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Question 1841

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 13-year-old boy has knee pain after sustaining a mild twisting injury while playing basketball 4 weeks ago. Radiographs and MRI scans are shown in Figures 24a through 24d, and biopsy specimens are shown in Figures 24e and 24f. Treatment should consist of
. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by surgical resection and reconstruction.
. Chemotherapy followed by radiation therapy.
. IV antibiotics for 4 weeks, followed by oral antibiotics for 4 weeks.
. Surgical resection and reconstruction followed by chemotherapy.
. Radiation therapy alone.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by surgical resection and reconstruction.


Explanation

The imaging studies and histology are consistent with high-grade osteosarcoma. The standard treatment for osteosarcoma is neoadjuvant chemotherapy combined with wide surgical resection that can be performed with amputation or limb salvage depending on characteristics unique to each tumor and each patient. In most patients, limb salvage surgery can be performed with reconstruction using allografts and/or megaprostheses. Osteosarcoma is poorly responsive to radiation therapy. Chemotherapy alone, in the absence of appropriate surgery, has not proven effective.

Question 1842

Topic: Soft Tissue Tumors & Metastasis
A 75-year-old woman notes a slowly enlarging mass in the right anterior thigh. Her medical history is significant only for hypertension. An MRI scan of her thigh is shown in Figures 60a through 60d. Which of the following surgical margins is the most appropriate for removal of this lesion?
. Radical
. Wide
. Marginal
. Intralesional
. Contaminated

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Marginal


Explanation

The patient has a large deep anterior thigh mass that has imaging characteristics of mature fat. Intramuscular lipomas are effectively treated with marginal resections with very low recurrence rates. Large lipomas often have small amounts of intralesional signal changes frequently representing trapped muscle fibers and do not necessitate more extensive margins.

Question 1843

Topic: Bone Tumors

Figure 6a through 6c

. Curettage and/or grafting
. Radiofrequency ablation
. Intravenous (IV) antibiotics
. Incision, drainage, and IV antibiotics
. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by surgical reconstruction
. Observation alone

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Curettage and/or grafting


Explanation

DISCUSSIONFigure 2 depicts a typical unicameral bone cyst with a pathologic fracture. The decision to treat this lesion should be based on the amount of cortical thinning. If these lesions involve a pathologic fracture, many surgeons will treat them nonsurgically to see if the fracture stimulates healing of the cyst. If the cyst wall remains thin or the patient is symptomatic, then treatment is directed at decreasing cyst volume, increasing cortical thickness, and eliminating symptoms. This can be accomplished by curettage and grafting, injection with autogenous bone marrow, or grafting with 1 of the many available bone void fillers. In some cases, internal fixation may be required. This typically is accomplished with flexible intramedullary nails.Figure 3 shows a typical nonossifying fibroma. These benign lesions are usually incidental findings on a radiograph and often resolve in adulthood. Treatment usually is not required, and these lesions typically do not produce symptoms.Figure 4 shows an osteoid osteoma of the femoral neck. This is characterized by a central radiolucent nidus surrounded by reactive bone with increased radiodensity. These lesions are painful because of the large amount of prostaglandin they secrete. They temporarily respond to oral anti-inflammatory drugs. Treatment is directed at eliminating the nidus and can be done through curettage, but radiofrequency ablation, which allows for a minimally invasive approach, is often used today.Figure 5 shows diskitis with vertebral osteomyelitis. The disease is characterized by fever and back pain. Movement is extremely uncomfortable for these children, and they may adopt unusual postures to alleviate pain. The MRI shows involvement of 1 vertebrae and an adjacent disk. Left untreated, this condition often spreads to involve multiple vertebrae and also can cause an epidural abscess. Treatment during the early stages is IV antibiotics. Many orthopaedic surgeons also use bracing to prevent late vertebral collapse.Figures 6a through 6c show septic arthritis of the ankle with metaphyseal osteomyelitis. The recommended treatment is incision and drainage followed by IV antibiotics. MRI may be considered before surgery to assess for an associated osteomyelitis or abscess that may also necessitate surgical debridement. Increasingly, these scenarios are managed with a rapid transition to oral antibiotics.

