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Question 1781

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
In the spine, osteoblastomas usually originate in the
. anterior vertebral body.
. posterior vertebral body.
. posterior longitudinal ligament.
. posterior elements.
. paraspinal muscles.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. posterior elements.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Osteoblastomas are benign lesions that represent less than 5% of benign bone tumors. Most lesions are located in the spine, followed by the femur, tibia, and skull. Patients with spinal lesions usually have pain that may be associated with scoliosis. The most common location in the spine is within the posterior elements.

Question 1782

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
What is the most appropriate next step in the work-up of a patient with the asymptomatic lesion shown in Figure 23?
. Open biopsy
. Needle biopsy
. Observation
. CT-guided radiofrequency ablation
. Antibiotics

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Observation


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The eccentric metaphyseal location, skeletal maturity, narrow zone of transition, and lack of symptoms suggest a benign process and are consistent with a healed nonossifying fibroma. These lesions typically fill in (ossify) with skeletal maturity, eventually remodeling and disappearing. Radiographic monitoring is indicated. Biopsy is not recommended unless the lesion changes radiographically. REFERENCES: Marks KE, Bauer TW: Fibrous tumors of bone. Orthop Clin North Am 1989;20:377-393. Bullough PG, Walley J: Fibrous cortical defect and non-ossifying fibroma. Postgrad Med J 1965;41:672-676. Skrede O: Non-osteogenic fibroma of bone. Acta Orthop Scand 1970;41:362-380.

Question 1783

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
Figures 11a and 11b show the AP and lateral radiographs of a 32-year-old patient on hemodialysis who has increasing elbow pain and a visibly growing mass over the extensor surface. Figure 11c shows the photomicrograph of the biopsy specimen. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Myositis ossificans
. Tumoral calcinosis
. Synovial cell sarcoma
. Fungal granuloma
. Hemochromatosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tumoral calcinosis


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The radiographic findings are classic for tumoral calcinosis; they are not consistent with myositis ossificans, fungal granuloma, or hemochromatosis. The condition typically appears as large aggregations of dense calcified lobules confined to the surrounding soft tissues. Hyperphosphatemia is a fundamental factor in many patients with this condition. Tumoral calcinosis also occurs in the setting of chronic renal failure when mineral homeostasis is not controlled. The histologic appearance is essentially a foreign body granuloma reaction. Surgical excision is indicated if the tumor causes discomfort or interferes with function.

Question 1784

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
  • A 40-year-old woman has progressive pain and limited range of motion in her long finger. Figure 28a shows the radiograph, and Figure 28b shows a biopsy specimen of the same lesion. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Enchondroma
. Osteoblastoma
. Giant cell tumor
. Aneurysmal bone cyst
. Fibrous dysplasia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Enchondroma


Explanation

Giant Cell tumors (GCT) are relatively common in the appendicular skeleton, most common during the 4th or 5th decades of life. GCT’s are destructive lesions with variable amounts of reactive bone at their margin. Successful treatment requires complete surgical excision.

Question 1785

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 55-year-old man has had a mass in his right thigh for the past 2 months. An MRI scan and biopsy specimens are shown in Figures 55a through 55c. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Extraskeletal myxoid chondrosarcoma
. Rhabdomyosarcoma
. Malignant fibrous histiocytoma
. Myxoma
. Liposarcoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Extraskeletal myxoid chondrosarcoma


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The histology shows extraskeletal myxoid chondrosarcoma, characterized by abundant blue myxoid matrix with cords and nests of small tumor cells. Treatment consists of wide resection. Despite the name, hyaline cartilage is not a common component of these tumors. Adult rhabdomyosarcoma and malignant fibrous histiocytoma are highly pleomorphic sarcomas often containing multinucleated giant cells. Myxoid liposarcoma contains a prominent capillary network and lipoblasts. Myxoma is less cellular than extraskeletal myxoid chondrosarcoma and does not have a cord-like arrangement of tumor cells. REFERENCE: Kawaguchi S, Wada T, Nagoya S, Ikeda T, Isu K, Yamashiro K, et al: Extraskeletal myxoid chondrosarcoma. Cancer 2003;97:1285-1292.

