This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in Lower Extremity Trauma. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 521
Topic: Lower Extremity Trauma
When evaluating an ankle mortise radiograph for a suspected syndesmotic injury, which of the following radiographic parameters is the most reliable indicator of syndesmotic diastasis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Tibiofibular clear space > 5 mm measured 1 cm above the joint line
Explanation
A tibiofibular clear space greater than 5 mm (measured 1 cm proximal to the tibial plafond) is the most reliable radiographic parameter for detecting syndesmotic widening on both AP and mortise views.
Question 522
Topic: Lower Extremity Trauma
Which of the following radiographic parameters on a standard mortise ankle radiograph is the most reliable direct indicator of a syndesmotic injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Tibiofibular clear space greater than 6 mm
Explanation
A tibiofibular clear space greater than 6 mm, measured 1 cm proximal to the joint line on AP and mortise views, is a reliable direct radiographic indicator of syndesmotic widening. Normal tibiofibular clear space is < 6 mm.
Question 523
Topic: Lower Extremity Trauma
The popliteal artery is at high risk of stretch injury or transection during high-energy knee dislocations. It is particularly vulnerable due to firm tethering proximally at the adductor hiatus and distally at the:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Tendinous arch of the soleus
Explanation
The popliteal artery is firmly fixed distally by the tendinous arch of the soleus muscle, and proximally by the adductor hiatus. These rigid tethering points prevent the artery from accommodating extreme translational forces during knee dislocations.
Question 524
Topic: Lower Extremity Trauma
In the setting of an ankle syndesmotic injury, which ligament provides the greatest resistance to lateral displacement of the fibula?
Biomechanical studies have shown that the posterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (PITFL) provides the largest contribution (approximately 42%) of the syndesmotic resistance to fibular displacement. The interosseous ligament provides about 22%, and the AITFL provides about 35%.
Question 525
Topic: Lower Extremity Trauma
During a posterolateral approach to the tibial plateau, the common peroneal nerve must be carefully identified and protected. As it wraps around the fibular neck, it passes between the two heads of which muscle?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Peroneus longus
Explanation
The common peroneal nerve wraps around the fibular neck and enters the anterior/lateral leg by passing between the superficial and deep heads of the peroneus longus muscle.
Question 526
Topic: Lower Extremity Trauma
A 14-year-old with Ellis-van Creveld syndrome requires surgical intervention for recurrent patellar instability. The instability in this syndrome is primarily driven by which of the following combined structural factors?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Hypoplastic lateral femoral condyle and genu valgum
Explanation
Recurrent patellar dislocation is common in EVC syndrome due to the underlying severe genu valgum deformity coupled with hypoplasia of the lateral femoral condyle and lateral tibial plateau.
Question 527
Topic: Lower Extremity Trauma
A 6-year-old child with Ellis-van Creveld syndrome presents to the orthopedic clinic with progressive, severe genu valgum. What is the primary anatomic abnormality responsible for this specific deformity in this syndrome?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lateral proximal tibial hypoplasia
Explanation
Genu valgum is a hallmark orthopedic manifestation of Ellis-van Creveld syndrome. It is primarily driven by hypoplasia and depression of the lateral proximal tibial plateau.
Question 528
Topic: Lower Extremity Trauma
A patient's lower extremity radiographs reveal a mechanical lateral distal femoral angle (mLDFA) of 81 degrees and a medial proximal tibial angle (MPTA) of 87 degrees. The joint line convergence angle (JLCA) is 2 degrees. What is the primary source of the deformity?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Distal femur (valgus)
Explanation
A normal mLDFA is approximately 87-88 degrees. An mLDFA of 81 degrees indicates a valgus deformity of the distal femur. Because the MPTA (normal 87 degrees) and JLCA (normal 0-2 degrees) are normal, the deformity is isolated to the distal femur.
Question 529
Topic: Lower Extremity Trauma
A surgeon is planning a lateral opening wedge osteotomy of the distal femur to correct a valgus deformity. To prevent unintended sagittal plane deformity (flexion or extension), where should the mechanical hinge be aligned?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. On the medial cortex, along the mid-axial line in the sagittal plane
Explanation
For a purely coronal plane correction (lateral opening wedge), the hinge must be located on the opposite (medial) cortex. To avoid creating iatrogenic recurvatum or procurvatum, the hinge must lie exactly on the sagittal mid-axial line.
Question 530
Topic: Lower Extremity Trauma
According to the White-Menelaus rule of thumb for estimating remaining growth, what is the expected annual longitudinal growth from the distal femoral and proximal tibial physes, respectively?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 9 mm and 6 mm
Explanation
The White-Menelaus method estimates growth as 3/8 inch (approx. 9 mm) per year for the distal femur and 1/4 inch (approx. 6 mm) per year for the proximal tibia. This is universally tested as 9 mm and 6 mm in board examinations.
Question 531
Topic: Lower Extremity Trauma
A 45-year-old male presents with severe varus gonarthrosis. Standing long leg radiographs reveal a mechanical axis deviation (MAD) of 45 mm medial to the center of the knee. The mechanical lateral distal femoral angle (mLDFA) is 88 degrees and the medial proximal tibial angle (MPTA) is 80 degrees. The joint line convergence angle (JLCA) is 1 degree. What is the primary source of the varus deformity and the most appropriate site for osteotomy?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Proximal tibia; requires a medial opening wedge osteotomy
Explanation
The normal mLDFA is approximately 87 degrees (range 85-90), while the normal MPTA is also 87 degrees. An MPTA of 80 degrees indicates that proximal tibial varus is the primary source of the deformity, making a proximal tibial osteotomy (such as a medial opening wedge) the corrective procedure of choice.