Question 1844

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 78-year-old man being seen for routine follow-up studies reports mild to moderate pain in his left arm. The patient has a history of lung cancer and severe heart disease. A radiograph and a bone scan are shown in Figures 36a and 36b. Treatment should consist of
. intramedullary fixation.
. arterial embolization.
. curettage and cementation.
. radiation therapy.
. segmental resection and reconstruction using a diaphyseal metal spacer.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. radiation therapy.


Explanation

The patient has lung cancer metastatic to the left humerus that is mildly to moderately symptomatic. Radiographically, the lesion is small and is not associated with significant cortical destruction. Metastatic lesions in the upper extremity have a lower incidence of pathologic fracture than lesions in the lower extremity.

Question 1845

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
Figures 35a and 35b show the axial T2-weighted and coronal T1-weighted MRI scans of a patient who has enlargement of the right thigh. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Conventional osteosarcoma
. Periosteal osteosarcoma
. Ewing’s sarcoma
. Myositis ossificans
. Subperiosteal chondroma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Periosteal osteosarcoma


Explanation

The images show a large, almost circumferential, mass surrounding the diaphysis of the femur. The intramedullary signal is normal with minimal cortical destruction, both findings that should be abnormal in conventional osteosarcoma and Ewing’s sarcoma. There are very low-signal striations representing osteoid formation that would have a sunburst radiographic pattern. This indicates an osteogenic lesion. Myositis ossificans is not indicated because studies would reveal zonal ossification starting in the periphery rather than the more central pattern seen in this patient. This appearance is typical for periosteal osteosarcoma.

Question 1846

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 60-year-old male with a 30-year history of chronic tibial osteomyelitis presents with a rapidly growing, fungating, and malodorous mass arising from his chronic sinus tract. Biopsy is most likely to reveal which of the following pathologies?

. Basal cell carcinoma
. Squamous cell carcinoma
. Malignant melanoma
. Osteosarcoma
. Angiosarcoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Squamous cell carcinoma


Explanation

Marjolin's ulcer refers to malignant transformation that occurs within chronic wounds, burn scars, or chronic osteomyelitis sinus tracts. The most common histologic type by far is squamous cell carcinoma, which tends to be highly aggressive and has a high rate of metastasis in this setting.

Question 1847

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 55-year-old woman presents with bilateral snapping and pain at the inferior, medial borders of her scapulae with shoulder movement. MRI of the scapulothoracic articulation reveals bilateral, poorly marginated, soft-tissue masses deep to the latissimus dorsi and serratus anterior with signal intensity similar to skeletal muscle and interspersed streaks of fat. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Scapular osteochondroma
. Elastofibroma dorsi
. Luschka tubercle
. Desmoid tumor
. Fibrosarcoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Elastofibroma dorsi


Explanation

Elastofibroma dorsi is a benign, slow-growing, soft-tissue tumor most commonly found in the subscapular region (deep to the latissimus dorsi and rhomboids) of older individuals. It is bilateral in up to 50% of cases. The MRI appearance is characteristic, showing alternating streaks of fibrous tissue (similar signal to muscle) and adipose tissue. It is a classic cause of snapping scapula syndrome.

Question 1848

Topic: Bone Tumors
A 23-year-old woman reports right knee pain and fullness. The pain is worse with activity but also present at rest. Radiographs are shown in Figures 20a and 20b. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Osteosarcoma
. Chondroblastoma
. Stress fracture
. Posttraumatic changes
. Chondrosarcoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Osteosarcoma


Explanation

The radiographs reveal a predominantly lytic, destructive lesion of the distal femur, although there is a hint of some blastic change as well. The lesion has violated the cortex, and there is mineralization outside the cortex laterally. The lateral radiograph suggests a soft-tissue density. These aggressive changes on radiographs in this age group are strongly suggestive of osteosarcoma.

Question 1849

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 40-year-old male agricultural worker from the San Joaquin Valley presents with a chronic draining lesion over his patella. Radiographs show a lytic lesion. Histopathology of a biopsy reveals spherules containing endospores. What is the most appropriate initial pharmacological treatment after surgical debridement?

