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Question 241

Topic: Pelvic & Acetabular Trauma
A 28-year-old female is brought to the trauma bay after a high-speed motor vehicle collision. She is hypotensive and tachycardic. A pelvic radiograph is obtained. It demonstrates a symphyseal diastasis of 3.5 cm and widening of the anterior sacroiliac joints bilaterally. Which of the following describes the status of the posterior pelvic ligaments in this specific injury pattern?
. Both the anterior and posterior sacroiliac ligaments are disrupted.
. The anterior sacroiliac ligaments are disrupted, but the posterior sacroiliac ligaments remain intact.
. The posterior sacroiliac ligaments are disrupted, but the sacrotuberous ligaments remain intact.
. The iliolumbar ligaments are disrupted, but the sacrospinous ligaments remain intact.
. All sacroiliac and pelvic floor ligaments are disrupted.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The anterior sacroiliac ligaments are disrupted, but the posterior sacroiliac ligaments remain intact.


Explanation

The clinical scenario describes an Anteroposterior Compression Type II (APC-II) pelvic ring injury. By definition, an APC-II injury involves disruption of the pubic symphysis (typically >2.5 cm) along with tearing of the anterior sacroiliac, sacrotuberous, and sacrospinous ligaments. The critical distinguishing factor of an APC-II injury from an APC-III injury is that the strong posterior sacroiliac ligaments remain intact, providing vertical stability while allowing rotational instability.

Question 242

Topic: Pelvic & Acetabular Trauma
A 30-year-old male presents in hypotensive shock following a motorcycle crash. Pelvic radiographs and CT demonstrate an anteroposterior compression type III (APC-III) injury according to the Young-Burgess classification. Which of the following ligamentous complexes are completely disrupted in this specific injury pattern?
. Symphysis pubis only
. Symphysis pubis, sacrotuberous, and sacrospinous ligaments
. Symphysis pubis, sacrotuberous, sacrospinous, and anterior sacroiliac ligaments
. Symphysis pubis, sacrotuberous, sacrospinous, anterior and posterior sacroiliac ligaments
. Posterior sacroiliac ligaments and iliolumbar ligaments only

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Symphysis pubis, sacrotuberous, sacrospinous, and anterior sacroiliac ligaments


Explanation

The Young-Burgess classification for APC injuries relies on progressive disruption of the pelvic ring from anterior to posterior. APC-I involves pubic diastasis <2.5 cm with intact posterior ligaments. APC-II involves diastasis >2.5 cm with disruption of the anterior sacroiliac (SI), sacrotuberous, and sacrospinous ligaments, but intact posterior SI ligaments (rotationally unstable, vertically stable). APC-III involves complete disruption of both the anterior and posterior SI ligaments, resulting in a globally (rotationally and vertically) unstable hemipelvis.

Question 243

Topic: Pelvic & Acetabular Trauma
A hemodynamically unstable 40-year-old male arrives in the trauma bay with an anteroposterior compression (APC) type III pelvic ring injury. The trauma team applies a pelvic circumferential compression device (binder). To achieve optimal biomechanical reduction of the pelvic volume and control hemorrhage, the binder must be centered over which specific anatomical landmarks?
. Anterior superior iliac spines
. Iliac crests
. Greater trochanters
. Symphysis pubis
. Umbilicus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Greater trochanters


Explanation

For a pelvic binder to be mechanically effective in reducing pelvic volume (especially the posterior ring) and minimizing hemorrhage, it must be centered directly over the greater trochanters. Placement over the iliac crests is a common error and is ineffective at closing the pelvic ring; it can even exacerbate the deformity in some injury patterns.

Question 244

Topic: Pelvic & Acetabular Trauma
A 25-year-old male is involved in a high-speed motorcycle accident. Pelvic radiographs demonstrate symphysis pubis diastasis of 3.5 cm and widening of the anterior sacroiliac joints bilaterally. The posterior sacroiliac ligaments are determined to be intact. According to the Young-Burgess classification, what type of pelvic ring injury does this patient have?
. Lateral Compression Type I (LC-I)
. Lateral Compression Type II (LC-II)
. Anteroposterior Compression Type II (APC-II)
. Anteroposterior Compression Type III (APC-III)
. Vertical Shear (VS)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anteroposterior Compression Type II (APC-II)


Explanation

The injury mechanism is anteroposterior compression (APC). APC-II is characterized by disruption of the symphysis pubis (or anterior ring fractures) along with disruption of the anterior sacroiliac ligaments, sacrotuberous, and sacrospinous ligaments, while the posterior sacroiliac ligaments remain intact. This causes rotational instability but preserves vertical stability. APC-III involves complete disruption of both anterior and posterior SI ligaments, resulting in both rotational and vertical instability.

