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Question 3461

Topic: 2. Trauma
In a patient with a major head injury and a femoral shaft fracture, intraoperative hypotension during femoral fixation has been associated with which of the following?
. Increased time needed for rehabilitation
. Increased pneumonia rate
. Increased intensive care unit length of stay
. Decreased discharge Glascow Coma Scale
. Decreased hospital length of stay

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increased intensive care unit length of stay


Explanation

Hypoxia and hypotension are associated with lower GCS scores in polytrauma patients with major head injuries, but whether early fracture fixation adversely affect CNS outcomes has been controversial. New studies, however, have found no association between early surgery and decreased discharge GCS scores. The referenced study by Scalea et al reviewed 171 patients with pelvic or lower extremity fractures and head injuries; they showed no difference in CNS outcomes or mortality in patients who underwent early fixation. The second reference by Brundage et al showed improved outcomes (including high GCS scores at time of discharge) in those who had early fixation of femoral shaft fractures in the head-injured patient. The last referenced study by Jaicks et al found a lower discharge GCS in the early fracture fixation group compared with the late group. However, they also found that early fracture fixation was associated with hypoxemia and hypotension, as well as greater fluid administration.

Question 3462

Topic: 2. Trauma
All of the following indicators of resuscitation may be within normal limits for a trauma patient that is in "compensated" shock EXCEPT:
. Systolic blood pressure
. Urine output
. Heart rate
. Serum lactate
. Mean arterial pressure

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Serum lactate


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Historically, normal blood pressure, heart rate, and urine output have been endpoints to signal complete resuscitation in the polytrauma patient. The review article by Porter et al states that there is a high incidence of patients (as much as 85%) in "compensated" shock despite normal vital signs and urine output parameters. Compensated shock is secondary to a maldistribution of blood flow and tissue oxygenation as splanchnic organs have less distribution of the cardiac output compared to the heart and the brain. The article by Elliott is also a review, and it states that serum lactate is the best indicator of peripheral organ perfusion and tissue oxygenation. It also states that base deficit and gastric mucosal pH are appropriate end points to determine the complete resuscitation of trauma patients.

Question 3463

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 72-year-old woman presents for follow-up after elbow surgery. Her radiographs are shown in Figures A and B. Which of the following pre-operative diagnoses is a relative contraindication to the use of this prosthesis design? Review Topic

. Acute intra-articular distal humerus fracture
. Malunited intra-articular distal humerus fracture
. Late-stage rheumatoid arthritis
. Post-traumatic bony ankylosis
. Osteoarthritis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Osteoarthritis


Explanation

This patient has had an unconstrained total elbow arthroplasty (TEA). Unconstrained TEA is least preferred for late-stage rheumatoid arthritis where there is significant capsuloligamentous instability and bony erosion.Unconstrained (unlinked or resurfacing prosthesis) TEA depend on intact bony and ligamentous constraints for stability. These are appropriate for humeroulnar conditions with intact collateral ligaments and radiocapitellar articulation e.g. osteoarthritis, post-traumatic arthritis, intra-articular distal humerus fracture, and malunion of the distal humerus. Conditions with increased risk of instability (ligamentous injury, rheumatoid arthritis) will benefit from a linked or semiconstrained prosthesis.Mansat et al. reviewed the Coonrad-Morrey linked (semi-constrained) TEA implant in 70 patients after 5 years. They found that patients with inflammatory arthritis had higher function than those with traumatic conditions (fractures, nonunions and posttraumatic arthritis). Survival rate was 98% and 91% at 5 and 10 years, respectively. They concluded that this implant provided satisfactory treatment for different indications although radiolucent lines and bushing wear were a concern.Hildebrand et al. reviewed the functional outcome of the Coonrad-Moorey prosthesis in 51 elbows after 50 months. The inflammatory arthritis group had higher performance scores than the traumatic/post-traumatic conditions group. Isometric extensor torque was found to be less than the nonoperated side. Radiolucency was noted in 11 elbows.Figures A and B show an unconstrained TEA with radial head replacement. Illustration A shows more examples of unconstrained TEA. Illustration B shows a semiconstrained TEA. The arrow points to the anterior flange. Illustration C shows radiolucent lines around the stems. Illustration D shows severe bushing wear leading to locking mechanism failure. Illustration E is a table comparing linked and unlinked implants.Incorrect Answers:

Question 3464

Topic: 2. Trauma
Figure 8 shows the AP radiograph of a 33-year-old woman who sustained a midshaft clavicle fracture from a motorcycle accident 15 months ago. She continues to have significant pain with activities of daily living. Management should consist of
. use of an electrical bone stimulation unit.
. open reduction and internal fixation with a dynamic compression plate placed superiorly and autogenous bone grafting.
. open reduction and internal fixation with a dynamic compression plate placed inferiorly and autogenous bone grafting.
. intramedullary screw fixation.
. partial claviculectomy.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. open reduction and internal fixation with a dynamic compression plate placed superiorly and autogenous bone grafting.


