Menu

Question 1741

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
Figures 63a and 63b show the radiographs of an 11-year-old girl who sustained a twisting injury of the knee playing soccer. She is now asymptomatic. What is the appropriate treatment of the lesion?
. Needle biopsy
. Incisional biopsy
. Observation
. Curettage and grafting
. Chemotherapy and en bloc resection

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Observation


Explanation

DISCUSSION: This is a nonossifying fibroma of the proximal tibia. The lesion is eccentric, cortically based, with sclerotic margins and no evidence of a soft-tissue mass. Nonossifying fibromas are benign lesions that need no biopsy or surgical treatment when classic findings appear on radiographs. A follow-up radiograph should be performed 2 to 3 months after the initial presentation to ensure that the lesion is not progressive. Surgery is reserved for large lesions with risk of pathologic fracture or for cases where a displaced pathologic fracture has occurred and internal fixation is needed for fracture treatment. Nondisplaced pathologic fractures through nonossifying fibromas are best treated by allowing the fracture to heal and observation of the lesion.

Question 1742

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
What are the four most common soft-tissue sarcomas to spread via the lymph node system?
. Rhabdomyosarcoma, malignant fibrous histiocytoma, epithelioid sarcoma, clear cell sarcoma
. Malignant fibrous histiocytoma, synovial sarcoma, clear cell sarcoma, epithelioid sarcoma
. Liposarcoma, rhabdomyosarcoma, synovial sarcoma, clear cell sarcoma
. Rhabdomyosarcoma, clear cell sarcoma, epithelioid sarcoma, synovial sarcoma
. Liposarcoma, clear cell sarcoma, rhabdomyosarcoma, epithelioid sarcoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Rhabdomyosarcoma, clear cell sarcoma, epithelioid sarcoma, synovial sarcoma


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Soft-tissue sarcomas most frequently metastasize to the lung, but certain histologic types have a predilection for the lymph node system as well. Rhabdomyosarcoma, clear cell sarcoma, epithelioid sarcoma, and synovial sarcoma are four of the most common types to spread in this fashion. Careful evaluation and/or sentinel lymph node biopsy plays a role in disease staging and prognosis.

Question 1743

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 15-year-old boy reports leg pain after being tackled during football practice. Radiographs and a CT scan are shown in Figures 46a through 46c. The patient has a pathologic fracture through what underlying lesion?
. Giant cell tumor
. Fibrous dysplasia
. Aneurysmal bone cyst
. Nonossifying fibroma
. Chondroblastoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Nonossifying fibroma


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The images show a lobulated, eccentric, well-marginated lesion that is typical of a nonossifying fibroma. The lesion is slightly expansile, and the CT scan findings show that the lesion is very well marginated and the cortex is disrupted, which is a common finding. None of the characteristics of this lesion is aggressive in nature. REFERENCES: Menendez LR (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Musculoskeletal Tumors. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2002, pp 69-75. Parsons TW: Benign bone tumors, in Fitzgerald R Jr, Kaufer H, Malkani A (eds): Orthopaedics. Philadelphia, PA, Mosby International, 2002, pp 1027-1035.

Question 1744

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

-Figures a through f are the radiograph, CT scan, MRI scan, and bone scan of a 28-year-old woman with a newly diagnosed breast carcinoma who underwent a bone scan for staging. She has no hip pain but a lesion is noted. What is the best next treatment step?

. Biopsy of the right elbow
. Needle biopsy of the right femoral bone lesion
. Reassurance and repeat plain radiographs in 3 months
. Prophylactic intramedullary rod fixation of the right femur
. Radiation to the right femoral bone lesion coordinated with systemic therapy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Biopsy of the right elbow


Explanation

Question 1745

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
Figure 41a shows the AP radiograph of a 15-year-old boy who reports lateral knee pain. Figures 41b and 41c show a radiograph of the distal femur that was obtained 5 years ago and a current CT scan. The indication for surgery in this patient would be
. activity limitations because of localized pain.
. the likelihood of development of malignant degeneration in adulthood.
. the likelihood of development of a growth deformity.
. ambiguity regarding the diagnosis based on the imaging studies.
. obvious progression over the past 5 years, raising suspicion of malignant degeneration.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. activity limitations because of localized pain.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: In a young person with solitary osteochondroma, the best surgical indication is symptoms that limit activity. A growth deformity is unlikely to occur at this age. Malignant degeneration is exceptionally rare and noted most commonly in adults. Growth is expected until skeletal maturity. REFERENCES: Mirra JM: Bone Tumors: Clinical, Radiologic, and Pathologic Correlations. Philadelphia, PA, Lea and Febiger, 1989, pp 1626-1659. Simon MA, Springfield DS, et al: Common Benign Bone Tumors and Usual Treatment: Surgery for Bone and Soft Tissue Tumors. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Raven, 1998, pp 181-205.

