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Question 3501

Topic: 2. Trauma
A 14-year-old boy is involved in a motor vehicle accident and sustains a talar neck fracture. The fracture is displaced, and there is dislocation of the subtalar joint. The tibiotalar and talonavicular joints remain reduced. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Hawkins type I talar neck fracture
. Hawkins type II talar neck fracture
. Hawkins type III talar neck fracture
. Hawkins type IV talar neck fracture
. Talar body fracture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hawkins type II talar neck fracture


Explanation

DISCUSSION: This fracture is displaced, and there is dislocation of the subtalar joint. The tibiotalar and talonavicular joints remain reduced. In the classification originally created by Hawkins and modified by Canale and Kelly, this would be a Hawkins type II, carrying a 20% to 50% risk of osteonecrosis.

Question 3502

Topic: Upper Extremity Trauma
A 27-year-old professional baseball pitcher who underwent arthroscopic olecranon debridement continues to have medial-sided elbow pain during late cocking. Physical examination reveals laxity and pain with valgus stress testing. What is the most likely cause of his pain?
. Ulnar neuritis
. Excessive olecranon resection
. Osteochondritis dissecans of the capitellum
. Olecranon stress fracture
. Valgus extension overload

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Excessive olecranon resection


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Both the medial collateral ligament and the olecranon contribute to valgus stability of the elbow. Excessive olecranon resection increases the demand placed on the medial collateral ligament in resisting valgus forces during throwing. Bone removal from the olecranon should be limited to osteophytes.

Question 3503

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 54-year-old woman sustains the injury seen in Figures 71a and 71b. The injury involves her nondominant extremity. What should the patient be told regarding her expected outcome?

. She should expect to return to full function and regain full range of elbow motion.
. Reduction and casting has equivalent outcomes to those of surgical treatment.
. This type of injury is associated with a high rate of complications.
. Nerve dysfunction is commonly associated with this injury.
. Ulnohumeral instability is the major complication seen with this fracture pattern.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. She should expect to return to full function and regain full range of elbow motion.


Explanation

This is a Bado type 2 (posterior) Monteggia lesion, which is associated with higher rates of complications than other types of Monteggia lesions. The injury is associated with indirect high-energy trauma and less often pathologic causes. Of the four types of Monteggia lesions, the type 2 or posterior type is associated with the worst prognosis. These injuries are best treated surgically with dorsal plating of the ulna and reduction with fixation or arthroplasty of the radial head. The major complications seen with this injury pattern are nonunion and plate failure. Almost all patients have some loss of elbow range of motion. Satisfactory results based on functional scores for this injury are not universal. Neurologic injury and ulnohumeral instability are unusual with this type of injury. Full functional recovery is not expected with nonsurgical management.(SBQ12TR.101) An otherwise healthy young adult male sustains a transverse radial shaft and ulna fracture. He undergoes definitive surgical fixation with two nonlocking compression plates (LCPs) as shown in Figure A. What is the principle of this fixation technique on bone healing?Absolute stability with direct healing by callus formationRelative stability with indirect healing by callus formationAbsolute stability with direct healing by internal remodelingRelative stability with indirect healing by internal remodelingAbsolute stability with endochondral bone formationDefinitive surgical fixation for a simple transverse both bone forearm fracture would include open reduction and internal fixation with absolute stability with direct healing by internal remodelling (i.e., primary bone healing). The radius is fixed with a 7-hole