Explanation

The patient has a symptomatic painful atrophic midclavicular nonunion, and the treatment of choice is rigid internal fixation with a dynamic compression plate and autogenous bone grafting. A tension band effect is desired and achieved by placing the plate superiorly. Excellent success rates of 90% to 100% have been reported using this technique. Intramedullary screw fixation without bone grafting has a decreased success rate. Partial claviculectomy is not a preferred option.

Question 3465

Topic: 2. Trauma
A 75-year-old man who sustained an intertrochanteric hip fracture underwent open reduction and internal fixation with a sliding hip screw. Six months after the procedure, the patient has shortening and external rotation of the extremity and progressively severe groin pain with ambulation. Radiographs are shown in Figures 5a and 5b. What is the most appropriate management?
. Valgus/flexion osteotomy of the proximal femur with repeat open reduction and internal fixation
. Conversion to bipolar hemiarthroplasty with a cementless femoral component
. Conversion to total hip arthroplasty with a calcar replacement femoral component that bypasses the hardware
. External bone stimulator
. Removal of hardware, followed by physical therapy and use of a shoe lift

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Conversion to total hip arthroplasty with a calcar replacement femoral component that bypasses the hardware


Explanation

The patient has an intertrochanteric fracture malunion with protrusion of the hardware and penetration into the acetabulum. To restore leg length and relieve pain, total hip arthroplasty is necessary. Valgus osteotomy is appropriate for fracture nonunion with an intact femoral head with no signs of osteonecrosis. Bipolar hemiarthroplasty with acetabular erosion will most likely lead to pain as will removal of the hardware with or without physical therapy.

Question 3466

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 5-year-old boy reports intermittent left elbow pain. History reveals that he injured his elbow 4 months ago, but had no treatment. He is now using his arm normally but reports pain almost daily. Examination reveals tenderness over the lateral epicondyle and a prominence is evident. Range of motion is from -5 degrees to

. open reduction and internal fixation.
. cast immobilization.
. percutaneous pin fixation.
. observation, with follow-up in 3 months.
. an MRI scan of the elbow.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. open reduction and internal fixation.


Explanation

The patient has a nonunion of the lateral condyle of the left humerus. Observation or cast treatment at this stage is not likely to lead to healing of the fracture. MRI will not add any additional information. Open reduction, with minimal posterior soft-tissue stripping, is recommended to establish union of the fracture. Local or other bone graft may also be required. There are no studies that indicate that the displaced fracture will heal with late percutaneous fixation.(SBQ13PE.40) Immediate spica casting is most appropriate for which of the following?:Review Topic2-month-old girl with a displaced spiral mid-diaphyseal femur fractureA 26-month-old boy with a displaced spiral mid-diaphyseal femur fracture with <2 centimeters of shortening3-day-old with teratologic right hip dislocation9-year-old boy with a displaced spiral mid-diaphyseal femur fracture12-year-old girl weighing 90 pounds with a displaced spiral mid-diaphyseal femur fractureChildren older than 6 months and up to 6 years with diaphyseal femur fractures may be treated with spica casting.Children younger than 6 months may only require a Pavlik harness. Immediate spica casting is indicated in children 6 months to 6 years with less than 2 cm of shortening. Each additional cm of shortening at presentation doubles the risk of loss of reduction (1 cm: 12%, 2 cm: 24%, 3 cm; 50%).Kocher et al. provide the AAOS Clinical Practice Guideline for the treatment of pediatric diaphyseal femur fractures. Their recommendation for diaphyseal femur fractures with <2 cm shortening in children 6 months to 5 years is Grade B, based on Level II evidence (two level II and one level I study). They recommend early spica or traction with delayed spica. They suggest early spica, as this is more convenient than traction.In an earlier article, Flynn et al. review the management of pediatric femoral shaft fractures. They recommend early spica casting for the child between 1 and 6 years inlow-energy femoral fractures with up to 2 cm shortening. Illustration A shows several styles of lower extremity spica casts.Incorrect answers:

Question 3467

Topic: 2. Trauma
For a patient with an unstable pelvic fracture, the amount of blood transfusions required in the first 24 hours has shown to be most predictive for what variable?
. Length of hospital stay
. Association with neurological deficit(s)
. Length of intensive care stay
. Cardiac collapse
. Mortality

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Mortality


Explanation

Discussion: Unstable pelvic fractures can be devastating injuries often resulting in significant morbidity and even death. According to the referenced study by Smith et al, fracture pattern and angiography/embolization were not predictive of mortality in patients with unstable pelvic injuries. The three factors they found to be predictive were: increased blood transfusions in the first 24 hours, age >60 years, and increased ISS or RTS scores. Deaths were most commonly from exsanguination (<24 hours) or multiorgan failure (>24 hours). Incorrect Answers: Choices 1-4 are not as predictive of mortality as choice 5.

