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Question 1621

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 73-year-old man stepped off a street curb and felt a crack in his left hip. He is now unable to bear weight. A radiograph is shown in Figure 54a. Biopsy specimens are shown in Figures 54b and 54c. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Synovial sarcoma
. Metastatic prostate cancer
. Chondrosarcoma
. Dedifferentiated chondrosarcoma
. Periosteal osteosarcoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Dedifferentiated chondrosarcoma


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The biopsy specimens reveal a high-grade spindle cell lesion adjacent to an area of benign cartilage. This is consistent with a dedifferentiated chondrosarcoma. The radiograph shows a pathologic fracture through a lesion characterized by calcification within the left greater trochanter. Distal to the area of calcification, there is a more osteolytic, destructive appearance. Synovial sarcoma has a biphasic appearance histologically with areas of glandular differentiation that stain positive with keratin. Metastatic prostate cancer, although osteoblastic in appearance, would have a glandular histologic appearance. There is no cartilage in these lesions. Classic low-grade chondrosarcoma does not have an area of high-grade pleomorphic spindle cells within the lesion. A periosteal osteosarcoma is a surface-based lesion with a sunburst radiographic pattern. Although there may be cartilage in the lesion histologically, there are also malignant cells producing osteoid. Dedifferentiated chondrosarcoma is an aggressive, high-grade variant of chondrosarcoma.

Question 1622

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 66-year-old man has a high-grade angiosarcoma of the right tibia. A radiograph is shown in Figure 43. Treatment should consist of:
. amputation.
. wide resection.
. radical resection.
. radiation therapy.
. chemotherapy.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. amputation.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Angiosarcoma is a locally aggressive sarcoma. The radiograph shows extensive multiple discontinuous lesions throughout the entire tibia. The extent of bone involvement precludes resection; therefore, the treatment of choice is amputation, either above the knee or through the knee. Radiation therapy is not needed after amputation, and chemotherapy remains investigational for soft-tissue sarcoma. REFERENCE: Simon MA, Springfield DA: Surgery for Bone and Soft Tissue Tumors. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott-Raven, 1998, ch 29.

Question 1623

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 23-year-old woman has had vague left knee pain for the past 6 months. A radiograph and CT scan are shown in Figures 50a and 50b. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Myositis ossificans
. Osteochondroma
. Parosteal osteosarcoma
. Dedifferentiated chondrosarcoma
. Tumoral calcinosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Parosteal osteosarcoma


Explanation

The radiographic appearance of the lesion emanating from the posterior cortex of the left distal femur is consistent with a surface bone-producing lesion; therefore, the most likely diagnosis is a parosteal osteosarcoma. In an osteochondroma, the cortex and medullary cavity of the lesion are in continuity with that of the native bone. A dedifferentiated chondrosarcoma has histologic components of a high-grade sarcoma plus a benign or low-grade malignant cartilage tumor. Tumoral calcinosis is characterized by amorphous calcium in the soft tissues and does not emanate from the bone itself. While often confused with parosteal osteosarcoma, myositis ossificans is usually more mature at the periphery of the lesion rather than the center. In addition, myositis ossificans does not involve the underlying cortex but remains separate from the bone.

Question 1624

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

Figures 47a through 47d are the plain radiographs, axial MRI scan, and biopsy specimen of an 8-yearold boy with progressive right elbow pain that awakens him from sleep. Examination reveals soft-tissue fullness around his elbow and pain with active or passive motion. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Lymphoma
. Osteomyelitis
. Osteogenic sarcoma
. Ewing sarcoma
. Langerhans cell histiocytosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lymphoma


Explanation

Question 1625

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
Figure 9 shows the radiograph of a 75-year-old woman who reports the sudden onset of disabling medial knee pain. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Osteoarthritis
. Osteonecrosis
. Meniscal tear
. Metastatic lesion
. Synovial osteochondromatosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Osteonecrosis


Explanation

Idiopathic osteonecrosis of the medial femoral condyle occurs predominantly in women older than age 60 years. It is characterized by pain centered in the medial anterior aspect of the knee, and onset is sudden. Flattening, sclerosis, and the radiolucent crescent sign are radiographic indicators of osteonecrosis. The radiographs show no narrowing of the joint space or osteophyte formation to indicate osteoarthritis, and there are no loose bodies to indicate synovial osteochondromatosis. A meniscal tear is not consistent with the radiographic findings shown here. Meniscal tears can coexist with osteonecrosis, but the pain is not eliminated merely by partial meniscectomy. Metastatic lesions to the distal femoral epiphysis are exceedingly rare.