Question 3504

Topic: 2. Trauma
Figure 6a shows the radiograph of a 50-year-old man who sustained an anterior dislocation of the shoulder. He undergoes closed reduction, and the postreduction radiograph is shown in Figure 6b. Management should now consist of:
. continued use of a sling for 3 to 4 weeks, followed by repeat radiographs.
. open reduction and internal fixation of the greater tuberosity fracture.
. repeat reduction and placement of an abduction orthosis.
. hemiarthroplasty.
. percutaneous pinning.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. open reduction and internal fixation of the greater tuberosity fracture.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Displaced greater tuberosity fractures often will block abduction and/or external rotation by impinging on the underside of the acromion or posterior glenoid. The indications for open reduction and internal fixation are 1 cm of displacement or 45 degrees of rotation of the tuberosity fracture. Surgical treatment has recently been recommended for 0.5 cm of tuberosity displacement. REFERENCES: Neer CS II: Displaced proximal humeral fractures: II. Treatment of three-part and four-part displacement. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1970;52:1090-1103. Flatow EL, Cuomo F, Maday MG, et al: Open reduction and internal fixation of two-part displaced fractures of the greater tuberosity of the proximal part of the humerus. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1991;73:1213-1218.

Question 3505

Topic: 2. Trauma
Four months after injury, the tibia is showing evidence of slow healing on radiographs. What is the optimal treatment for this potential nonunion?
. Convert to circular external fixation
. Exchange nailing and autograft
. Exchange nailing and bone morphogenetic protein
. Tibial plate
. Observation until 6 months after injury

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Observation until 6 months after injury


Explanation

DISCUSSION: This patient is unstable and is not a good candidate for Early Total Care (ETC) and therefore should be managed by the tenets of Damage Control Orthopaedics (DCO). Débridement and external fixation is preferable for this patient. Intramedullary nails would be a component of ETC. Calcaneal traction is not considered ideal because it does not allow the patient to travel as easily. The S.P.R.I.N.T. study concluded that while reamed nails may offer benefit in closed fractures, there was no difference between reamed or unreamed nails in the treatment of open fractures of the tibia. Uniplanar external fixation and tibial plating are not considered the best options for open tibia fractures. Additional findings of the S.P.R.I.N.T. study conclude that delaying surgical intervention for at least 6 months after injury may reduce the need for reoperation.

Question 3506

Topic: 2. Trauma
A 29-year-old patient sustains a closed, displaced joint depression intra-articular calcaneus fracture. In discussing potential complications of surgical intervention through an extensile lateral approach, which of the following is considered the most common complication following surgery?
. Nonunion
. Deep infection
. Delayed wound healing
. Peroneal tendinitis
. Posttraumatic arthritis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Delayed wound healing


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Delayed wound healing and wound dehiscence is the most common complication of surgical management of calcaneal fractures through an extensile lateral approach, occurring in up to 25% of patients. Most wounds ultimately heal with local treatment; the deep infection rate is approximately 1% to 4% in closed fractures. Posttraumatic arthritis may develop despite open reduction and internal fixation, but the percentages remain low. Peroneal tendinitis may occur from adhesions within the tendon sheath or from prominent hardware but is relatively uncommon. Nonunion of a calcaneal fracture is rare. REFERENCES: Sanders RW, Clare MP: Fractures of the calcaneus, in Coughlin MJ, Mann RA, Saltzman CL (eds): Surgery of the Foot and Ankle, ed 8. Philadelphia, PA, Mosby-Elsevier, 2007, vol 2, pp 2017-2073. Sanders RW, Clare MP: Fractures of the calcaneus, in Bucholz RW, Heckman JD, Court-Brown C (eds): Rockwood and Green’s Fractures in Adults, ed 6. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2006, vol 2, pp 2293-2336.

Question 3507

Topic: 2. Trauma
Locked plating techniques have been shown to have biomechanical advantages over standard plating in which of the following scenarios?
. All osteoporotic fractures
. All comminuted fractures
. Spiral fractures
. Osteoporotic fractures with torsion
. Osteoporotic fractures without cortical contact

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Osteoporotic fractures without cortical contact