Question 3468

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 43-year-old man sustained a closed, intra-articular pilon fracture. It has now been 1 year since he underwent open reduction and internal fixation. Which of the following statements most accurately describes his perceived outcome? Review Topic

. His clinical outcome will correlate closely with his initial reduction.
. His outcome will correlate with his radiographic score on the Ankle Osteoarthritis Score.
. He will likely require a late ankle arthrodesis.
. He will demonstrate marked limitations with regard to recreational activities.
. He will perceive improvements for a period of over 2 years.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. He will perceive improvements for a period of over 2 years.


Explanation

Marsh and associates retrospectively reviewed 56 tibial plafond fractures and found that the patients perceived improvement in their function and pain for an average of

Question 3469

Topic: 2. Trauma
A 30-year-old man was involved in a high-speed motorcycle collision and sustained the injury shown in Figure 4a. Hypotension ensued shortly after arrival in the emergency department. Figure 4b is the initial contrast pelvic CT image with an unrecognized blush consistent with arterial bleeding. During surgical repair, the patient was noted to have active bleeding and an angiogram was obtained (Figure 4c). Which structure is the likely cause of his bleeding?
. Superior gluteal artery
. Branch of the external iliac artery
. Branch of the pudendal artery
. Branch of the femoral artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Branch of the pudendal artery


Explanation

Discussion: Pelvic bleeding occurs predominantly from disruption of the posterior venous plexus and bleeding from the fractured bone. Occasionally arterial bleeding is seen, with injury to the superior gluteal artery most common. Anterior pelvic bleeding occurs from injury to the obturator artery (commonly from a pubic bone fracture laceration) and less frequently from the pudendal artery near the symphysis. The location of the bleeding on CT and angiography images does not correspond to the superior gluteal, external iliac, or femoral arteries.

Question 3470

Topic: Lower Extremity Trauma
Which of the following statements best describes the anatomic considerations of the popliteal artery posterior to the knee joint?
. It lies posterior to the popliteal vein and 9 mm posterior to the posterior aspect of the tibial plateau in 90 degrees of flexion.
. It lies anterior to the popliteal vein and 9 mm posterior to the posterior aspect of the tibial plateau in 90 degrees of flexion.
. It lies lateral to the popliteal vein and 15 mm posterior to the posterior aspect of the tibial plateau in 90 degrees of flexion.
. It lies medial to the popliteal vein and 9 mm posterior to the posterior aspect of the tibial plateau in 90 degrees of flexion.
. It lies anterior to the popliteal vein and 15 mm posterior to the posterior aspect of the tibial plateau in 90 degrees of flexion.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. It lies anterior to the popliteal vein and 9 mm posterior to the posterior aspect of the tibial plateau in 90 degrees of flexion.


Explanation

Popliteal artery injury during total knee arthroplasty is relatively rare. Knee flexion, the position that occurs during most of the arthroplasty procedure, allows the popliteal vessels to fall posteriorly, further away from harm. Anatomically, the popliteal artery lies anterior to the popliteal vein and 9 mm posterior to the posterior aspect of the tibial plateau in 90 degrees of flexion.

Question 3471

Topic: 2. Trauma
A 24-year-old woman has a spleen laceration and hypotension. Radiographs reveal a pulmonary contusion and a displaced mid-diaphyseal fracture of the femur. The trauma surgeon clears her for stabilization of the femoral fracture. What technique will offer the least potential for initial complications?
. External fixation
. Plate fixation
. Unreamed unlocked intramedullary nailing
. Reamed statically locked intramedullary nailing
. Reamed unlocked nailing

Correct Answer & Explanation

. External fixation


Explanation

A concern in the multiply injured patient who has a pulmonary contusion is the potential for further pulmonary compromise because of embolization of marrow, blood clot, or fat during manipulation of the medullary canal. Because damage control in the multiply injured patient requires a technique that can be performed rapidly and consistently, the treatment of choice is application of an external fixator. By placing two pins above and below the fracture and with longitudinal traction, the fracture is quickly realigned and stabilized.