Question 1786

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 60-year-old man has pain at the tip of the index finger. A radiograph and biopsy specimen are shown in Figures 40a and 40b. Management should consist of
. surgical debridement and antibiotics.
. curettage and bone graft.
. amputation through the distal interphalangeal joint.
. amputation of the second ray.
. radiation therapy.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. amputation through the distal interphalangeal joint.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The radiograph and histology findings are most consistent with squamous cell carcinoma. This tumor is best treated with wide surgical resection margins alone in the absence of metastasis; in this patient, management should consist of amputation through the distal interphalangeal joint. The other treatments are not indicated.

Question 1787

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
Which of the following factors are considered prognostic of survival in patients with soft-tissue sarcomas?
. Patient age, surgical margin, and neurovascular invasion
. Tumor grade, patient age, and tumor depth
. Tumor grade, tumor depth, and surgical margin
. Tumor size, patient age, and tumor depth
. Tumor size, tumor grade, and tumor depth

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tumor size, tumor grade, and tumor depth


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The factors that are independently prognostic of patient survival are tumor size, tumor grade, and tumor depth (ie, subfascial versus superficial). These factors are the basis for the American Joint Committee on Cancer staging criteria. Patient age and neurovascular invasion are not prognostic. Surgical margin is prognostic for local recurrence but not conclusively for patient survival or metastasis. Metastatic disease is also predictive of survival.

Question 1788

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

Lymphatic metastasis is a common feature of which of the following lesions?

. Liposarcoma
. Nodular fasciitis
. Rabdomyosarcoma
. Malignant fibrous histiocytoma
. Extra-abdominal desmoid tumor

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Liposarcoma


Explanation

Rhabdomyosarcoma is a high grade malignancy with a rapid growth pattern. Local recurrence and distant metastasis after inadequate excision occurs in almost all instances and is uniformly fatal. The primary site of metastasis is the lung. Lymph node metastasis occurs in about > 10% of the patients, (synovial cell sarcoma = 25%). Whereas M.F.H. only occasionally metastasizes to regional LN, and liposarcoma is slow growing & recurrences or local metastasis is < 10%.

Question 1789

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
What is the current 5-year survival rate for patients with classic nonmetastatic, high-grade osteosarcoma of the extremity?
. 10%
. 20%
. 40%
. 70%
. 90%

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 70%


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Multidisciplinary treatment combining systemic chemotherapy and adequate surgical resection has resulted in a 5-year survival rate of 70% in patients with nonmetastatic osteosarcoma of the extremity. The advent of effective chemotherapy has increased the overall survival rate from 20% to 70% in current studies.

Question 1790

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
Five weeks after undergoing a successful L4-L5 diskectomy, with complete relief of his preoperative sciatica, a 36-year-old man has severe, relentless back and buttock pain. Examination and laboratory studies are unremarkable with the exception of an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) of 90 mm/h. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
. Broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics
. AP, lateral, and flexion-extension lateral radiographs
. MRI with gadolinium
. Open biopsy of the surgical disk space
. Anterior debridement and interbody fusion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. MRI with gadolinium


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The patient’s history, including the timing and type of symptoms, is typical for postoperative diskitis. The elevated ESR, 5 weeks after surgery, is also consistent with infection; a normal WBC count is not unusual. Management should consist of MRI with gadolinium; if positive, this should be followed by percutaneous biopsy to confirm the organism. Open biopsy may be considered if the percutaneous biopsy is unsuccessful. Anterior debridement and interbody fusion is reserved for the occasional patient that fails to respond to intravenous antibiotics, bed rest, and immobilization.