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Locked plating is becoming more common. Some biomechanical data comparing locked plating to standard plating have been reported for osteoporotic distal femoral fractures and humeral shaft fractures. Significant differences were seen mainly for osteoporotic fractures without cortical contact. Not all osteoporotic fractures and all comminuted fractures have been shown to demonstrate significant mechanical improvement with locked plating compared to standard plating. Spiral fractures often can be repaired with a lag screw, obtaining adequate cortical contact. Osteoporotic fractures with a torsion mode of failure failed earlier with locked plating systems than with standard plating systems. REFERENCES: Zlowodzki M, Williamson S, Cole PA, et al: Biomechanical evaluation of the less invasive stabilization system, angled blade plate, and retrograde intramedullary nail for the internal fixation of distal femur fractures. J Orthop Trauma 2004;18:494-502. Comparison of the AO Locking Plate with the Standard Limited-Contact Dynamic Compression Plate (LC-DCP) for Fixation of Osteoporotic Humeral Shaft Fractures. David J. Hak, MD, MBA; Scott J. Hazelwood, PhD. OTA Book of Abstracts 2003.

Question 3508

Topic: 2. Trauma
A 15-year-old boy has a fracture of the proximal tibia extending from the apophysis of the tubercle up through the posterior part of the proximal tibial epiphysis and into the joint. What is the most likely mechanism of injury?
. Varus stress
. Valgus stress
. Torsional loading
. Hyperextension of the knee
. Contraction of the quadriceps while axially loaded

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Contraction of the quadriceps while axially loaded


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Tibial tuberosity fractures are uncommon avulsion injuries. Most are sports-related and occur in older adolescents. Type I fractures represent an avulsion of a small fragment of the tuberosity. Type II fractures involve the entire anterior tuberosity with extension proximally to the level of the horizontal portion of the proximal tibial physis. Type III injuries involve the entire tuberosity with extension proximally into the articular surface, a Salter-Harris type III fracture. Patients present with pain, swelling, and tenderness over the tuberosity. Patella alta may be present. Surgical treatment of type I fractures is needed if patella alta (compared to the normal uninjured side) and a significant bony prominence are present. Displaced types II and III fractures are treated with open reduction and internal fixation. A cancellous interfragmentary screw may be placed through the tuberosity into the metaphysis. Because this injury occurs in patients near skeletal maturity, growth arrest with secondary genu recurvatum is rare. The mechanism is typically a violent contraction of the quadriceps while the knee is flexed or axially loaded.

Question 3509

Topic: 2. Trauma
Figure 38a shows the radiograph of a 12-year-old boy who underwent a reamed intramedullary nailing for a closed femoral shaft fracture. One year after rod removal, he reports groin pain. A current radiograph is shown in Figure 38b. The findings are most likely the result of
. a torn ligamentum teres.
. damage to the femoral neck.
. damage to the lateral ascending vessels of the femoral neck.
. unrecognized Perthes’ disease.
. growth arrest of the proximal physis.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. damage to the lateral ascending vessels of the femoral neck.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Osteonecrosis of the femoral head is a known complication from the use of rigid intramedullary nails for femoral fractures in adolescents. When the nails are placed through the piriformis fossa, the lateral ascending vessels of the femoral neck may be injured, resulting in osteonecrosis of the femoral head in 1% to 2% of patients. Rigid reamed nails placed into the piriformis fossa are contraindicated in children with open growth plates because the physis is a barrier to blood supply and the ligamentum teres does not provide sufficient vascularity. Alternative fixation methods for femoral fractures in adolescents include external fixation and open reduction and internal fixation. Nailing through the tip of the trochanter may decrease the incidence of this serious complication.

Question 3510

Topic: 2. Trauma
A 30-year-old man falls off a 7-foot ladder and sustains the injury seen in the radiograph and the CT scan shown in Figures 39a and 39b. Medical history is negative. Management of this injury should include which of the following?
. Closed treatment and casting
. Open reduction and internal fixation
. Primary subtalar arthrodesis
. Percutaneous fixation
. External fixation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Open reduction and internal fixation


Explanation

DISCUSSION: A Sanders type 2 intra-articular calcaneus fracture in a young healthy nonsmoker is best treated with open reduction and internal fixation. Whereas nonsurgical management is an option, Buckley and associates have shown that these fractures have a better outcome with surgical care. Percutaneous fixation is reserved for tongue-type fractures and subtalar arthrodesis is used in some type 4 fractures. External fixation has not been shown to be advantageous in closed fractures.