Question 1746

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 28-year-old woman has left shoulder pain and a tender soft-tissue mass. Based on the MRI scan and biopsy specimens shown in Figures 74a through 74c, what is the most likely diagnosis?
. Malignant fibrous histiocytoma
. Lymphoma
. Synovial sarcoma
. Schwannoma
. Neurofibroma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Schwannoma


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Schwannomas (neurilemomas) occur at all ages but are most frequently seen in persons between the ages of 20 and 50 years. MRI features of schwannomas are fairly nonspecific, but when they are associated with a large named nerve, the identification of a mass in continuity with that nerve is highly suggestive of a schwannoma. Most have a fairly homogeneous appearance with a high water content and often fusiform shape. Classically, the histology shows alternating Antoni A (dense spindle cell region) areas and Antoni B (loose myxoid tissue) areas. They also demonstrate uniform intense immunostaining with S-100 protein. REFERENCES: Damron TA, Sim FH: Soft-tissue tumors about the knee. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1997;5:141-152. Weiss SW, Goldblum JR, Enzinger FM: Enzinger and Weiss’s Soft Tissue Tumors, ed 4. Philadelphia, PA, Elsevier, 2001, pp 1146-1167.

Question 1747

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
In a patient with a soft-tissue sarcoma treated by wide excision and radiation therapy, the risk of subsequent fracture is probably most influenced by
. location of the sarcoma in the lower extremity.
. excision of cortical bone with en bloc resection.
. a radiation dose of 60 Gy (6,000 cGy) versus 50 Gy (5,000 cGy).
. the addition of adjuvant chemotherapy.
. excision of the periosteum.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. excision of the periosteum.


Explanation

While most pathologic fractures are in the lower extremity in patients treated for soft-tissue sarcomas by wide excision and adjuvant radiation therapy, risk factors for such fractures are bone resection associated with excision of the tumor and soft-tissue sarcomas of the thigh that require periosteal stripping at the time of resection. Such fractures can occur late, often more than 6 months after surgery, are difficult to treat, and often result in nonunion.

Question 1748

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
Pain associated with a proximal medial tibial osteochondroma in a 10-year-old patient is most commonly the result of
. degeneration into a chondrosarcoma.
. bursitis.
. infection.
. fracture through the base.
. associated spinal stenosis.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. bursitis.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Pain secondary to an osteochondroma is usually from soft-tissue irritation and bursal formation. This is particularly common for proximal medial tibia osteochondromas that irritate the pes anserine tendons. Malignant degeneration into a chondrosarcoma rarely occurs, is usually associated with multiple hereditary exostoses, and usually occurs after skeletal maturity.

Question 1749

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 13-year-old girl is referred for a painful progressive valgus deformity of the right knee. Examination reveals an antalgic gait with an obvious valgus deformity. The right distal femur has a palpable, tender mass with erythema and warmth. Figures 4a and 4b show a clinical photograph and a radiograph. Management should consist of
. needle biopsy of the distal femur.
. open reduction and internal fixation with a locking plate.
. closed reduction and fixation with a reamed antegrade locking intramedullary nail.
. referral to an orthopaedic oncologist for staging studies, biopsy, and definitive management.
. IV antibiotics for 6 weeks.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. referral to an orthopaedic oncologist for staging studies, biopsy, and definitive management.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The radiograph shows a pathologic fracture through a destructive lesion of the distal femur metaphysis with osteolytic and osteoblastic features. The lateral cortex is destroyed, and there is periosteal new bone formation. These findings are consistent with malignancy, most likely an osteogenic sarcoma. Patients with suspected malignant tumors are best managed by surgeons with specific expertise in orthopaedic oncology. The biopsy of a malignant lesion should be deferred to the surgeon who is capable of definitive management of the patient.

Question 1750

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

03 A 37 year-old woman with thoracic back pain has had hemoptysis and dyspnea for the past month. A thoracic spine radiograph shows a compression fracture of T-9 and a mass in the right lung. What is the best course of action?