Question 1791

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 12-year-old girl has painless bowing of the tibia. Radiographs and a biopsy specimen are shown in Figures 35a through 35c. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Osteofibrous dysplasia
. Adamantinoma
. Osteosarcoma
. Ewing’s sarcoma
. Fibrous dysplasia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Osteofibrous dysplasia


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The patient has osteofibrous dysplasia. The radiographic differential diagnosis includes osteofibrous dysplasia, fibrous dysplasia, and adamantinoma. Histology shows a fibro-osseous lesion with prominent osteoblastic rimming but a lack of epithelial nests. Adamantinoma is a low-grade malignancy that typically is located in the anterior tibial cortex and has a soap bubble appearance. Histologically, it is similar to osteofibrous dysplasia but includes epithelial nests of cells. Treatment requires resection. Fibrous dysplasia usually does not require biopsy; however, in this patient the radiographs do not distinguish it from adamantinoma. The radiographic findings are not typical of Ewing’s sarcoma or osteosarcoma.

Question 1792

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
Soft-tissue sarcomas most commonly metastasize to the
. liver.
. lung.
. bone.
. regional nodes.
. distant nodes.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. lung.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The most common location for soft-tissue tumors to metastasize is the lungs. Depending on the grade of the sarcoma, metastases develop in as many as 50% of patients with soft-tissue sarcomas. Tumor grade is considered the most significant prognostic factor in predicting risk of metastases, with high-grade lesions at greatest risk. Staging CT of the chest should be performed once the diagnosis of a soft-tissue sarcoma is suspected or confirmed.

Question 1793

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 63-year-old woman has an elbow flexion contracture. History reveals that she underwent three previous surgeries to remove a malignant fibrous histiocytoma of the forearm. An MRI scan reveals a locally recurrent tumor at the site of the previous surgery. Which of the following is considered the most predictive factor for local recurrence?
. Tumor grade
. Tumor size
. Surgical margin
. Anatomic site of the tumor
. Histologic subtype of the tumor

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Surgical margin


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The greatest risk factor for local recurrence is an inadequate surgical margin. The tumor grade, histologic subtype, and size are predictive of systemic relapse. Sarcomas that arise in some anatomic sites, such as the forearm or retroperitoneum, may be more difficult to completely resect compared with other sites. The optimum margin is generally considered to be a cuff of normal tissue beyond the tumor.

Question 1794

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 70-year-old woman had poliomyelitis as a young child, and the residual weakness she has as an adult principally involves the lower extremities. She now notes progressive weakness in both legs and she tires easily. What is the best course of action?
. Gentle physical therapy and lifestyle modification to reduce demands on the symptomatic muscles
. Vigorous physical therapy to rehabilitate the weak muscle groups
. Muscle biopsy
. MRI of the lumbosacral spine
. Electromyography and nerve conduction velocity studies

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Gentle physical therapy and lifestyle modification to reduce demands on the symptomatic muscles


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The most likely diagnosis is postpolio syndrome, which is characterized by increasing weakness in both the paretic and previously normal muscles. Fatigability, joint pain, muscle atrophy, respiratory insufficiency, dysphagia, and sleep apnea are also seen. Gentle exercise and modification in lifestyle demands are generally recommended. Vigorous rehabilitation is likely to be detrimental in this condition. Further diagnostic work-up is not indicated at this time.

Question 1795

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
Which of the following tumors have characteristic chromosomal translocations?
. Ewing’s sarcoma and osteosarcoma
. Ewing’s sarcoma and conventional chondrosarcoma
. Ewing’s sarcoma and synovial sarcoma
. Osteosarcoma and conventional chondrosarcoma
. Myeloma and malignant fibrous histiocytoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ewing’s sarcoma and synovial sarcoma


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Ewing’s sarcoma has an 11;22 translocation that creates the EWS/FLI1 fusion gene, and synovial sarcoma has an X;18 translocation that creates the SYT/SSX fusion gene. The other tumors do not have consistent translocations. REFERENCES: Sandberg AA: Cytogenetics and molecular genetics of bone and soft-tissue tumors. Am J Med Genet 2002;115:189-193. Menendez LR (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Musculoskeletal Tumors. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2002, pp 11-20.

Question 1796

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

-A 15-year-old boy underwent open reduction and internal fixation for a tibial tubercle fracture. The next morning he had dramatically increased pain, hypotension, ascending rash, and fever to 103°F. What is the most appropriate course of action?

