This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 2. Trauma. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 2601
Topic: 2. Trauma
During a fasciotomy for deep posterior Chronic Exertional Compartment Syndrome, the surgeon must ensure complete release of the fascia overlying the specific muscles of this compartment. Which of the following muscle groups comprises the deep posterior compartment of the leg?
The deep posterior compartment of the leg contains the tibialis posterior, flexor digitorum longus (FDL), and flexor hallucis longus (FHL). Failure to release the fascia over the tibialis posterior is a common cause of recurrent CECS.
Question 2602
Topic: 2. Trauma
A 21-year-old runner is diagnosed with right-sided anterior Chronic Exertional Compartment Syndrome. During counseling, the surgeon informs him that CECS often affects both extremities. Approximately what percentage of CECS cases present bilaterally?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 70-80%
Explanation
Chronic Exertional Compartment Syndrome is bilateral in approximately 70-80% of cases, primarily because it is largely driven by anatomic predisposition and repetitive bilateral activities like running.
Question 2603
Topic: 2. Trauma
A 26-year-old military recruit undergoes dynamic compartment pressure testing for suspected anterior CECS. Before initiating the treadmill protocol, resting pressures are measured. According to the Pedowitz criteria, a resting intracompartmental pressure greater than or equal to which of the following values is independently diagnostic of CECS?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 15 mmHg
Explanation
According to the Pedowitz criteria, a resting intracompartmental pressure of ≥ 15 mmHg is sufficient to support the diagnosis of Chronic Exertional Compartment Syndrome.
Question 2604
Topic: 2. Trauma
A 30-year-old male presents with persistent exertional calf pain six months after undergoing a medial approach fasciotomy for deep posterior CECS. What is the most frequently identified anatomical cause for failure or recurrence following deep posterior compartment release?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Inadequate release of the soleus bridge and tibialis posterior fascia
Explanation
The most common reason for failed deep posterior compartment release is inadequate distally extending fasciotomy, specifically failing to release the fascial attachments of the soleus to the tibia (soleus bridge) and the fascial envelope of the tibialis posterior.
Question 2605
Topic: 2. Trauma
A 22-year-old collegiate distance runner presents with bilateral anterior lower leg pain that occurs consistently after running 2 miles and resolves after 30 minutes of rest. Intracompartmental pressure testing is planned. According to the Pedowitz criteria, which of the following measurements confirms the diagnosis of Chronic Exertional Compartment Syndrome (CECS)?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 1-minute post-exercise pressure of 32 mm Hg
Explanation
The Pedowitz criteria for diagnosing CECS require at least one of the following: resting pressure >15 mm Hg, 1-minute post-exercise pressure >30 mm Hg, or 5-minute post-exercise pressure >20 mm Hg. A 1-minute post-exercise pressure of 32 mm Hg meets these diagnostic criteria.
Question 2606
Topic: 2. Trauma
A 20-year-old soccer player undergoes a single-incision, two-compartment fasciotomy for lateral and anterior Chronic Exertional Compartment Syndrome. Postoperatively, she reports numbness over the dorsum of her foot, excluding the first web space. Which nerve was most likely injured during the surgical approach?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Superficial peroneal nerve
Explanation
The superficial peroneal nerve runs in the lateral compartment and pierces the crural fascia in the distal third of the leg. It is at high risk of iatrogenic injury during anterior and lateral compartment fasciotomies.
Question 2607
Topic: 2. Trauma
A 25-year-old recreational runner with anterior Chronic Exertional Compartment Syndrome (CECS) wishes to avoid surgery. Which of the following gait modifications has been shown to decrease forces in the anterior compartment and potentially relieve symptoms?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Transitioning to a forefoot strike pattern
Explanation
Transitioning from a rearfoot to a forefoot strike pattern reduces the eccentric load on the tibialis anterior during early stance. This gait modification has been proven to significantly lower anterior compartment pressures and relieve CECS symptoms.
Question 2608
Topic: 2. Trauma
Which of the following leg compartments is associated with the highest rate of surgical failure and symptom recurrence following fasciotomy for Chronic Exertional Compartment Syndrome?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Deep posterior compartment
Explanation
The deep posterior compartment has the highest failure and recurrence rate following fasciotomy. This is often due to inadequate surgical release of the fascia overlying the tibialis posterior muscle.
Question 2609
Topic: 2. Trauma
A 28-year-old male soldier presents with posterior calf pain that occurs only during forced marches. His physical examination at rest is normal. Which of the following findings during provocative testing would best differentiate Popliteal Artery Entrapment Syndrome (PAES) from Chronic Exertional Compartment Syndrome?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Diminished pedal pulses with active ankle plantarflexion
Explanation
Popliteal artery entrapment syndrome can clinically mimic CECS. It is differentiated by diminished or absent pedal pulses during active plantarflexion or passive dorsiflexion, caused by the medial head of the gastrocnemius compressing the popliteal artery.
Question 2610
Topic: 2. Trauma
A deep posterior compartment fasciotomy for Chronic Exertional Compartment Syndrome is performed on a 29-year-old athlete. Six months later, the patient presents with persistent exertional pain localized to the posteromedial tibia. Recurrence in this compartment is most often attributed to the failure to completely release the fascia over which muscle?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Tibialis posterior
Explanation
The tibialis posterior muscle is contained within its own distinct fascial sheath inside the deep posterior compartment. Failure to explicitly identify and release the epimysium/fascia of the tibialis posterior is the most common reason for surgical failure.