Question 245

Topic: Pelvic & Acetabular Trauma
A 45-year-old male presents after a motorcycle accident with an anteroposterior compression (APC) Type III pelvic ring injury. He is hemodynamically unstable despite initial resuscitation, massive transfusion protocol, and application of a pelvic binder. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
. Immediate application of a supra-acetabular external fixator
. Preperitoneal pelvic packing and/or angioembolization
. Open reduction and internal fixation of the pubic symphysis
. Retrograde urethrogram to rule out urologic injury
. Percutaneous sacroiliac screw fixation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Preperitoneal pelvic packing and/or angioembolization


Explanation

In a hemodynamically unstable patient with an APC III pelvic ring injury who does not respond to a pelvic binder and initial fluid resuscitation, the source of bleeding is typically venous (presacral plexus) or arterial. Preperitoneal pelvic packing and/or angiography with embolization are the most appropriate next steps to achieve hemodynamic stability before any definitive orthopedic fixation.

Question 246

Topic: Pelvic & Acetabular Trauma
A 35-year-old male is brought into the trauma bay after a high-speed motorcycle crash. His blood pressure is 80/50 mmHg and heart rate is 130 bpm. An AP pelvis radiograph demonstrates an anteroposterior compression (APC) type III pelvic ring fracture. Following the immediate application of a pelvic binder, his blood pressure remains 85/50 mmHg despite administration of 2L of crystalloid and 2 units of uncrossmatched PRBCs. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Immediate exploratory laparotomy
. Pre-peritoneal pelvic packing and/or angiography
. Definitive internal fixation of the anterior and posterior pelvic ring
. Removal of the pelvic binder and application of an external fixator
. Placement of an IVC filter

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pre-peritoneal pelvic packing and/or angiography


Explanation

In hemodynamically unstable patients with pelvic ring injuries, the first step is mechanical stabilization of the pelvic volume (e.g., pelvic binder or sheet). If the patient remains persistently hypotensive despite resuscitation and stabilization, hemorrhage control is required. Institutional protocols vary between pre-peritoneal pelvic packing (to control venous bleeding, which is the most common source) and angiography with embolization (for arterial bleeding). Laparotomy is contraindicated unless there is a clear concurrent intra-abdominal source of bleeding, as it eliminates the tamponade effect.

Question 247

Topic: Pelvic & Acetabular Trauma
A 35-year-old male is brought to the trauma bay after a motorcycle accident. A pelvic radiograph shows a completely disrupted pubic symphysis and widened sacroiliac joints bilaterally (APC type III injury). He is hemodynamically unstable. What is the most common anatomical source of life-threatening hemorrhage in this injury pattern?
. Superior gluteal artery
. Presacral venous plexus and cancellous bone
. Internal pudendal artery
. External iliac artery
. Obturator artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Presacral venous plexus and cancellous bone


Explanation

While arterial bleeding (commonly from the superior gluteal or internal pudendal arteries) can occur and is often addressed by angioembolization, the vast majority (approximately 80-90%) of life-threatening hemorrhage in blunt pelvic ring injuries arises from the presacral venous plexus and the fractured cancellous bony surfaces. Venous and bony bleeding are primarily managed by reducing pelvic volume (e.g., with a pelvic binder or external fixator).

Question 248

Topic: Pelvic & Acetabular Trauma
When applying a circumferential pelvic binder for a hemodynamically unstable APC-III pelvic ring injury, what is the optimal anatomic landmark for placement to maximize reduction and minimize complications?
. Iliac crests
. Anterior superior iliac spines
. Greater trochanters
. Symphysis pubis
. Subtrochanteric line

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Greater trochanters


Explanation

Pelvic binders should be centered directly over the greater trochanters to effectively close the pelvic ring, generate appropriate compressive vectors, and avoid excessive pressure on the abdomen or inadequate reduction seen with higher placements (e.g., over the iliac crests).