Question 3472

Topic: Pelvic & Acetabular Trauma
In the treatment of acetabular dysplasia, what type of pelvic osteotomy leaves the teardrop in its original position and redirects the acetabulum?
. Steel
. Chiari
. Ganz periacetabular
. Dial or spherical
. Salter innominate

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Dial or spherical


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The dial or spherical osteotomy leaves the medial wall or teardrop in its original position and, as a result, is intra-articular. The other pelvic osteotomies (except Chiari) redirect the acetabulum, including the medial wall. The Chiari osteotomy improves coverage without redirecting the acetabulum within the pelvis, and it leaves the teardrop in the same place.

Question 3473

Topic: 2. Trauma

A young male patient underwent intramedullary nail fixation for a diaphyseal femur fracture. A post-operative CT scanogram is performed to assess rotational alignment between the surgical and non-surgical femur. Which of the following measurement(s) are considered acceptable differences in regards to femoral rotational malreduction after intramedullary nail fixation as compared to the uninjured femur?

. 9 degrees internal rotation
. 14 degrees external rotation
. 18 degrees internal rotation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 14 degrees external rotation


Explanation

All of the aboveCorrent answer: 4The maximum acceptable difference in rotational malreduction between the surgical and contralateral legs for femoral version is 15°. Therefore, answers 1 and 2 are correct.Normal femoral neck anteversion is approximately 11-13°, with a normal range between 5-20°. The variation within the same patients can also be up to 15° difference between limbs. Current literature has shown that this 15° difference is well tolerated by patients, including when this has occured as a result of rotational malreduction following intramedullary nail fixation for a diaphyseal femur fracture.Ayalon et al. aimed to compare the difference in femoral version (DFV) after intramedullary nailing performed by a trauma-trained and non-trauma trained surgeon. The mean post-operative DFV was 8.7° in these patients, compared to 10.7° in those treated by surgeons of other subspecialties. Post-operative version or percentage of DFV >15° did not significantly differ between these two groups.Omar et al. studied the utility of pre-operative 'virtual reduction' of bilateral femoral fractures that were initially stabilized with external fixation. After external fixation, the mean rotational difference between both legs was 15.0°± 10.2°. Following virtual reduction, the mean rotational difference between both legs was 2.1° ± 1.2°, after intramedullary nailing, compared to 6.1° ±

Question 3474

Topic: 2. Trauma
Figure 16a shows the radiograph of a 34-year-old woman who sustained a basicervical fracture of the femoral neck. The fracture was treated with a compression screw and side plate. Seven months postoperatively, she continues to have significant hip pain and cannot bear full weight on her hip. A recent radiograph is shown in Figure 16b. Management should now consist of:
. continued non-weight-bearing and a bone stimulator.
. removal of the hardware, bone grafting of the femoral neck, and refixation.
. removal of the hardware and hemiarthroplasty.
. removal of the hardware and total hip arthroplasty.
. removal of the hardware and a valgus osteotomy.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. removal of the hardware and a valgus osteotomy.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The patient sustained a high-angle femoral neck fracture. The follow-up clinical findings and radiograph show that she now has a nonunion with failed internal fixation. The joint appears preserved. In a healthy, young patient, arthroplasty of the femoral head, although possible, is not ideal. Excellent healing and function can be obtained in 70% to 80% of patients with femoral neck nonunion with a valgus intertrochanteric osteotomy.

Question 3475

Topic: 2. Trauma
A 30-year-old man who sustained a work-related injury 6 weeks ago reports persistent back and left-sided buttock pain that has been attributed to lumbar transverse process fractures. A pelvic radiograph and CT scans obtained 2 days ago are seen in Figures 17a through 17c. What is the best treatment for his injury?
. Anterior open reduction and internal fixation and posterior fixation
. Posterior open reduction and internal fixation with tension band plating
. Posterior iliosacral screws
. Anterior open reduction and internal fixation
. Continued nonsurgical management

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior open reduction and internal fixation and posterior fixation


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Surgical treatment of sub-acute pelvic ring injuries is relatively uncommon. Nonsurgical management may have a role as long as the hemipelvis does not flex, shorten, and/or externally rotate. The AP pelvic radiograph suggests that all three motions are happening in this patient. These are indications to repair the pelvic ring, and this is best done with anterior and posterior fixation. Anterior symphyseal plating will help correct most of the deformity. Posterior fixation can and should be added to lessen the forces on the anterior ring reconstruction when repair is performed in a sub-acute or delayed fashion.