. Metastatic work-up
. Physical therapy
. Transpedicular biopsy
. Thoracotomy with partial resection of the mass
. T9 corpectomy with anterior column reconstruction 76.03

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Metastatic work-up


Explanation

Here is an algorithm from OKU 6 Tumors of the Spine pp 723-736This question gives you the history, skips right over physical exam and goes into plain films. With this patient’s history of hemoptysis and dyspnea and a lung mass, the next steps in this patients work-up would include the competion of initial work-up, metastatic work-up, then pre-operative planning. Goals of treatment are to 1) protect or restore neurologic function, 2) control pain,

Question 1751

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 69-year-old man has a painful slow-growing lesion of the distal phalanx of his thumb. History reveals that he has had chronic osteomyelitis of the thumb for the past 12 years. The radiograph and biopsy specimens are seen in Figures 9a through 9c. Treatment should consist of
. Intralesional curettage.
. Wrist disarticulation.
. Amputation.
. Chemotherapy.
. Radiation therapy.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Amputation.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The diagnosis is squamous cell carcinoma. The radiograph shows a destructive lesion, and the histologic slides demonstrate squamous cells invading bone. The preferred treatment for squamous cell carcinoma is wide resection; however, in this location a wide margin can be achieved only with amputation. Overall survival in patients with squamous cell carcinoma secondary to chronic osteomyelitis is not significantly worse than that expected for age-matched controls.

Question 1752

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A previously healthy 13-year-old girl has had thigh pain for the past 3 weeks. The radiograph shown in Figure 47a reveals a lesion in the right femur. A bone scan and CT scan of the chest show no evidence of other lesions. A biopsy specimen is shown in Figure 47b. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Ewing’s sarcoma
. Lymphoma of bone
. Metastatic neuroblastoma
. Langerhans cell histiocytosis
. Osteomyelitis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Langerhans cell histiocytosis


Explanation

The patient has Langerhans cell histiocytosis that may be solitary (eosinophilic granuloma) or associated with systemic illness (Hand-Schuller-Christian disease and Letterer-Siwe disease). The solitary form of the disease, eosinophilic granuloma, typically affects patients in the first three decades of life. Radiographically, it is characterized as a well-defined, lytic, “punched out” intramedullary lesion. Histologically, two cell types, eosinophils and Langerhans cells, are seen. The Langerhans cells are seen as mononuclear histiocyte-like cells with oval nuclei with well-defined round or oval cytoplasm. A prominent nuclear groove can be seen in most of the nuclei (coffee bean nuclei). A mixture of inflammatory cells and lipid-laden foam cells with nuclear debris may be present as well. The lack of nuclear atypia and atypical mitoses excludes malignant conditions such as Ewing’s sarcoma, lymphoma of bone, and metastatic neuroblastoma. The lack of acute inflammatory cells excludes the diagnosis of osteomyelitis. The eosinophils have bi-lobed nuclei and granular eosinophilic cytoplasm.

Question 1753

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 53-year-old man has a 4- x 5-cm high-grade soft-tissue sarcoma in the midthigh. As part of the staging evaluation, regional nodes should be assessed by
. CT of the pelvis and groin.
. sentinel node biopsy.
. clinical examination.
. fine needle aspiration.
. prophylactic inguinal node dissection.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. clinical examination.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: In general, soft-tissue metastases to regional nodes are a relatively rare occurrence (less than 5% overall). The incidence of lymphatic metastasis is highest for synovial sarcoma, rhabdomyosarcoma, clear cell sarcoma, and epithelioid sarcoma. Regional nodes should be assessed clinically. CT is not used to routinely assess regional nodes. Evaluation of a sentinel node is not indicated because of the low incidence of regional nodal involvement. Fine needle aspiration may be indicated to assess clinically suspicious nodes. Prophylactic inguinal node dissection is contraindicated because it may lead to unnecessary complications such as lymphedema. REFERENCE: Sim FH, Frassica FJ, Frassica DA: Soft-tissue tumors: Diagnosis, evaluation and management. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1994;2:202-211.

Question 1754

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 12-year-old girl has had pain in her right knee for 1 month that started as activity-related and progressed to night pain. Radiographs are shown in Figures 16a and 16b, and a biopsy specimen is shown in Figure 16c. What is the recommended treatment?
. Resection of the distal femur and postoperative chemotherapy
. Preoperative chemotherapy followed by radiation therapy, then resection of the distal femur
. Preoperative chemotherapy followed by surgical resection of the lesion and postoperative chemotherapy
. Preoperative chemotherapy followed by radiation therapy, resection of the distal femur, then postoperative chemotherapy
. Resection of the distal femur followed by radiation therapy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Preoperative chemotherapy followed by surgical resection of the lesion and postoperative chemotherapy


Explanation

This is a classic appearance for an osteosarcoma. The radiographs reveal a mixed osteolytic and osteoblastic lesion in a skeletally immature patient in the distal right femoral metaphysis. The pain pattern with progressive symptoms leading to the presence of night pain is also typical for this condition. The biopsy specimen reveals pleomorphic cells and the presence of osteoid. The current standard of care in the treatment of osteosarcoma is neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by surgical resection or amputation followed by additional postoperative chemotherapy. Osteosarcoma is not radiosensitive.