. Close follow-up
. Begin a steroid dose pack
. Blood cultures followed by antibiotics only if the cultures are positive
. Order a CT scan (because of the metal implants) and follow up later that day
. Start antibiotics immediately and schedule a biopsy and debridement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Close follow-up


Explanation

Question 1797

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

Figures 25a through 25c are the axial T1 and postcontrast MRI scans and biopsy specimen of a 35-yearold man with a painless right thigh mass. He noticed the mass about 2 weeks ago and is unsure if it has changed in size. Which translocation most commonly is associated with this type of tumor?

. t(2;13)(q35;q14)
. t(12;22)(q13;q12)
. t(12;16)(q13;p11)
. t(X;18)(p11;q11)
. t(17;22)(q22;q13)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(2;13)(q35;q14)


Explanation

Question 1798

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 10-year-old boy has a painful thigh mass. A radiograph, MRI scan, and biopsy specimen are shown in Figures 42a through 42c. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Infection
. Parosteal osteosarcoma
. Chondroblastic osteosarcoma
. Chondrosarcoma
. Osteochondroma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Chondroblastic osteosarcoma


Explanation

DISCUSSION: A destructive mixed lytic and blastic metaphyseal lesion with a large soft-tissue mass in an adolescent is most likely an osteosarcoma until proven otherwise. The epicenter of the tumor is on the surface of the bone, most likely involves the periosteum, and is more likely to be chondroblastic in nature. Parosteal osteosarcoma is a low-grade tumor, much more radiodense, usually smaller, and found in the posterior distal femur of middle-aged patients. Chondrosarcomas are distinctly rare in childhood. REFERENCE: Bertoni F, Bacchini P: Classification of bone tumors. Eur J Radiol 1998;27:S74-S76.

Question 1799

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A patient with a 5-cm synovial sarcoma located in the distal portion of the rectus femoris muscle undergoes excision of the mass. The procedure is performed through a 10-cm longitudinal incision. Only a portion of the rectus femoris is removed; the vast majority of the muscle is preserved. The plane of dissection is beyond the reactive zone, and the pathology reveals that the margins are negative. This procedure is classified as
. radical.
. marginal.
. wide.
. intralesional.
. within the reactive zone.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. wide.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The patient underwent a wide resection, which involves excision of the tumor along with a cuff of normal tissue that completely surrounds the tumor. The plane of resection is beyond the reactive zone. A radical resection involves removal of the entire affected muscle from origin to insertion. In a marginal excision, the plane of dissection is through the reactive zone of the tumor. A marginal excision is generally considered inadequate surgery for high-grade sarcomas. In an intralesional resection, the plane of dissection is through the tumor. Excision within the reactive zone but beyond the tumor is the same as a marginal excision. REFERENCES: Enneking WF: Staging of musculoskeletal neoplasms, in Current Concepts of Diagnosis and Treatment of Bone and Soft Tissue Tumors. Heidelberg, Germany, Springer-Verlag, 1984. Simon MA, Springfield D: Surgery for Bone and Soft Tissue Tumors. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott-Raven, 1998.

Question 1800

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
After excising a mass from the thigh that was thought to be a lipoma, the pathology reveals that the mass is a high-grade sarcoma. Subsequent treatment should include
. repeat excision of the tumor bed.
. chemotherapy only.
. radiation therapy only.
. chemotherapy and radiation therapy only.
. administration of bisphosphonates.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. repeat excision of the tumor bed.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Following excision of a suspected benign soft-tissue tumor that proves to be malignant, repeat excision of the tumor bed is recommended. The initial surgical margins are inadequate after an intralesional or marginal excision, necessitating additional surgery for more definitive local control. While radiation therapy and/or chemotherapy may help to reduce the risk of local recurrence in patients with microscopic residual disease, local control is improved following repeat excision. Radiation therapy alone is inadequate to address poor surgical margins, and would likely be given postoperatively. Bisphosphonates have no current role in the treatment of soft-tissue sarcoma. REFERENCES: Noria S, Davis A, Kandel R, et al: Residual disease following unplanned excision of soft-tissue sarcoma of an extremity. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1996;78:650-655. Bell RS, O’Sullivan B, Liu FF, et al: The surgical margin in soft-tissue sarcoma. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1989;71:370-375.