Question 249

Topic: Pelvic & Acetabular Trauma

Diffuse idiopathic skeletal hyperostosis (DISH) is characterized by flowing ossification along the anterolateral aspect of the spine. According to Resnick's classical diagnostic criteria, how many contiguous vertebral bodies must be involved?

. 2
. 3
. 4
. 5
. 6

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 4


Explanation

Resnick's criteria for DISH include: flowing ossification of at least 4 contiguous vertebral bodies (bridging 3 intervertebral disc spaces), preservation of disc height, and the absence of apophyseal joint ankylosis or sacroiliac erosion.

Question 250

Topic: Pelvic & Acetabular Trauma
A 35-year-old male is brought to the trauma bay following a high-speed motorcycle collision. He is hemodynamically unstable with a blood pressure of 75/40 mmHg. An anteroposterior pelvic radiograph reveals an APC-III pelvic ring injury (diastasis of the pubic symphysis > 2.5 cm and disruption of the sacroiliac joints). A circumferential pelvic sheet or binder is indicated. To be maximally effective in reducing the pelvic volume and stabilizing the venous plexus, the binder must be centered over which anatomical landmark?
. The anterior superior iliac spines
. The greater trochanters
. The iliac crests
. The umbilicus
. The proximal femur shafts

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The greater trochanters


Explanation

To effectively reduce pelvic volume in open-book (APC) pelvic ring injuries, a pelvic binder or sheet must be centered squarely over the greater trochanters of the femurs. Placement over the iliac crests is a common error that can actually force the pelvis into further outward rotation or fail to adequately close the posterior pelvic ring, exacerbating hemorrhage.

Question 251

Topic: Pelvic & Acetabular Trauma
In a hemodynamically unstable patient with an anteroposterior compression (APC) type III pelvic ring injury, what is the anatomical target for the optimal placement of a circumferential pelvic sheet or binder?
. Iliac crests
. Anterior superior iliac spines
. Greater trochanters
. Mid-femur
. Level of the umbilicus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Greater trochanters


Explanation

Optimal placement of a pelvic binder is centered directly over the greater trochanters. Placing the binder too high (e.g., iliac crests or ASIS) reduces its biomechanical efficacy in closing the pelvic volume and can paradoxically open the true pelvis further.

Question 252

Topic: Pelvic & Acetabular Trauma
A 35-year-old male is involved in a severe crush injury at a construction site. Imaging reveals a widely displaced Anteroposterior Compression (APC) pelvic ring injury. According to the Young-Burgess classification, what specific ligamentous disruption differentiates an APC-III injury from an APC-II injury?
. Disruption of the symphysis pubis only
. Disruption of anterior sacroiliac ligaments with intact posterior sacroiliac ligaments
. Complete disruption of both anterior and posterior sacroiliac ligaments
. Vertical displacement of the hemipelvis through the sacrum
. Bilateral superior and inferior pubic rami fractures

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Complete disruption of both anterior and posterior sacroiliac ligaments


Explanation

In the Young-Burgess classification, an APC-II injury is characterized by symphyseal diastasis and disruption of the anterior sacroiliac, sacrotuberous, and sacrospinous ligaments, but the posterior sacroiliac ligaments remain intact (rotationally unstable, vertically stable). An APC-III injury involves complete disruption of both the anterior AND posterior sacroiliac ligaments, rendering the hemipelvis both rotationally and vertically unstable.

Question 253

Topic: Pelvic & Acetabular Trauma
A 32-year-old male is brought to the trauma bay in hemorrhagic shock after a motorcycle crash. An anteroposterior radiograph of the pelvis demonstrates an APC-III injury. A pelvic binder is applied. To maximize reduction of the pelvic volume, at what anatomical landmark should the binder be centered?
. Anterior superior iliac spines
. Iliac crests
. Greater trochanters
. Symphysis pubis
. Ischial tuberosities

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Greater trochanters


Explanation

Pelvic binders should be centered over the greater trochanters to effectively close the pelvic ring and reduce pelvic volume. Placement over the iliac crests or ASIS can paradoxically widen the true pelvis or fail to achieve adequate reduction in an open-book pelvic injury.

