Question 641
Topic: Pelvic & Acetabular TraumaCorrect Answer & Explanation
. Preperitoneal pelvic packing
Practice Set 33 of 35
This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in Pelvic & Acetabular Trauma. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
. Preperitoneal pelvic packing
A 45-year-old male is brought to the trauma bay after a motorcycle crash. He is tachycardic and hypotensive. Pelvic X-ray reveals a 4 cm widening of the pubic symphysis with disruption of the sacroiliac joints bilaterally. A pelvic binder is to be applied. What is the correct anatomical landmark for the placement of the pelvic binder to optimize reduction?
. Greater trochanters
. APC II
. Anterior-posterior compression type III (APC-III)
. Anterior SI, posterior SI, sacrotuberous, and sacrospinous ligaments
. Greater trochanters
. At the level of the greater trochanters
. Disruption of the symphysis pubis
. Anterior-Posterior Compression (APC) II
. Posterior sacroiliac ligament
. The greater trochanters of the femurs
. Anterior sacroiliac, sacrotuberous, and sacrospinous ligaments
. Greater trochanters
. Anterior and posterior sacroiliac ligaments
. Anterior and posterior sacroiliac ligaments
. Obturator artery
. At the level of the greater trochanters
. Placement of a C-clamp or external fixator for pelvic stabilization.
A 45-year-old man sustains an anteroposterior compression (APC) Type II pelvic ring injury in a high-speed motor vehicle collision. Which of the following accurately describes the ligamentous disruption associated with this specific injury pattern?
. Anterior sacroiliac ligaments disrupted; posterior sacroiliac ligaments intact
. Posterior sacroiliac ligament disruption