Question 3511

Topic: 2. Trauma
A 35-year-old man sustained the closed injury shown in Figure 52 in his dominant extremity. Neurologic function is normal. Treatment should consist of
. functional bracing.
. a sling and swathe.
. intramedullary nail fixation.
. open reduction and internal fixation.
. iliac crest bone graft.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. functional bracing.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Functional bracing has been demonstrated to have a very high rate of healing without any functional limitations in a large series of patients. Surgery is reserved for “floating elbows,” open injuries, neurovascular injuries, and those fractures that go on to nonunion. REFERENCES: Sarmiento A, Zagorski JB, Zych GA, et al: Functional bracing for the treatment of fractures of the humeral diaphysis. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2000;82:478-486. Koval KJ (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 7. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2002, p 267.

Question 3512

Topic: 2. Trauma

Tension band wire fixation is best indicated for which of the following types of olecranon fractures?

. Comminuted fractures
. Fractures that involve the coronoid process
. Fractures associated with Monteggia fracture-dislocations
. Oblique fractures distal to the midpoint of the trochlear notch
. Transverse fractures through the midpoint of the trochlear notch

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Comminuted fractures


Explanation

Tension band wiring may not provide adequate stability to prevent displacement in a comminuted fracture. Plate fixation is most commonly recommended for comminuted fractures of the olecranon. Additionally, plate fixation is used for oblique fractures distal to the midpoint of the trochlear notch, fractures that involve the coronoid process, and those associated with Monteggia fracture-dislocations. Tension band wiring is best indicated for simple transverse fractures through the midpoint of the trochlear notch.

Question 3513

Topic: 2. Trauma

03 Figure 33 shows the radiograph of a 48-year-old man who sustained a fracturedislocation of his dominant arm and a significant head injury in a fall from a roof. Eight days after injury he is medically cleared for surgery. Treatment should consist of

. rotator cuff repair.
. open reduction.
. shoulder arthrodesis 4- total shoulder arthroplasty. 5- humeral head arthroplasty.
. back answerQuestion 114.03

Correct Answer & Explanation

. rotator cuff repair.


Explanation

As stated, the radiograph shows a multiple-part fracture dislocation of theproximal humerus, with what appears to be a head-splitting component. Answer 1(rotator cuff repair) is certainly not indicated yet – maybe as a secondary procedureonce the bone is healed, or as a subsequent procedure while dealing with the fracture.Similar to question #109, there is no need to resurface the glenoid unless we haveevidence of significant degenerative changes, which we don’t. ORIF of head-splittingfractures hasn’t had any promising results, and AVN is always an issue here. Botharticles referenced discuss the outcomes of acute hemiarthroplasty in thetreatment of 3- and 4-part proximal humerus fractures versus late replacement forfailed non-operative treatment, and the benefits of early management in regardsto difficulty of procedure, post-operative pain, and functional ROM/strength outcomes. Arthrodesis is a viable option, but not with the good results of hemiarthroplasty as evidenced here.Goldman RT, Koval KJ, Cumom F, Gallagher MA, Zuckerman JD: Functional outcome after humeral head replacement for acute three- and four-part proximal humeral fractures. J Shoulder Elbow Surg 1995;4:81-86.Norris TR, Green A, McGuigan FX: Late prosthetic shoulder arthroplasty for displaced proximal humerus fracture. J Shoulder Elbow Surg 1995;4:271-280.back to this question next question