Question 1626

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

Which soft-tissue sarcoma is most likely to develop lymphatic metastasis?

. Liposarcoma
. Leiomyosarcoma
. Synovial sarcoma
. Myxoid liposarcoma
. Pleomorphic sarcoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Liposarcoma


Explanation

Question 1627

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
An 18-year-old man has had an enlarging mass in his hand for the past 3 months. Radiographs, an MRI scan, and biopsy specimens are shown in Figures 54a through 54d. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Bizarre parosteal osteochondromatous proliferation (BPOP)
. Osteosarcoma
. Ewing’s sarcoma
. Enchondroma
. Infection

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Bizarre parosteal osteochondromatous proliferation (BPOP)


Explanation

Also known as Nora’s lesion, BPOP is a benign osteocartilaginous tumor that almost always occurs in the hands and feet; one occurrence each in the femur and tibia has been reported. Although local recurrence is common after excision, metastases have not been reported.

Question 1628

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 56-year-old podiatrist with a negative past medical history had anterior knee pain after an injury. His radiographs, CT scan, and T1-weighted sagittal and fat-saturated axial MR images are shown in Figures 15a through 15e, respectively. After arthroscopic partial medial menisectomy, the patient was turned to the prone position and an open posterior arthrotomy and excision was performed. Low-power and high-power hematoxylin and eosin stained histologic specimens are shown in Figures 15f and 15g, respectively. Based on the history, radiographs, CT scan, MRI scans, and histologic findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?
. Localized pigmented villonodular synovitis (PVNS)
. Biphasic synovial sarcoma
. Nodular fasciitis
. Synovial hemangioma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Synovial hemangioma


Explanation

The incidental finding in the posterior intercondylar notch of the knee in this patient represents a benign synovial hemangioma. No intralesional calcifications are shown either on the plain radiographs or CT scan. The MRI scans reveal a hypervascular lesion with multiple filling defects, with hyperintensity on T2-weighted images and low to intermediate signal intensity on T1-weighted images. Histologically, vascular lakes within fine capillaries with a synovium on the surface of the lesion are characteristic of this condition. Many patients with synovial hemangioma present with pain, swelling, stiffness, or mechanical symptoms. As with PVNS, the disease can be localized or diffuse in nature. Surgical excision, either open or arthroscopic, is the recommended treatment.

Question 1629

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 6-year-old boy presents with a mass and a lucent lesion involving the tibial shaft as seen in Figure 17a. The mass is mildly tender to palpation. The bone scan is focally hot in the tibia. Biopsy specimens are shown in Figures 17b and 17c. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Giant cell tumor
. Nonossifying fibroma
. Fibrous dysplasia
. Eosinophilic granuloma
. Osteofibrous dysplasia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Osteofibrous dysplasia


Explanation

Osteofibrous dysplasia frequently presents at a very young age, usually less than 10 years. In most patients, it involves the anterior cortex of the tibial shaft and minor anterior bowing of the tibia is frequently seen. The lesion is unpredictable in nature, but local recurrence is very high in patients who undergo surgery before 15 years of age.

Question 1630

Topic: Bone Tumors
Figure 12 shows a lateral radiograph of the elbow. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Osteochondroma
. Old fracture fragment
. Heterotopic ossification
. Normal anatomic variant
. Osteosarcoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Normal anatomic variant


Explanation

The figure shows a supracondylar process, which is a normal anatomic variant. An osteochondroma tends to occur more toward the end of bones, and the medullary space of the underlying bone extends into the base of the osteochondroma. The presence of a supracondylar process is usually asymptomatic.

Question 1631

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
Evaluation of the percent of necrosis in the resected specimen after preoperative chemotherapy is of prognostic value for what type of sarcoma?
. Chondrosarcoma
. Soft-tissue sarcoma
. Rhabdomyosarcoma
. Parosteal osteosarcoma
. Osteosarcoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Osteosarcoma


Explanation

To date, only the percent of necrosis after induction chemotherapy in high-grade osteosarcomas seems to be of prognostic value. The value in soft-tissue sarcoma and rhabdomyosarcoma is being evaluated but has not been substantiated. Chondrosarcomas and parosteal osteosarcomas are not treated with chemotherapy.