Question 532
Topic: Lower Extremity Trauma
A 12-year-old boy presents with a 2.5 cm leg length discrepancy due to a prior left femoral shaft fracture. His skeletal age is identical to his chronological age. Based on the Menelaus approximation of the Green-Anderson charts, and assuming skeletal maturity at age 16, which intervention will most accurately achieve limb length equality at maturity?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Percutaneous epiphysiodesis of the right proximal tibia only
Explanation
Using the Menelaus method, the proximal tibia grows approximately 0.6 cm (1/4 inch) per year. With 4 years of growth remaining (age 16 minus age 12), a proximal tibial epiphysiodesis will yield approximately 2.4 cm of relative shortening, neatly correcting the 2.5 cm discrepancy.
Question 533
Topic: Lower Extremity Trauma
A 16-year-old male presents with lateral mechanical axis deviation (MAD) of the lower extremity. Standing alignment radiographs reveal a mechanical lateral distal femoral angle (mLDFA) of 81° and a medial proximal tibial angle (MPTA) of 87°. The joint line convergence angle (JLCA) is 1°. What is the primary anatomic source of his malalignment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Distal femur valgus deformity
Explanation
Normal mLDFA is approximately 88° (range 85°-90°) and normal MPTA is 87° (range 85°-90°). An mLDFA of 81° is abnormally low, indicating a valgus deformity originating in the distal femur.
Question 534
Topic: Lower Extremity Trauma
A 12-year-old boy presents with limited knee range of motion and aching pain. Imaging is shown below, demonstrating a protruding bone mass extending into the popliteal fossa. The mass originates from the epiphysis. What is the estimated incidence of this specific developmental disorder?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 1 in 1,000,000
Explanation
Correct Answer: 1 in 1,000,000The images demonstrate DEH of the distal femur. Dysplasia epiphysealis hemimelica is a very rare skeletal developmental disorder with an estimated incidence of 1 in 1,000,000.
Question 535
Topic: Lower Extremity Trauma
In a patient with Dysplasia Epiphysealis Hemimelica of the distal femur, what advanced imaging modality is considered the gold standard for evaluating the extent of the unossified cartilaginous cap and its relationship to the articular surface prior to surgery?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
Explanation
MRI is the most useful imaging modality for DEH because it clearly delineates the radiolucent cartilaginous cap. It precisely shows the lesion's relationship with the normal epiphysis and articular cartilage.
Question 536
Topic: Lower Extremity Trauma
A 5-year-old boy is diagnosed with symptomatic Dysplasia Epiphysealis Hemimelica of the distal femur. Surgical intervention is planned. Which imaging modality is most critical for preoperative evaluation of the unossified cartilaginous extent of the lesion and joint congruity?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
Explanation
MRI is the imaging modality of choice for DEH because it accurately delineates the unossified cartilaginous cap. It helps determine the extent of joint involvement and aids in preoperative planning.
Question 537
Topic: Lower Extremity Trauma
An 8-year-old boy presents with a bony prominence over the medial aspect of the knee. Radiographs reveal an irregular, multi-lobulated ossified mass arising from the medial epiphysis of the distal femur.
If surgical intervention is planned, which advanced imaging modality is most critical for accurately evaluating the unossified cartilaginous cap and joint congruity prior to excision?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
Explanation
MRI is the imaging modality of choice for surgical planning in DEH. It accurately delineates the extent of the unossified cartilaginous cap, assesses the integrity of the surrounding articular cartilage, and helps surgeons plan an excision that avoids disrupting normal joint structures.
Question 538
Topic: Lower Extremity Trauma
Mechanical Axis Deviation (MAD) of the lower extremity is standardly defined as:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The perpendicular distance from the center of the knee joint to the mechanical axis line
Explanation
MAD is quantified by drawing the mechanical axis line from the center of the femoral head to the center of the ankle mortise. The perpendicular distance from this line to the center of the knee joint determines the magnitude of the deviation.
Question 539
Topic: Lower Extremity Trauma
A 45-year-old patient presents with knee pain and a 10-degree valgus alignment. Radiographs reveal a mechanical Lateral Distal Femoral Angle (mLDFA) of 81 degrees and a medial Proximal Tibial Angle (mPTA) of 87 degrees. What is the most appropriate corrective osteotomy?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Medial closing-wedge distal femoral osteotomy
Explanation
The normal mLDFA is approximately 87 degrees and normal mPTA is 87 degrees. An mLDFA of 81 degrees indicates the valgus deformity is located entirely in the distal femur, requiring a distal femoral osteotomy.
Question 540
Topic: Lower Extremity Trauma
A patient with a severe mechanical axis deviation is evaluated for deformity correction. Radiographs demonstrate a mechanical Lateral Distal Femoral Angle (mLDFA) of 98 degrees and a Medial Proximal Tibial Angle (MPTA) of 87 degrees. What is the primary source of the patient's deformity?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Distal femur varus
Explanation
A normal mLDFA is approximately 85 to 90 degrees. An mLDFA of 98 degrees indicates a significant varus deformity of the distal femur, while the MPTA of 87 degrees falls within normal limits.
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