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Question 521

Topic: Lower Extremity Trauma

When evaluating an ankle mortise radiograph for a suspected syndesmotic injury, which of the following radiographic parameters is the most reliable indicator of syndesmotic diastasis?

. Tibiofibular clear space > 5 mm measured 1 cm above the joint line
. Tibiofibular overlap < 10 mm on the AP view
. Medial clear space > 4 mm with the foot in neutral
. Talar tilt > 5 degrees on stress view
. Lateral clear space > 3 mm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tibiofibular clear space > 5 mm measured 1 cm above the joint line


Explanation

A tibiofibular clear space greater than 5 mm (measured 1 cm proximal to the tibial plafond) is the most reliable radiographic parameter for detecting syndesmotic widening on both AP and mortise views.

Question 522

Topic: Lower Extremity Trauma

Which of the following radiographic parameters on a standard mortise ankle radiograph is the most reliable direct indicator of a syndesmotic injury?

. Medial clear space greater than 4 mm
. Tibiofibular overlap less than 1 mm
. Tibiofibular clear space greater than 6 mm
. Talocrural angle less than 75 degrees
. Talar tilt greater than 5 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tibiofibular clear space greater than 6 mm


Explanation

A tibiofibular clear space greater than 6 mm, measured 1 cm proximal to the joint line on AP and mortise views, is a reliable direct radiographic indicator of syndesmotic widening. Normal tibiofibular clear space is < 6 mm.

Question 523

Topic: Lower Extremity Trauma

The popliteal artery is at high risk of stretch injury or transection during high-energy knee dislocations. It is particularly vulnerable due to firm tethering proximally at the adductor hiatus and distally at the:

. Popliteus fascia
. Tendinous arch of the soleus
. Interosseous membrane
. Medial head of the gastrocnemius
. Posterior tibial plateau

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tendinous arch of the soleus


Explanation

The popliteal artery is firmly fixed distally by the tendinous arch of the soleus muscle, and proximally by the adductor hiatus. These rigid tethering points prevent the artery from accommodating extreme translational forces during knee dislocations.

Question 524

Topic: Lower Extremity Trauma

In the setting of an ankle syndesmotic injury, which ligament provides the greatest resistance to lateral displacement of the fibula?

. Anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL)
. Posterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (PITFL)
. Interosseous ligament
. Transverse tibiofibular ligament
. Deltoid ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (PITFL)


Explanation

Biomechanical studies have shown that the posterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (PITFL) provides the largest contribution (approximately 42%) of the syndesmotic resistance to fibular displacement. The interosseous ligament provides about 22%, and the AITFL provides about 35%.

Question 525

Topic: Lower Extremity Trauma

During a posterolateral approach to the tibial plateau, the common peroneal nerve must be carefully identified and protected. As it wraps around the fibular neck, it passes between the two heads of which muscle?

. Gastrocnemius
. Peroneus longus
. Extensor digitorum longus
. Soleus
. Tibialis anterior

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Peroneus longus


Explanation

The common peroneal nerve wraps around the fibular neck and enters the anterior/lateral leg by passing between the superficial and deep heads of the peroneus longus muscle.

Question 526

Topic: Lower Extremity Trauma

A 14-year-old with Ellis-van Creveld syndrome requires surgical intervention for recurrent patellar instability. The instability in this syndrome is primarily driven by which of the following combined structural factors?

. Severe genu varum and medial condyle aplasia
. Generalized ligamentous laxity without underlying bony deformity
. Hypoplastic lateral femoral condyle and genu valgum
. Isolated patella alta from a ruptured patellar tendon
. Congenital absence of the medial patellofemoral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hypoplastic lateral femoral condyle and genu valgum


Explanation

Recurrent patellar dislocation is common in EVC syndrome due to the underlying severe genu valgum deformity coupled with hypoplasia of the lateral femoral condyle and lateral tibial plateau.

Question 527

Topic: Lower Extremity Trauma

A 6-year-old child with Ellis-van Creveld syndrome presents to the orthopedic clinic with progressive, severe genu valgum. What is the primary anatomic abnormality responsible for this specific deformity in this syndrome?

. Medial distal femoral overgrowth
. Lateral distal femoral hypoplasia
. Medial proximal tibial overgrowth
. Lateral proximal tibial hypoplasia
. Proximal fibular overgrowth

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral proximal tibial hypoplasia


Explanation

Genu valgum is a hallmark orthopedic manifestation of Ellis-van Creveld syndrome. It is primarily driven by hypoplasia and depression of the lateral proximal tibial plateau.

Question 528

Topic: Lower Extremity Trauma



A patient's lower extremity radiographs reveal a mechanical lateral distal femoral angle (mLDFA) of 81 degrees and a medial proximal tibial angle (MPTA) of 87 degrees. The joint line convergence angle (JLCA) is 2 degrees. What is the primary source of the deformity?