Question 1632

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
It has been shown that bisphosphonate-based supportive therapy (pamidronate or zoledronate) reduces skeletal events (onset or progression of osteolytic lesions) both in patients with multiple myeloma and in cancer patients with bone metastasis. The use of bisphosphonate therapy has been associated with:
. increased medical complications of treatment.
. osteonecrosis of the jaw.
. improved long-term survival rates.
. anorexia.
. decreased quality of life measures.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. osteonecrosis of the jaw.


Explanation

The use of bisphosphonates has been recently associated with the development of osteonecrosis of the jaw. Length of exposure seems to be the most important risk factor for this complication. The type of bisphosphonate may play a role and previous dental procedures may be a precipitating factor. Bisphosphonates are a class of therapeutic agents originally designed to treat loss of bone density (ie, alendronate). The primary mechanism of action of these drugs is inhibition of osteoclastic activity, and it has been shown that these drugs are useful in diseases with propensities toward osseous metastases. In particular, they are effective in diseases in which there is clear upregulation of osteoclastic or osteolytic activity, such as breast cancer and multiple myeloma, and have developed into a mainstay of treatment for individuals with these diseases. Although shown to reduce skeletal events, there has been no improvement in patient survival.

Question 1633

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
Figures 1 through 4 show the radiographs and MRI obtained from a 40-year-old man who has a 6-week history of ring finger pain, redness, and swelling after puncturing the finger with a toothpick. Purulent drainage from the puncture wound site grew Eikenella corrodens. The patient was initially treated with oral antibiotics for 10 days and then intravenous (IV) antibiotics for 3 weeks. What is the best next step in treatment?
. Continued IV antibiotics for 4 weeks
. Continued oral antibiotics for 6 weeks
. Bone scan, biopsy, and metastatic work-up
. Surgical débridement along with antibiotics

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Surgical débridement along with antibiotics


Explanation

This patient has a septic distal interphalangeal joint, which was treated with antibiotics alone. As a result, the patient developed osteomyelitis with bone destruction and abscess. The best way to treat this problem is to perform surgical débridement of bone and soft tissue, along with abscess drainage and an appropriate antibiotic regimen. Antibiotic treatment without surgery would not be successful in eliminating this particular infection. Bone scan with biopsy is not the correct option, because this problem is an infection and not a tumor, and MRI already has provided enough diagnostic information.

Question 1634

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
Of the following factors, which is considered the most important prognostic indicator in soft-tissue sarcomas?
. Age of the patient
. Prior excisional biopsy
. Histologic subtype
. Superficial versus deep to the fascia location
. Size of the sarcoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Size of the sarcoma


Explanation

Histologic grade, the presence or absence of metastatic disease, and tumor size are important prognostic factors. Of the available choices, however, the size of the sarcoma is the most important prognostic indicator. A tumor size of greater than 5 cm is a more important prognostic factor than tumor location. Patients with sarcomas that measure 5 cm or less have nearly identical 3-year survival rates regardless of whether the tumor is subcutaneous or deep.

Question 1635

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
Figures 37a and 37b show radiographs of a 24-year-old man who has a humeral bone lesion that was found during a screening chest radiograph. He denies any symptoms despite leading a very active lifestyle. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Fibrous dysplasia
. Enchondroma
. Ewing’s sarcoma
. Metastatic carcinoma
. Aneurysmal bone cyst

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Fibrous dysplasia


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The radiographs reveal a geographic, diaphyseal lesion with very subtle cortical expansion, cortical thinning, relatively sharp demarcation, and angular rather than rounded borders, suggesting a fibrous bone lesion. This lesion demonstrates the classic ground glass appearance of fibrous dysplasia. Ewing’s sarcoma, metastases, and aneurysmal bone cyst all typically have a more aggressive appearance.

Question 1636

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
Figure 31 is the sagittal MR image of a 30-year-old man with a clear-cell sarcoma of the foot. There is no evidence of disease elsewhere after standard staging of a soft-tissue sarcoma. What is the most appropriate biopsy technique?
. Marginal resection
. Transverse incisional biopsy centered over the mass
. Incisional biopsy centered over the mass in line with the long axis of the limb
. Sentinel node biopsy
. Core needle biopsy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Core needle biopsy


Explanation

DISCUSSION: A core needle biopsy can easily be performed in an outpatient setting or with image guidance to aid in the diagnosis. Core needle biopsies preserve the architectural relationship of cells, which is important in the diagnosis of mesenchymal lesions. A core needle biopsy is appropriate for soft-tissue lesions and osseous lesions and should be performed in a multidisciplinary setting with a surgeon performing the resection so unnecessary compartmental contamination is not introduced into the needle tract.