Question 2611
Topic: 2. Trauma
A 27-year-old triathlete undergoes intracompartmental pressure testing for suspected Chronic Exertional Compartment Syndrome (CECS).
According to the Pedowitz criteria, a resting (pre-exercise) pressure greater than or equal to which of the following values is diagnostic for CECS?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 15 mm Hg
Explanation
Under the Pedowitz criteria, an isolated resting intracompartmental pressure >15 mm Hg is considered diagnostic for Chronic Exertional Compartment Syndrome.
Question 2612
Topic: 2. Trauma
A 22-year-old collegiate runner presents with bilateral anterolateral leg pain that predictably begins 15 minutes into a run and resolves 30 minutes after resting. Suspecting chronic exertional compartment syndrome (CECS), you order compartment pressure testing. Which of the following measurements meets the diagnostic criteria for CECS?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 5-minute post-exercise pressure of 22 mm Hg
Explanation
Pedowitz criteria for CECS include one or more of the following: resting pressure >= 15 mm Hg, 1-minute post-exercise pressure >= 30 mm Hg, or 5-minute post-exercise pressure >= 20 mm Hg.
Question 2613
Topic: 2. Trauma
A 24-year-old female undergoes an elective dual-incision fasciotomy for chronic exertional compartment syndrome of the anterior and lateral compartments. Postoperatively, she reports numbness over the dorsum of her foot, excluding the first web space. Which structure was most likely injured during the procedure?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Superficial peroneal nerve
Explanation
The superficial peroneal nerve is at high risk during fasciotomy of the lateral compartment. It provides sensation to the dorsum of the foot, while the deep peroneal nerve supplies the first web space.
Question 2614
Topic: 2. Trauma
A 26-year-old military recruit presents with exercise-induced leg pain that forces him to stop running. Which compartment of the leg is most commonly affected in chronic exertional compartment syndrome?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior compartment
Explanation
The anterior compartment of the leg is the most frequently affected in chronic exertional compartment syndrome, often presenting with anterior pain, tightness, and occasionally transient foot drop.
Question 2615
Topic: 2. Trauma
A 21-year-old cross-country runner reports deep aching pain in her anterior shins that begins 2 miles into her run and resolves completely within an hour of resting. There is no pain at rest and no neurologic deficits. What is the key pathophysiological difference between this patient's condition and acute compartment syndrome?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Elevation of compartment pressures only during exertion without causing irreversible necrosis
Explanation
In chronic exertional compartment syndrome, pressures elevate to symptomatic levels during exertion but return to normal at rest without causing irreversible muscle necrosis, unlike the persistent ischemia seen in acute compartment syndrome.
Question 2616
Topic: 2. Trauma
A patient undergoing fasciotomy for chronic exertional compartment syndrome of the deep posterior compartment must have the fascia released to address which of the following specific muscle bellies?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Tibialis posterior, flexor digitorum longus, and flexor hallucis longus
Explanation
The deep posterior compartment contains the tibialis posterior, flexor digitorum longus, and flexor hallucis longus muscles. Surgical release requires precise division of the fascial compartments investing these specific muscles.
Question 2617
Topic: 2. Trauma
A runner with anterior chronic exertional compartment syndrome wishes to attempt conservative management by altering their running mechanics. Which of the following gait modifications is most likely to reduce anterior compartment pressures?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Transitioning to a forefoot strike pattern
Explanation
Transitioning from a rearfoot (heel) strike to a forefoot strike pattern reduces the eccentric load on the anterior compartment musculature, potentially decreasing symptoms of anterior CECS.
Question 2618
Topic: 2. Trauma
A 25-year-old male sustains a vertically oriented femoral neck fracture (Pauwels III) after a high-energy motor vehicle accident. Which of the following fixation constructs provides the most biomechanical stability against the vertical shear forces characteristic of this fracture pattern?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. A sliding hip screw (SHS) with a supplemental derotational screw
Explanation
Pauwels III fractures are highly unstable due to significant vertical shear forces. A fixed-angle device such as a sliding hip screw combined with a derotational screw provides superior biomechanical resistance to shear stress compared to multiple parallel cannulated screws.
Question 2619
Topic: 2. Trauma
A 45-year-old male sustains a high-energy Schatzker IV (medial plateau) tibial plateau fracture. What is the classic mechanism of injury, and what is the essential biomechanical principle of internal fixation for this pattern?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Varus force; medial buttress plating
Explanation
Schatzker IV fractures involve the medial tibial plateau and are typically caused by a high-energy varus force combined with axial loading. They inherently tend toward varus collapse and require a medial buttress plate for stable fixation.
Question 2620
Topic: 2. Trauma
In a 35-year-old male with a displaced intracapsular femoral neck fracture, the primary blood supply to the adult femoral head is at risk. Which of the following arteries provides this primary supply?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Medial femoral circumflex artery
Explanation
The medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA) provides the primary blood supply to the adult femoral head via the lateral epiphyseal artery. Injury to this vessel significantly increases the risk of avascular necrosis following a femoral neck fracture.
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