. Intravenous Vancomycin and Ceftriaxone
. Oral Metronidazole and Ciprofloxacin
. Intravenous Micafungin only
. Intravenous Amphotericin B or prolonged oral Itraconazole/Fluconazole
. Oral Terbinafine

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Intravenous Amphotericin B or prolonged oral Itraconazole/Fluconazole


Explanation

The patient has osseous Coccidioidomycosis ('Valley Fever'), which is endemic to the southwestern US. The hallmark histological finding is spherules containing endospores. Treatment for fungal osteoarticular infections typically involves surgical debridement followed by systemic antifungal therapy, commonly Intravenous Amphotericin B for severe disease, or prolonged oral azole therapy (Itraconazole or Fluconazole).

Question 1850

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 54-year-old woman underwent prophylactic intramedullary fixation for an impending fracture of her right femur secondary to metastatic breast cancer. A bone scan revealed a second lesion in her inferior pubic ramus. Her oncologist has recommended that she receive the intravenous bisphosphonate, zoledronic acid, because the medication would
. result in increased bone density.
. accelerate healing of the femoral fracture.
. lower the serum phosphate level.
. reduce processing of future bone metastases.
. heal other impending fractures.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. reduce processing of future bone metastases.


Explanation

Bisphosphonates have been reported to reduce the incidence of new osseous lesions and prevent an increase in size of existing lesions. Zoledronic acid has been reported in clinical trials to decrease the skeletal complications of patients with multiple myeloma and with bone metastases from solid tumors. Results also have demonstrated that zoledronic acid delays the initial onset of bone complications by more than 2 months in patients with non-small-cell lung cancer and other solid tumors.

Question 1851

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 60-year-old woman with a history of breast cancer has a rapidly enlarging arm mass. The lesion is situated outside of the prior irradiation field, but within an area of heavy lymphedema involvement. Needle biopsy reveals a high-grade sarcoma. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Lymphangiosarcoma
. Acral myxoinflammatory fibroblastic sarcoma
. Hemangioendothelioma
. Hemangiopericytoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lymphangiosarcoma


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Lymphangiosarcomas that arise in pre-existing lymphedema are aggressive malignancies (i.e., Stewart-Treves syndrome) that require resection or amputation.

Question 1852

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 29-year-old woman reports shoulder pain after sustaining a minor fall 6 weeks ago. She has a history of celiac sprue. Radiographs of the forearm and shoulder are shown in Figures 53a and 53b. Which of the following serum abnormalities would be expected?
. Elevated calcium level
. Elevated PTH level
. Elevated 1,25(OH)2D
. Elevated phosphate level
. Low alkaline phosphatase level

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Elevated PTH level


Explanation

Celiac sprue results in rapid gastrointestinal transit and fatty stools that impair the absorption of calcium and vitamin D and result in nutritional-deficiency osteomalacia with secondary hyperparathyroidism. Serum findings include low or normal calcium, low phosphate, elevated alkaline phosphatase, low 1,25(OH)2D, and increased PTH levels. Secondary hyperparathyroidism is associated with a variety of conditions including malabsorption syndromes.

Question 1853

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 40-year-old woman undergoes excision of a painful, swollen mass in the third intermetatarsal space after failing shoe modifications and injections. Histopathological examination of the excised 'Morton's neuroma' is most likely to show which of the following?

. Perineural fibrosis and nerve degeneration
. Proliferation of Schwann cells in a palisading pattern
. Giant cells and hemosiderin deposition
. Benign encapsulated tumor of the myelin sheath
. Malignant peripheral nerve sheath proliferation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Perineural fibrosis and nerve degeneration


Explanation

A Morton's neuroma is not a true neoplastic neuroma. Histologically, it is characterized by perineural fibrosis, epineural degeneration, and demyelination of the interdigital nerve secondary to chronic repetitive microtrauma.