Question 3514

Topic: 2. Trauma
An 8-year-old boy sustains injuries to his head, abdomen, and left lower extremity after being struck by a truck. In the emergency department, his mental status deteriorates and he is intubated after assessment reveals a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 3; the score subsequently improves to 10. A CT scan reveals a right parietal intracranial hemorrhage, and an abdominal ultrasound reveals free fluid. Prior to an emergency laparotomy, the swollen left thigh is evaluated. Radiographs reveal a transverse fracture of the mid-diaphysis. Management of the fracture should consist of
. immediate application of a hip spica cast.
. insertion of a distal femoral traction pin and placement into 90-90 traction.
. closed reduction and stabilization using retrograde flexible intramedullary nails.
. insertion of an antegrade reamed interlocking intramedullary nail.
. closed reduction and transcutaneous pin fixation supplemented by a long leg cast.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. closed reduction and stabilization using retrograde flexible intramedullary nails.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The prognosis for a young patient with a head injury is more favorable compared to that for adults. Full neurologic recovery generally occurs. Spasticity may occur within a few days after injury, which can lead to fracture displacement if immediate spica casting or traction is used. Early surgical stabilization will reduce problems with shortening and malunion and will facilitate transportation of the child for diagnostic tests. Surgery may be performed when it is best for the patient, either on the day of injury or later if time is needed for stabilization. In this patient, the fracture is ideally suited to stabilization using flexible intramedullary nails. Heinrich and associates’ report of 78 diaphyseal femur fractures stabilized with flexible intramedullary nails included 14 patients with an associated closed head injury. All fractures healed, and there were no major complications. REFERENCES: Tolo VT: Management of the multiply injured child, in Rockwood CA, Wilkins KE, Beaty JH (eds): Fractures in Children, ed 4. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott-Raven, 1996, pp 83-95. Heinrich SD, Drvaric DM, Darr K, MacEwen GD: The operative stabilization of pediatric diaphyseal femur fractures with flexible intramedullary nails: A prospective analysis. J Pediatr Orthop 1994;14:501-507.

Question 3515

Topic: 2. Trauma
A 43-year-old man sustained a closed, intra-articular pilon fracture. It has now been 1 year since he underwent open reduction and internal fixation. Which of the following statements most accurately describes his perceived outcome?
. His clinical outcome will correlate closely with his initial reduction.
. His outcome will correlate with his radiographic score on the Ankle Osteoarthritis Score.
. He will likely require a late ankle arthrodesis.
. He will demonstrate marked limitations with regard to recreational activities.
. He will perceive improvements for a period of over 2 years.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. He will perceive improvements for a period of over 2 years.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Marsh and associates retrospectively reviewed 56 tibial plafond fractures and found that the patients perceived improvement in their function and pain for an average of 2.4 years. They demonstrated some limitations in recreational activities but not marked limitations. Patients were unlikely to need a late arthrodesis (13%), and their outcomes did not correlate well with assessments of reduction or arthritis scores. REFERENCE: Marsh JL, Weigel DP, Dirschl DR: Tibial plafond fractures: How do these ankles function over time? J Bone Joint Surg Am 2003;85:287-295.

Question 3516

Topic: 2. Trauma
A 14-year-old boy sustains a right leg injury after being thrown from his motorcycle while racing. He reports diffuse right leg pain starting at his knee and proceeding distally to include his foot. After the injury, the patient’s mother reports the tibia moving posteriorly then anteriorly while she was supporting the leg. In the emergency department 4 hours after injury, examination reveals a large knee effusion, firm compartments of the leg, a palpable posterior tibialis pulse with a warm, pink foot, and capillary refill of 2 seconds at the toes. His blood pressure is 100/50 mm Hg. Motor examination is intact, but there is decreased sensation in the dorsal first interspace and plantar aspect of the foot. Compartment pressure measurement reveals all four compartments with pressures of 33, 36, 33, and 38 mm Hg respectively. Radiographs are shown in Figure 59a and 59b. The remainder of the skeletal examination is normal. What is the optimal management for this injury?
. Emergent four compartment fasciotomies
. Emergent four compartment fasciotomies and open reduction and internal fixation of the fracture
. Elevation of the limb overnight and four compartment fasciotomies in the morning
. Elevation of the limb overnight and a recheck of compartment pressures in the morning
. Emergent MRI of the knee and leg

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Emergent four compartment fasciotomies and open reduction and internal fixation of the fracture


Explanation

The patient has a compartment syndrome based on the firm compartments of the leg and the elevated compartment pressures measured at the diastolic pressure reading. Muscle ischemia occurs quickly when compartment pressures are elevated, and within 6 hours irreversible damage can occur. Emergent fasciotomies permit decompression of all four compartments and reestablishment of vascular supply to the muscles. Stabilization of the fracture prevents further soft-tissue injury.