Question 1755

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 14-year-old patient has anterior knee pain. Radiographs, an MRI scan, and biopsy specimens are shown in Figures 6a through 6e. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Unicameral bone cyst
. Aneurysmal bone cyst
. Giant cell tumor
. Chondromalacia
. Ewing’s sarcoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ewing’s sarcoma


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Although the imaging studies are consistent with a unicameral bone cyst, aneurysmal bone cyst, or giant cell tumor, the histology shows small round blue cells that are typical of Ewing’s sarcoma. Although Ewing’s sarcoma frequently occurs in the diaphysis, it can occur in the metaphysis. REFERENCE: Mirra J: Bone Tumors: Clinical, Radiologic, and Pathologic Correlations. Philadelphia, PA, Lea & Febiger, 1989, vol 2, ch 18.

Question 1756

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 43-year-old woman has had pain in the left hip for the past 2 months. A radiograph, CT scan, MRI scan, and biopsy specimens are shown in Figures 16a through 16e. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Osteosarcoma
. Osteochondroma
. Chondrosarcoma
. Chordoma
. Enchondroma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Chondrosarcoma


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The imaging studies are consistent with a chondrosarcoma. The radiograph shows a radiolucent lesion in the pelvis, and there are stippled calcifications on the CT scan. The histology shows a low-grade cellular hyaline cartilage neoplasm with stellate, occasionally binucleated chondrocytes. Enchondroma has a more benign histologic appearance. REFERENCE: Mirra JM, Gold R, Downs J, Eckardt JJ: A new histologic approach to the differentiation of enchondroma and chondrosarcoma of the bones: A clinicopathologic analysis of 51 cases. Clin Orthop 1985;201:214-237.

Question 1757

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
What is the most common location of osteosarcoma?
. Shoulder
. Spine
. Pelvis
. Knee
. Skull

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Knee


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The most common location of osteosarcoma is the knee area (50% to 55%), followed by the proximal humerus and iliac wing. The most commonly involved long bone is the femur (40% to 45%), followed by the tibia (15% to 25%). Within these bones, tumors are typically adjacent to the epiphyses in most patients. The flat bones of the pelvis and spine are less frequently involved. REFERENCES: Malawer MM, Sugarbaker PH, Malawer M: Musculoskeletal Cancer Surgery: Treatment of Sarcomas and Allied Diseases. Kluwer Academic Publishers, 2001. Wold LA, et al: Osteogenic Sarcoma: Atlas of Orthopedic Pathology. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1990, pp 14-15.

Question 1758

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
Which of the following is not a characteristic of synovial sarcomas?
. may contain calcifications.
. occur in younger patients than most soft-tissue sarcomas.
. are usually intra-articular.
. often respond well to chemotherapy.
. often contain a known genetic abnormality.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. are usually intra-articular.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Synovial sarcomas have a number of features that differentiate them from other soft-tissue sarcomas. They often have small areas of calcifications within the lesion. They occur in a younger patient population than most soft-tissue sarcomas. A subset of patients with synovial sarcoma tend to be chemosensitive. They often contain the SYT-SSX translocation. Although they can occur intra-articular, this is rare, despite their name. REFERENCES: Campanacci M: Bone and Soft Tissue Tumors, ed 2. New York, NY, Springer-Verlag, 1999, pp 1109-1126. Simon SR (ed): Orthopaedic Basic Science. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1994, pp 219-276.

Question 1759

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 13-year-old boy has a painless “knot” over his left hip. History reveals that he injured his left hip playing soccer 4 months ago. A radiograph and MRI scan obtained at the time of injury are shown in Figures 7a and 7b. He is very active and is currently asymptomatic. A current radiograph is shown in Figure 7c. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
. Observation
. Anti-inflammatory medication
. Referral to a rheumatologist
. Biopsy
. Resection of the lesion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Observation


Explanation

The diagnosis is myositis ossificans resulting from an injury. The initial radiograph reveals a small amount of mineralization in the soft tissues overlying the left hip. The MRI scan shows signal abnormality of the entire gluteus minimus muscle with a mineralized mass in the center. The current radiograph shows a lesion within the abductor musculature with mature ossification peripherally. The imaging studies are diagnostic and the patient is asymptomatic; therefore, the management of choice is observation with no further evaluation or treatment indicated.

Question 1760

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
What is the most common pediatric soft-tissue sarcoma?
. Ewing’s sarcoma
. Liposarcoma
. Rhabdomyosarcoma
. Malignant fibrous histiocytoma
. Fibrosarcoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Rhabdomyosarcoma


Explanation

Soft-tissue sarcomas are the sixth most common cancer in children. Rhabdomyosarcoma is the most common type of pediatric soft-tissue sarcoma. Nearly 50% of rhabdomyosarcomas are diagnosed in children who are age 5 years or younger.