Question 3476

Topic: 2. Trauma
A 71-year-old woman who reports long-term use of oral steroids for asthma is referred for treatment of a distal humerus fracture. Radiographs reveal diffuse osteopenia and a severely comminuted intra-articular fracture. What is the most appropriate treatment?
. Total elbow arthroplasty
. Long arm cast immobilization
. Open reduction and internal fixation
. Osteoarticular allograft
. Resection arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Total elbow arthroplasty


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Several studies have documented the satisfactory outcomes of total elbow arthroplasty when osteosynthesis is not feasible for fixation of a distal humerus fracture, particularly in the physiologically older patient with low functional demands. Total elbow arthroplasty should be considered when a comminuted intra-articular distal humerus fracture occurs in a woman older than age 65 years, particularly with such associated comorbidities as systemic steroid use, osteoporosis, or rheumatoid arthritis.

Question 3477

Topic: 2. Trauma
Which of the following choices best describes the fracture pattern shown in Figures 2a through 2c?
. Anterior column
. Anterior wall
. Posterior column
. Both column
. Transverse

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior column


Explanation

The fracture pattern shown in the radiographs is a fracture of the posterior column. The only line interrupted on the AP pelvis is the ilioischial line. The obturator oblique view shows that the iliopectineal line is intact as is the outline of the posterior wall. The iliac oblique view shows an interruption of the ilioischial line and an intact anterior wall. Therefore, this fracture is a fracture of the posterior column.

Question 3478

Topic: Lower Extremity Trauma

-If a physician elects to shorten a femur by 4 cm for traumatic bone loss treatment and places an intramedullary nail for fixation, which deformity will be created in the lower extremity?

. Patella alta
. Medial mechanical axis deviation
. Lateral mechanical axis deviation
. Increased anatomic tibiofemoral angle
. Translation of the anatomical axis of the femur

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Patella alta


Explanation

Question 3479

Topic: 2. Trauma
A 36-year-old man was injured in a motorcycle collision and sustained the injury shown in Figure 70. He has a blood pressure (BP) of 70/40 mm Hg, pulse of 148 beats per minute (bpm), and Glasgow Coma Scale score of 6 (scores lower than 8 indicate severe brain injury), and there is negligible urine output. His airway is secure and intravenous (IV) access is obtained. Two liters of warm crystalloid solution are given; repeated vital signs reveal the same BP and a pulse of 142 bpm. What is the best next step?
. Administer IV fluids and then reassess vital signs before making further decisions
. Pelvic binder and IV fluids
. Pelvic binder and immediate transfusion
. Pelvic binder, IV fluids, type and cross-match, and then transfuse

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pelvic binder and immediate transfusion


Explanation

This patient has an anteroposterior compression pelvic fracture associated with shock. In patients with closed pelvic fractures and hypotension, mortality rises to approximately 1 in 4 (10%-42%) and hemorrhage is the major reversible contributing factor. Initial management of a major pelvic disruption associated with hemorrhage requires hemorrhage control and rapid fluid resuscitation. A pelvic binder should be placed to reduce pelvic volume. The patient has signs and symptoms of class IV hemorrhage, which include marked tachycardia exceeding 140, a significant decrease in BP, and a very narrow pulse pressure. Urinary output is negligible, and mental status is markedly depressed. The skin is cold and pale. The degree of exsanguination with class IV hemorrhage is immediately life-threatening, and rapid transfusion and immediate surgical intervention are necessary. Nonresponse to fluid administration indicates persistent blood loss. Blood preparation should be emergency blood release. Type and cross-match of blood can be used for additional resuscitation in transient responders.

Question 3480

Topic: 2. Trauma
A 19-year-old man sustains a low-velocity gunshot wound to the forearm. What factor most strongly correlates with the development of compartment syndrome after this injury?
. Fracture comminution
. Fracture of both the radius and ulna
. Fracture of the proximal third of the forearm
. Fracture displacement of more than 10 mm
. Retained bullet fragments

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Fracture of the proximal third of the forearm


Explanation

DISCUSSION: In a multivariate analysis, the strongest factor for the development of compartment syndrome is fracture of the proximal third of the forearm. However, compartment syndrome can still occur without a fracture. Therefore, these patients should be followed with a high level of suspicion for the development of compartment syndrome. REFERENCES: Moed BR, Fakhouri AJ: Compartment syndrome after low-velocity gunshot wounds to the forearm. J Orthop Trauma 1991;5:134-137. Hahn M, Strauss E, Yang EC: Gunshot wounds to the forearm. Orthop Clin North Am 1995;26:85-93.