Question 1637

Topic: Bone Tumors

Which of the following is a function of siRNA (small interfering RNA)?

. Identifies proteins
. Blocks transcription of DNA
. Separates DNA based on size
. Blocks translation of mRNA
. Identifies DNA sequences

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Identifies proteins


Explanation

siRNA functions by causing mRNA to be broken down after transcriptions, resulting in an inability to undergo translation.siRNA are short (usually 20 to 24-bp) double-stranded RNA (dsRNA) sequences with phosphorylated 5' ends and hydroxylated 3' ends. Because of their ability to block a gene of interest, they have been generating interest in the treatment of disease processes that involve gene expression.Noh et al. study the affects of PD98059, an extracellular signal-regulated kinase 1/2 (ERK1/2) inhibitor, on osteosarcoma. They found that blocking the ERK1/2 pathway with PD98059 induces osteosarcoma cell death by inhibiting a potential drug-resistance mechanism.Illustration A shows how siRNA works to block translation of mRNA. Incorrect Answers:

Question 1638

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 16-year-old girl has had pain in the left groin for the past 4 months. She notes that the pain is worse at night; however, she denies any history of trauma and has no constitutional symptoms. There is no history of steroid or alcohol use. Examination reveals pain in the left groin with rotation of the hip. There is no associated soft-tissue mass. A radiograph and MRI scan are shown in Figures 32a and 32b, and biopsy specimens are shown in Figures 32c and 32d. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Clear cell chondrosarcoma
. Chondroblastoma
. Giant cell tumor
. Aneurysmal bone cyst
. Osteonecrosis of the femoral head

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Chondroblastoma


Explanation

Based on the epiphyseal location and sharp, well-defined borders, the radiograph suggests chondroblastoma. Histologically, multinucleated giant cells are scattered among mononuclear cells. The nuclei are homogenous and contain a characteristic longitudinal groove. Although not seen here, “chicken-wire calcification” with a bland giant cell-rich matrix is also typical for chondroblastoma. Clear cell chondrosarcoma occurs in epiphyseal locations but has a more aggressive histologic pattern and occurs in an older age group. Giant cell tumors occur in the epiphysis but have a more uniform giant cell population histologically. Aneurysmal bone cyst often results in bone remodeling and has a different pathologic appearance. Osteonecrosis has a typical histologic pattern of empty lacunae and necrotic bone.

Question 1639

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 30-year-old man has had intermittent swelling of his right ankle for the past 6 months. He denies any history of trauma. Radiographs reveal osteolytic changes on both sides of the joint. An axial CT scan and a T2-weighted MRI scan are shown in Figures 40a and 40b. He undergoes surgical excision. An intraoperative photograph and a biopsy specimen are shown in Figures 40c and 40d. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Synovial sarcoma
. Infection
. Pigmented villonodular synovitis
. Malignant fibrous histiocytoma
. Synovial chondromatosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pigmented villonodular synovitis


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Pigmented villonodular synovitis often presents with intermittent swelling and minimal pain. It often occurs around joints but may be found around tendon sheaths and bursal linings. Periarticular erosions involving both sides of joints are typical, and multiple joint involvement has been described. Portions of low-signal intensity on T1- and T2-weighted images are characteristic of hemosiderin-laden processes. High-signal content is suggestive of high water content. The combination of low-signal intensity areas in intra-articular lesions with or without osseous destruction is diagnostic of pigmented villonodular synovitis. Aspiration reveals bloody or brownish fluid. The treatment of choice is synovectomy performed arthroscopically or open. Recurrence is common.

Question 1640

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
Ewing’s sarcoma of bone most commonly occurs in which of the following locations?
. Major long tubular bones
. Flat bones of the pelvis
. Fibula
. Metacarpals
. Vertebral bodies

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Major long tubular bones


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Ewing’s sarcoma typically occurs in the major long tubular bones, with the femur the most common location. The flat bones of the pelvis are the second most common location. Ewing’s sarcoma occurs in the fibula but with a lower incidence than that seen in the major tubular bones. Ewing’s sarcoma infrequently occurs in the metacarpals or the vertebral bodies.