Question 3517

Topic: 2. Trauma
After humeral head replacement for four-part fractures, what is the most commonly reported difficulty?
. Pain
. Inability to carry 10 lb at the side
. Inability to wash the opposite axilla
. Reaching to the back pocket
. Working at shoulder level or above

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Working at shoulder level or above


Explanation

Results show that patients who underwent humeral head replacement for fracture almost routinely report pain relief, but functional reports vary. The most commonly reported difficulty is the use of weight in the overhead position with wide variation in active elevation. Factors found to affect active elevation include age, humeral offset, greater tuberosity positioning, and four-part (as compared with three-part) fractures.

Question 3518

Topic: 2. Trauma
A 9-year-old child has right groin pain after falling from a tree. Examination reveals that the right leg is held in external rotation, and there is significant pain with attempts at passive range of motion. Radiographs are shown in Figures 43a and 43b. Management should consist of
. closed reduction and a double spica cast.
. skeletal traction for 3 weeks, followed by a double spica cast.
. reduction and internal fixation crossing the physis if necessary.
. reduction and internal fixation with primary bone grafting.
. skin traction.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. reduction and internal fixation crossing the physis if necessary.


Explanation

The complications of femoral neck fractures in children include osteonecrosis, malunion, nonunion, and premature physeal closure. It is presumed that the risk of osteonecrosis is directly related to the amount of displacement at the time of injury and is not affected by the type of treatment. The risk of the other complications can be decreased depending on the type of treatment. Anatomic reduction by either closed or open methods can reduce the risk of malunion. The addition of internal fixation allows for maintenance of the reduction. In young children who cannot comply with a partial or non-weight-bearing status, the addition of a spica cast gives added protection.

Question 3519

Topic: 2. Trauma
The most appropriate treatment for this periprosthetic tibial fracture with a loose implant is
. revision TKA.
. revision of the tibial component with a stem extension.
. cast immobilization.
. open reduction and internal fixation of the fracture.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. revision of the tibial component with a stem extension.


Explanation

Tibial fractures are classified on the basis of their anatomical location and the status of the prosthesis fixation. Type I fractures involve the tibial plateau, type II fractures occur adjacent to the stem of the tibial component, type III fractures are distal to the tibial stem, and type IV fractures involve the tibial tubercle. Subclassifications include A with a well-fixed implant; B with a loose implant; and C, which occur intraoperatively. Treatment of periprosthetic tibial fractures is based on the location of the fracture and the status of the component fixation. Types II or III fractures associated with prosthetic loosening or instability are best managed with revision arthroplasty, usually with a diaphyseal-engaging intramedullary tibial stem. Supplemental internal fixation may be necessary. Type III fractures with well-fixed and stable implants are treated using the standard principles of tibial fracture management.

Question 3520

Topic: 2. Trauma

What is the most common complication associated with open reduction and internal fixation using a 90/90 plate configuration and olecranon osteotomy for an OTA type C2 distal humerus fracture?

. Nonunion of the lateral column
. Nonunion of the medial column
. Nonunion of the olecranon osteotomy
. Pain related to the plates
. Pain related to the olecranon fixation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Nonunion of the lateral column


Explanation

The most common complications associated with open reduction and internal fixation of distal humerus fractures are those associated with repair of an associated olecranon osteotomy. Complications associated with olecranon osteotomy fixation include failure of fixation (5%) and the need for secondary removal of painful hardware (70%). Nonunion of a distal humerus fracture treated with 90/90 plating is uncommon and results from inadequate fixation, excessive soft-tissue stripping, or use of inadequate plate fixation such as one third tubular plates. Heterotopic ossification is seen in approximately 4% of cases, infection 4%, and ulnar nerve palsy 7%. Although a relatively minor complication, the need for removal of painful hardware from the olecranon osteotomy is by far the most common complication seen in these cases.