. Proximal tibia (varus)
. Distal femur (valgus)
. Distal femur (varus)
. Proximal tibia (valgus)
. Intra-articular knee joint wear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Distal femur (valgus)


Explanation

A normal mLDFA is approximately 87-88 degrees. An mLDFA of 81 degrees indicates a valgus deformity of the distal femur. Because the MPTA (normal 87 degrees) and JLCA (normal 0-2 degrees) are normal, the deformity is isolated to the distal femur.

Question 529

Topic: Lower Extremity Trauma

A surgeon is planning a lateral opening wedge osteotomy of the distal femur to correct a valgus deformity. To prevent unintended sagittal plane deformity (flexion or extension), where should the mechanical hinge be aligned?

. Anterior to the mid-axial line of the femur
. Exactly on the mid-axial line in the sagittal plane, on the anterior cortex
. Posterior to the posterior femoral cortex
. On the medial cortex, along the mid-axial line in the sagittal plane
. On the lateral cortex, along the mid-axial line in the sagittal plane

Correct Answer & Explanation

. On the medial cortex, along the mid-axial line in the sagittal plane


Explanation

For a purely coronal plane correction (lateral opening wedge), the hinge must be located on the opposite (medial) cortex. To avoid creating iatrogenic recurvatum or procurvatum, the hinge must lie exactly on the sagittal mid-axial line.

Question 530

Topic: Lower Extremity Trauma

According to the White-Menelaus rule of thumb for estimating remaining growth, what is the expected annual longitudinal growth from the distal femoral and proximal tibial physes, respectively?

. 9 mm and 6 mm
. 10 mm and 8 mm
. 6 mm and 9 mm
. 12 mm and 6 mm
. 8 mm and 10 mm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 9 mm and 6 mm


Explanation

The White-Menelaus method estimates growth as 3/8 inch (approx. 9 mm) per year for the distal femur and 1/4 inch (approx. 6 mm) per year for the proximal tibia. This is universally tested as 9 mm and 6 mm in board examinations.

Question 531

Topic: Lower Extremity Trauma

A 45-year-old male presents with severe varus gonarthrosis. Standing long leg radiographs reveal a mechanical axis deviation (MAD) of 45 mm medial to the center of the knee. The mechanical lateral distal femoral angle (mLDFA) is 88 degrees and the medial proximal tibial angle (MPTA) is 80 degrees. The joint line convergence angle (JLCA) is 1 degree. What is the primary source of the varus deformity and the most appropriate site for osteotomy?

. Distal femur; requires a medial closing wedge osteotomy
. Proximal tibia; requires a lateral closing wedge osteotomy
. Proximal tibia; requires a medial opening wedge osteotomy
. Knee joint; requires isolated medial collateral ligament balancing
. Both femur and tibia; requires a double-level osteotomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Proximal tibia; requires a medial opening wedge osteotomy


Explanation

The normal mLDFA is approximately 87 degrees (range 85-90), while the normal MPTA is also 87 degrees. An MPTA of 80 degrees indicates that proximal tibial varus is the primary source of the deformity, making a proximal tibial osteotomy (such as a medial opening wedge) the corrective procedure of choice.

Question 532

Topic: Lower Extremity Trauma

A 12-year-old boy presents with a 2.5 cm leg length discrepancy due to a prior left femoral shaft fracture. His skeletal age is identical to his chronological age. Based on the Menelaus approximation of the Green-Anderson charts, and assuming skeletal maturity at age 16, which intervention will most accurately achieve limb length equality at maturity?

. Percutaneous epiphysiodesis of the right distal femur only
. Percutaneous epiphysiodesis of the right proximal tibia only
. Percutaneous epiphysiodesis of the right distal femur and right proximal tibia
. Left femoral lengthening over an intramedullary nail
. Epiphysiodesis of the right proximal tibia and right distal fibula

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Percutaneous epiphysiodesis of the right proximal tibia only


Explanation

Using the Menelaus method, the proximal tibia grows approximately 0.6 cm (1/4 inch) per year. With 4 years of growth remaining (age 16 minus age 12), a proximal tibial epiphysiodesis will yield approximately 2.4 cm of relative shortening, neatly correcting the 2.5 cm discrepancy.

Question 533

Topic: Lower Extremity Trauma

A 16-year-old male presents with lateral mechanical axis deviation (MAD) of the lower extremity. Standing alignment radiographs reveal a mechanical lateral distal femoral angle (mLDFA) of 81° and a medial proximal tibial angle (MPTA) of 87°. The joint line convergence angle (JLCA) is 1°. What is the primary anatomic source of his malalignment?

. Distal femur valgus deformity
. Proximal tibia valgus deformity
. Intra-articular knee joint laxity
. Proximal femur varus deformity
. Distal femur varus deformity

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Distal femur valgus deformity


Explanation

Normal mLDFA is approximately 88° (range 85°-90°) and normal MPTA is 87° (range 85°-90°). An mLDFA of 81° is abnormally low, indicating a valgus deformity originating in the distal femur.