Question 1854

Topic: Soft Tissue Tumors & Metastasis

Histologic evaluation of a symptomatic mass excised from the third intermetatarsal space of a 45-year-old woman reveals marked perineural fibrosis, endoneurial edema, and demyelination of nerve fibers. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Schwannoma
. Neurofibroma
. Morton's neuroma
. Ganglion cyst
. Plantar fibromatosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Morton's neuroma


Explanation

The histologic findings of perineural fibrosis, local vascular changes, and endoneurial edema are characteristic of Morton's neuroma. It is an entrapment neuropathy causing a reactive degeneration, rather than a true neoplasm.

Question 1855

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
Which of the following is an important factor in performing a proper biopsy?
. Staying carefully in the proper intermuscular planes
. Placing multiple drains
. Dissecting and protecting critical neurovascular structures
. Using longitudinal incisions in the extremity
. Avoiding the use of a tourniquet

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Using longitudinal incisions in the extremity


Explanation

DISCUSSION: There are a number of important technical details in performing a biopsy. Incisions should always be longitudinal in the extremity. Good hemostasis is important in avoiding contamination from hematoma. The approach should avoid neurovascular structures and go through a single muscle belly when possible. Although a frozen section should be obtained to ensure adequate viable tissue has been obtained, definitive diagnosis is not necessary at the time of the frozen section.

Question 1856

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
What is the most common secondary malignancy arising in pagetic bone?
. Fibrosarcoma
. Chondrosarcoma
. Malignant fibrous histiocytoma
. Osteosarcoma
. Ewing’s sarcoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Osteosarcoma


Explanation

The incidence of malignant transformation or the formation of a secondary malignancy in pagetic bone is estimated to be less than 1%. Osteosarcoma is the most common secondary malignancy, followed by fibrosarcoma and chondrosarcoma. Ewing’s sarcoma arising in pagetic bone has not been reported.

Question 1857

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
Figures 21a and 21b show the radiographs of a 22-year-old man who has had progressive pain and swelling about the knee for the past 6 weeks. Examination reveals limited range of motion and fullness about the knee. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Giant cell tumor
. Aneurysmal bone cyst
. Osteoblastoma
. Osteosarcoma
. Metastatic carcinoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Osteosarcoma


Explanation

The radiographs reveal a destructive lesion in the metaphysis of the distal femur with periosteal changes and an associated soft-tissue mass with subtle mineralization. This suggests an aggressive malignant process. In this age group, the most likely diagnosis is osteosarcoma.

Question 1858

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 28-year-old female presents with a slow-growing, painful mass near her knee joint. MRI shows a soft tissue mass adjacent to the joint capsule. Biopsy reveals a biphasic pattern of spindle cells and epithelial cells. Which of the following translocations is most characteristic of this lesion?

. t(11;22)
. t(X;18)
. t(12;16)
. t(2;13)
. t(9;22)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(X;18)


Explanation

Synovial sarcoma is characterized by the t(X;18)(p11;q11) translocation, resulting in the SYT-SSX fusion gene. It commonly presents near joints in young adults and often exhibits a biphasic histology.

Question 1859

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 14-year-old boy completes neoadjuvant chemotherapy for an osteosarcoma of the distal femur. He subsequently undergoes wide surgical resection. Which of the following findings on the resected specimen is the most important prognostic factor for his long-term survival?

. Tumor volume less than 100 cubic centimeters
. Presence of skip metastases
. Negative surgical margins of at least 2 cm
. Percentage of tumor necrosis greater than 90%
. Absence of vascular invasion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Percentage of tumor necrosis greater than 90%


Explanation

Tumor necrosis greater than 90% following neoadjuvant chemotherapy is the single most important prognostic indicator for overall survival in osteosarcoma patients. It reflects the tumor's sensitivity to the systemic treatment.

Question 1860

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 62-year-old man presents with a destructive diaphyseal lesion in the right humerus and an impending pathologic fracture. Biopsy confirms metastatic renal cell carcinoma. Prior to prophylactic intramedullary nailing, what is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy
. Preoperative radiation therapy
. Preoperative angioembolization
. Radionuclide bone scan
. Intravenous bisphosphonate therapy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Preoperative angioembolization


Explanation

Metastatic renal cell carcinoma and thyroid carcinoma lesions are highly vascular. Preoperative angioembolization within 24 to 48 hours of surgery is critical to significantly reduce intraoperative blood loss.