Question 254

Topic: Pelvic & Acetabular Trauma
A 22-year-old male is brought to the trauma bay after a motorcycle accident. Pelvic radiographs demonstrate significant widening of the pubic symphysis, indicative of an anteroposterior compression (APC) injury. To classify this as an APC Type III injury (Young-Burgess classification), which of the following combinations of posterior pelvic ring ligaments must be completely disrupted?
. Anterior sacroiliac ligaments only
. Sacrospinous and sacrotuberous ligaments only
. Anterior sacroiliac, sacrospinous, and sacrotuberous ligaments (posterior sacroiliac ligaments intact)
. Anterior sacroiliac, posterior sacroiliac, sacrospinous, and sacrotuberous ligaments
. Posterior sacroiliac ligaments only

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior sacroiliac, posterior sacroiliac, sacrospinous, and sacrotuberous ligaments


Explanation

In the Young-Burgess classification, APC I involves symphysis widening <2.5 cm with intact posterior ligaments. APC II involves symphysis widening >2.5 cm, disruption of the anterior sacroiliac, sacrospinous, and sacrotuberous ligaments, but the critical posterior sacroiliac (SI) ligaments remain intact (rotationally unstable, vertically stable). APC III indicates complete disruption of the anterior SI, sacrospinous, sacrotuberous, AND the posterior SI ligaments, resulting in a completely unstable hemipelvis (both rotationally and vertically).

Question 255

Topic: Pelvic & Acetabular Trauma
A 28-year-old motorcyclist is involved in a high-speed collision and sustains an anterior-posterior compression (APC) type III pelvic ring injury. According to the Young-Burgess classification, this injury pattern is characterized by the complete disruption of the symphysis pubis and which of the following posterior ligamentous complexes?
. Anterior sacroiliac, sacrospinous, and sacrotuberous ligaments only
. Anterior sacroiliac, sacrospinous, sacrotuberous, and posterior sacroiliac ligaments
. Posterior sacroiliac ligaments only
. Iliolumbar ligaments only
. Sacrospinous and sacrotuberous ligaments only

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior sacroiliac, sacrospinous, sacrotuberous, and posterior sacroiliac ligaments


Explanation

An APC III pelvic injury involves complete disruption of both the anterior and posterior pelvic rings. This includes the symphysis pubis anteriorly, and all of the posterior ligamentous structures: the anterior sacroiliac ligaments, the pelvic floor ligaments (sacrospinous and sacrotuberous), and the strong posterior sacroiliac ligaments, leading to complete global instability of the hemipelvis.

Question 256

Topic: Pelvic & Acetabular Trauma
A 28-year-old male sustains a pelvic ring injury after a fall from height. Radiographs and CT show a symphyseal diastasis of 3.5 cm. The anterior sacroiliac (SI) ligaments, sacrotuberous, and sacrospinous ligaments are disrupted, but the posterior SI ligaments remain intact. Based on the Young-Burgess classification, what is the correct diagnosis?
. Anteroposterior Compression I (APC I)
. Anteroposterior Compression II (APC II)
. Anteroposterior Compression III (APC III)
. Lateral Compression II (LC II)
. Lateral Compression III (LC III)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anteroposterior Compression II (APC II)


Explanation

The Young-Burgess classification describes the mechanism of injury for pelvic fractures. Anteroposterior Compression II (APC II) injuries are characterized by symphyseal diastasis > 2.5 cm with tearing of the anterior SI ligaments, sacrotuberous, and sacrospinous ligaments. Crucially, the posterior SI ligaments are intact, meaning the hemipelvis is rotationally unstable but vertically stable. APC III involves complete disruption of both anterior and posterior SI ligaments, resulting in both rotational and vertical instability.

