subtalar arthritis. In a fracture with the talar body dislocated posteromedially, neurologic deficits in the tibial nerve distribution are common but typically improve with urgent reduction. Studies show that posttraumatic subtalar arthritis is common after this injury and is the most likely cause of long-term functional impairment.

Question 3998

Topic: 2. Trauma
Which of the following is indicative of a patient who has been successfully resuscitated following a trauma?
. Urine output of 0.25 mL/kg/hour
. Lactic acid of 1.9 mmol/L
. Base deficit of -5.5
. Gastric mucosal pH of 6.3
. Pulse pressure of 15

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lactic acid of 1.9 mmol/L


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Rapid fluid resuscitation is the cornerstone of therapy for hypovolemic shock. Fluid should be infused at a rate sufficient to rapidly correct the deficit. In general, a favorable response to fluid replacement therapy includes increased urinary output (at least 0.5 mL/kg/hr), improved level of consciousness, increased peripheral perfusion, and changes in vital signs. Lab values that are important include lactic acid, which is increased if the shock is severe enough to cause anaerobic metabolism, and decreased serum bicarbonate which leads to a negative base deficit. Successful resuscitation in a shock patient will therefore lead to a falling lactate (i.e., <2.0 mmol/L) and a normalizing pH.

Question 3999

Topic: 2. Trauma
A man sustained the injury shown in Figures 51a and 51b. He underwent closed reduction of the radial head dislocation and open reduction and internal fixation of the ulnar fracture. What is the most common cause of persistent radial head subluxation?
. Interosseous ligament disruption
. Annular ligament disruption
. Avulsion of the common extensor origin
. Malreduction of the ulnar fracture
. Intra-articular osteochondral debris

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Malreduction of the ulnar fracture


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The radiographs reveal a Monteggia injury, with a proximal ulnar shaft fracture and a radial head dislocation. Treatment involves open reduction and internal fixation of the ulnar fracture. With correct reduction of the ulna, the radial head is reducible and remains stable, despite an obvious soft-tissue injury around the elbow. Problems with persistent radial head subluxation are almost always attributed to malreduction of the ulnar fracture. Rare causes of persistent radial head subluxation are interposition of soft tissues in the joint and lateral ligamentous injuries.

Question 4000

Topic: 2. Trauma
A 72-year-old female presents to your office with a 24-month old painful nonunion of a 3-part fracture of the proximal humerus. She has been treated conservatively with range of motion exercises but continues to complain of debilitating pain and dysfunction. Operative management should include:
. Closed reduction and percutaneous pinning
. Open reduction and internal fixation
. Rotator cuff repair with possible latissimus dorsi tendon transfer
. Shoulder arthroplasty
. Open bone grafting

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Shoulder arthroplasty


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Treatment of a chronic nonunion of the proximal humerus in the elderly should be treated with arthroplasty when possible. Critical attention should be paid to correct all deformities: tuberosity positioning, articular surface realignment, soft tissue balancing, rotator cuff repair (when needed), and treatment of soft tissue contractures. Attempts at internal fixation should be performed with caution in this patient population, due to general osteopenia and significant rates of loss of fracture reduction. The referenced article by Cheung et al reviews treatment options for proximal humeral nonunions and reports successful use of arthroplasty in treating elderly osteoporotic proximal humeral nonunions as a pain-relieving procedure.