Question 3541
Topic: 2. TraumaCorrect Answer & Explanation
. Bushing wear
Practice Set 178 of 640
This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 2. Trauma. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
. Bushing wear
. Exchange nailing
. reamed intramedullary nailing with static interlocking.
. cast wedging in the outpatient clinic.
. perform surgical repair or bypass of the injured popliteal vessels.
. Observation with a high expectation for recovery
A 32-year-old female sustained the injury seen in Figure A after a motor vehicle accident. On physical exam there was obvious deformity about the arm with a laceration that probed to bone over the lateral aspect of the arm. The patient was neurovascularly intact. She was treated with an intramedullary nail. Which of the following is true?

. Intramedullary nailing is associated with an increased risk of iatrogenic comminution.
An 18-year-old boxer sustained a blow to his right eye in a boxing match. Examination on the sideline reveals hyphema, reduced visual acuity and color vision, and a visual field cut. What is the next step in management? Review Topic
. Eye patch and ophthalmology evaluation in 2 days
Figures 20a and 20b are the radiographs of a 19-year-old woman who was involved in a motor vehicle accident. What mechanism of injury is most consistent with the injury?

. Vertical shear
. Summation of the distance between the end of the screw and the apex of the femoral head on AP and lateral radiographs
. Airway obstruction
. Evaluation of the glenohumeral joint
. posteromedial.
. Both columns
Figure 3a is the initial radiograph of a 19-year-old man who sustained a closed clavicle fracture. Figures 3b and 3c show postoperative radiographs. If the patient had been treated nonsurgically, which of the following would most likely occur?

. Malunion
. open reduction and internal fixation with a 95ยฐ fixed angle device and bone grafting.
. A fixed-angle sliding hip screw combined with a supplemental derotational cancellous screw
A 45-year-old male sustains a Schatzker IV tibial plateau fracture involving a large, displaced posteromedial shear fragment. The surgeon plans a posteromedial approach in the supine position. The optimal inter-nervous and inter-muscular interval for exposing the posteromedial tibial plateau is bounded by which of the following structures?
. Medial head of the gastrocnemius and the pes anserinus tendons
A 32-year-old female sustains a high-energy trauma resulting in an isolated coronal plane shear fracture of the lateral femoral condyle (Hoffa fracture, AO/OTA 33-B3). According to biomechanical principles, what is the optimal trajectory for lag screw fixation of this fragment to achieve maximum interfragmentary compression and stability?
. Medial to lateral, strictly parallel to the joint line
. It represents subchondral osteopenia secondary to hyperemia, indicating intact vascularity and a highly favorable prognosis against AVN