Question 257

Topic: Pelvic & Acetabular Trauma
A 35-year-old male is brought to the trauma bay following a high-speed motorcycle crash. His heart rate is 125 bpm, and his blood pressure is 80/50 mmHg. An anteroposterior radiograph of the pelvis reveals a widened pubic symphysis (>2.5 cm) and significant widening of the bilateral sacroiliac joints. A pelvic binder is appropriately applied, and he receives 2 units of uncrossmatched blood. A FAST exam is negative. He remains hemodynamically unstable. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Preperitoneal pelvic packing
. Retrograde urethrogram
. Application of a second pelvic binder
. Exploratory laparotomy
. Immediate open reduction internal fixation of the anterior ring

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Preperitoneal pelvic packing


Explanation

This patient has an Anteroposterior Compression Type III (APC III) pelvic ring injury and is in hemorrhagic shock. In a hemodynamically unstable patient with a pelvic ring injury and a negative FAST (ruling out massive intra-abdominal hemorrhage), the source of bleeding is presumed to be the pelvis (often venous or cancellous bone, though arterial bleeding can occur). Preperitoneal pelvic packing or angioembolization (depending on institutional protocol and immediate availability) are the appropriate next steps after mechanical stabilization with a binder. Exploratory laparotomy is incorrect as the FAST is negative.

Question 258

Topic: Pelvic & Acetabular Trauma
A hemodynamically unstable 42-year-old male is brought to the trauma bay after a motorcycle crash. Pelvic radiographs demonstrate an APC-III pelvic ring injury ('open book' pelvis). A pelvic binder is immediately applied by the trauma team. Which of the following statements regarding the application and function of a pelvic binder is most accurate?
. It must be centered exactly over the greater trochanters to effectively close the pelvic ring
. It primarily achieves hemostasis by directly compressing bleeding from the superior gluteal artery
. It is absolutely contraindicated if a concurrent extraperitoneal bladder rupture is identified
. It should be applied tightly over the iliac crests to maximize anterior compression
. It works primarily by tamponading arterial bleeding in the presacral space

Correct Answer & Explanation

. It must be centered exactly over the greater trochanters to effectively close the pelvic ring


Explanation

To be effective in reducing pelvic volume and closing an open-book pelvic injury, a pelvic binder (or sheet) must be centered low, directly over the greater trochanters. Positioning it too high over the iliac crests can actually worsen the deformity by acting as a fulcrum. Its primary mechanism of action is reducing pelvic volume to encourage tamponade of the massive venous plexus bleeding, not arterial bleeding.

Question 259

Topic: Pelvic & Acetabular Trauma
A 35-year-old male presents after a high-speed motorcycle crash. Pelvic radiographs reveal symphysis pubis widening of 3.5 cm and widening of the anterior sacroiliac joints bilaterally, with intact posterior SI ligaments. What is the most common anatomic source of life-threatening hemorrhage in this specific injury pattern?
. Superior gluteal artery
. Internal pudendal artery
. Presacral venous plexus
. Cancellous bone of the fracture surfaces
. Obturator artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Presacral venous plexus


Explanation

The patient has an Anterior-Posterior Compression (APC) Type II pelvic ring injury. In pelvic trauma, roughly 80-90% of life-threatening hemorrhage is venous in origin, most commonly from the presacral and prevesical venous plexuses. While arterial bleeding (e.g., superior gluteal, internal pudendal) can occur and is often more rapidly fatal if present (particularly in severe APC III or highly displaced vertical shear/lateral compression patterns), the overall most common source of severe bleeding across pelvic ring disruptions is the venous plexus.

Question 260

Topic: Pelvic & Acetabular Trauma
A 42-year-old male is brought to the trauma bay after a crush injury. Pelvic radiographs show widening of the pubic symphysis of 3.5 cm and disruption of the anterior sacroiliac ligaments, but intact posterior sacroiliac ligaments. According to the Young-Burgess classification, which type of pelvic ring injury does this represent?
. APC I
. APC II
. APC III
. LC I
. LC II

Correct Answer & Explanation

. APC II


Explanation

The Young-Burgess classification divides anteroposterior compression (APC) injuries into three types. APC I: symphysis widening <2.5 cm with intact SI ligaments. APC II: symphysis widening >2.5 cm with disruption of the anterior SI, sacrotuberous, and sacrospinous ligaments, but INTACT posterior SI ligaments (rotationally unstable, vertically stable). APC III involves complete disruption of anterior and posterior SI ligaments.