Question 534

Topic: Lower Extremity Trauma

A 12-year-old boy presents with limited knee range of motion and aching pain. Imaging is shown below, demonstrating a protruding bone mass extending into the popliteal fossa. The mass originates from the epiphysis. What is the estimated incidence of this specific developmental disorder?




. 1 in 10,000
. 1 in 100,000
. 1 in 1,000,000
. 1 in 10,000,000

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 1 in 1,000,000


Explanation

Correct Answer: 1 in 1,000,000The images demonstrate DEH of the distal femur. Dysplasia epiphysealis hemimelica is a very rare skeletal developmental disorder with an estimated incidence of 1 in 1,000,000.

Question 535

Topic: Lower Extremity Trauma

In a patient with Dysplasia Epiphysealis Hemimelica of the distal femur, what advanced imaging modality is considered the gold standard for evaluating the extent of the unossified cartilaginous cap and its relationship to the articular surface prior to surgery?

. Computed Tomography (CT) without contrast
. Technetium-99m bone scan
. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
. Positron Emission Tomography (PET)
. Diagnostic Ultrasound

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)


Explanation

MRI is the most useful imaging modality for DEH because it clearly delineates the radiolucent cartilaginous cap. It precisely shows the lesion's relationship with the normal epiphysis and articular cartilage.

Question 536

Topic: Lower Extremity Trauma

A 5-year-old boy is diagnosed with symptomatic Dysplasia Epiphysealis Hemimelica of the distal femur. Surgical intervention is planned. Which imaging modality is most critical for preoperative evaluation of the unossified cartilaginous extent of the lesion and joint congruity?

. Computed Tomography (CT)
. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
. Technetium-99m Bone Scan
. Positron Emission Tomography (PET)
. Ultrasound

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)


Explanation

MRI is the imaging modality of choice for DEH because it accurately delineates the unossified cartilaginous cap. It helps determine the extent of joint involvement and aids in preoperative planning.

Question 537

Topic: Lower Extremity Trauma

An 8-year-old boy presents with a bony prominence over the medial aspect of the knee. Radiographs reveal an irregular, multi-lobulated ossified mass arising from the medial epiphysis of the distal femur.

If surgical intervention is planned, which advanced imaging modality is most critical for accurately evaluating the unossified cartilaginous cap and joint congruity prior to excision?

. Positron Emission Tomography (PET)
. Computed Tomography (CT) without contrast
. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
. Triple-phase bone scan
. Diagnostic ultrasound

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)


Explanation

MRI is the imaging modality of choice for surgical planning in DEH. It accurately delineates the extent of the unossified cartilaginous cap, assesses the integrity of the surrounding articular cartilage, and helps surgeons plan an excision that avoids disrupting normal joint structures.

Question 538

Topic: Lower Extremity Trauma

Mechanical Axis Deviation (MAD) of the lower extremity is standardly defined as:

. The angle between the anatomical and mechanical axes of the femur
. The perpendicular distance from the center of the knee joint to the mechanical axis line
. The intersection of the joint orientation lines of the femur and tibia
. The difference between the medial proximal tibial angle and lateral distal femoral angle
. The distance from the tibial plateau to the tibial tubercle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The perpendicular distance from the center of the knee joint to the mechanical axis line


Explanation

MAD is quantified by drawing the mechanical axis line from the center of the femoral head to the center of the ankle mortise. The perpendicular distance from this line to the center of the knee joint determines the magnitude of the deviation.

Question 539

Topic: Lower Extremity Trauma

A 45-year-old patient presents with knee pain and a 10-degree valgus alignment. Radiographs reveal a mechanical Lateral Distal Femoral Angle (mLDFA) of 81 degrees and a medial Proximal Tibial Angle (mPTA) of 87 degrees. What is the most appropriate corrective osteotomy?

. Medial opening-wedge high tibial osteotomy
. Lateral closing-wedge high tibial osteotomy
. Medial closing-wedge distal femoral osteotomy
. Distal tibial osteotomy
. Focal dome osteotomy of the tibial tubercle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medial closing-wedge distal femoral osteotomy


Explanation

The normal mLDFA is approximately 87 degrees and normal mPTA is 87 degrees. An mLDFA of 81 degrees indicates the valgus deformity is located entirely in the distal femur, requiring a distal femoral osteotomy.

Question 540

Topic: Lower Extremity Trauma

A patient with a severe mechanical axis deviation is evaluated for deformity correction. Radiographs demonstrate a mechanical Lateral Distal Femoral Angle (mLDFA) of 98 degrees and a Medial Proximal Tibial Angle (MPTA) of 87 degrees. What is the primary source of the patient's deformity?

. Proximal tibia valgus
. Distal femur varus
. Distal femur valgus
. Proximal tibia varus
. Intra-articular ligamentous laxity

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Distal femur varus


Explanation

A normal mLDFA is approximately 85 to 90 degrees. An mLDFA of 98 degrees indicates a significant varus deformity of the distal femur, while the MPTA of 87 degrees falls within normal limits.