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Question 1441

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 14-year-old boy has a midshaft fibular lesion. Biopsy results are consistent with Ewing’s sarcoma. Following induction chemotherapy, local control typically consists of
. radiation therapy only.
. curettage and bone grafting.
. wide excision.
. below-knee amputation.
. observation.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. wide excision.


Explanation

Current treatment regimens for Ewing’s sarcoma typically involve induction chemotherapy followed by local control and further chemotherapy. Local control consists of surgery alone, radiation therapy alone, or a combination of the two. In bones that are easily resectable (or expendable) with wide margins, surgery alone is usually recommended. For areas that are unresectable (i.e., large, bulky pelvic tumors), radiation therapy alone is sometimes the preferred method of local control. If surgery is chosen and margins are close, radiation therapy can be used as an adjuvant. Amputation is rarely required for an isolated fibular lesion. Observation without adequate local therapy results in local recurrence.

Question 1442

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
Figures 5a and 5b show the radiograph and MRI scan of a patient who has severe mechanical neck pain but no neurologic problems. Biopsy and work-up show the lesion to be a solitary plasmacytoma. Treatment should consist of
. radiation therapy alone.
. en bloc resection and anterior fusion.
. chemotherapy and bone marrow transplant.
. posterior occipitocervical fusion and radiation therapy.
. en bloc anterior resection followed by posterior occipitocervical fusion.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. posterior occipitocervical fusion and radiation therapy.


Explanation

Plasmacytoma is very sensitive to radiation therapy and given the complexity of the resection and complications of surgery in the given location, radiation therapy is preferred. However, the patient has clear loss of bony structural integrity, and resultant instability would persist even with tumor irradiation; therefore, posterior stabilization is warranted. Chemotherapy and bone marrow transplant are reserved for systemic disease with multiple myeloma.

Question 1443

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 15-year-old boy has had pain in the right knee for the past 3 months. He denies any history of trauma. Examination reveals a firm mass in the distal thigh; the remainder of the examination is unremarkable. A radiograph is shown in Figure 24. What further work-up should be completed prior to biopsy?
. None
. MRI of the distal femur
. MRI of the entire femur
. MRI of the entire femur and a bone scan
. MRI of the entire femur, CT of the chest, and a bone scan

Correct Answer & Explanation

. MRI of the entire femur, CT of the chest, and a bone scan


Explanation

The radiograph shows an aggressive destructive lesion. In this age group, and based on the anatomic location, a primary malignant tumor (osteosarcoma) is likely. Additional staging studies to identify metastatic disease are imperative prior to any biopsy. MRI of the femur helps to reveal skip metastasis and provides information regarding the anatomic location of the lesion. CT of the chest and a bone scan evaluate for distant metastatic spread. A bone scan is also useful in evaluating the extent of local bone activity about the lesion.

Question 1444

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
An otherwise healthy 65-year-old man reports thigh pain of insidious onset. He states that the pain is increased with weight bearing and also occurs at night. He denies any history of cancer. Radiographs are shown in Figures 22a and 22b. A bone scan shows an isolated lesion. CT scans of the chest and abdomen are negative for any other lesions. Initial management should consist of
. stabilization with a locked intramedullary rod.
. stabilization with a compression plate.
. chemotherapy.
. radiation therapy.
. performing a biopsy.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. performing a biopsy.


Explanation

The patient has a solitary lesion that is at high risk for fracture. While metastatic lesions are most common in this age group, a stabilization procedure is contraindicated until results of a biopsy confirm the presence of a metastasis. Because of the lytic lesion and the associated calcification shown on the radiograph, the most likely diagnosis is a chondrosarcoma. Therefore, any type of stabilization procedure with a rod or plate would compromise a wide surgical excision to remove the entire proximal femur. Radiation therapy and chemotherapy are also contraindicated until biopsy results are obtained. Because of these factors, obtaining a frozen section biopsy specimen is considered the next most appropriate step in management. If a metastatic lesion is confirmed on the frozen section, a stabilization procedure could then be performed under the same anesthetic.

Question 1445

Topic: Soft Tissue Tumors & Metastasis

Well-differentiated liposarcomas never have chromosomal abnormalities. Liposarcomas account for approximately 10% to 15% of sarcomas. Some general statements about liposarcomas are listed below:

. Most liposarcomas occur below the fascia.
. Superficial liposarcomas have an excellent prognosis.
. Lipomas do not undergo transformation into liposarcomas.
. Liposarcomas rarely occur in children.
. Reciprocal transformation between chromosomes 12 and 16 occurs in myxoid and round cell liposarcoma.
. Well-differentiated liposarcomas have giant marker and ring chromosome abnormalities with amplification of MDM2, SAS, and GLI genes.
. Liposarcomas express peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor gamma (PPAR gamma).
. Liposarcomas are not induced by irradiation.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Most liposarcomas occur below the fascia.


Explanation

Which of the following soft tissue lesions has a characteristic reciprocal transformation between chromosomes 12 and 16:

Question 1446

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
What is the most common malignant tumor of the foot?
. Chondrosarcoma
. Synovial sarcoma
. Osteosarcoma
. Clear cell sarcoma
. Melanoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Melanoma


Explanation

Whereas chondrosarcoma is the most frequently occurring malignant bone tumor of the foot and synovial sarcoma is the most common soft-tissue foot malignancy, the most common malignant tumor overall is melanoma. It constitutes approximately 25% of lesions found on the lower extremity. Furthermore, 31% of all melanomas arise in the foot.

Question 1447

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
The arrow in Figure 11 points toward a finding consistent with which of the following?
. Metastatic disease
. Hemangioma
. Flexion-compression fracture
. Infection
. Diastomatomyelia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Metastatic disease


Explanation

The finding of a unilateral absent pedicle is often referred to as a winking owl sign and is a manifestation of pedicle destruction from metastatic disease. As the vertebral body is destroyed from the neoplastic process, it extends into the pedicle and destroys the cortical rim that normally creates the oval ring of the pedicle on an AP image.

Question 1448

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
Figures 13a and 13b show the MRI scans of a 70-year-old patient who has a posterior calf mass. Examination reveals that the mass extends to the midcalf level. A biopsy specimen reveals a high-grade soft-tissue sarcoma. Metastatic work-up shows no lesions. Management should consist of
. wide resection and radiation therapy.
. wide resection and chemotherapy.
. below-knee amputation.
. observation.
. radiation therapy.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. below-knee amputation.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Soft-tissue sarcomas generally are treated with radiation therapy and wide surgical resection. In this patient, involvement of most of the posterior calf compartment and circumferential involvement of the posterior tibial and peroneal neurovascular bundle makes limb salvage impractical. Any attempt at wide surgical resection would leave a poorly functioning limb with questionable surgical margins. A high below-knee amputation would be the best option. Radiation therapy alone is contraindicated.

Question 1449

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
What is the appropriate first step when confirming the diagnosis of a neurologically intact, 73-year-old man who has the images shown in Figures 25a through 25c?
. Order a prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level
. Perform a 2-level corpectomy and reconstruction with tissue sent for pathologic analysis
. Fine-needle aspiration
. Bone scan

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Order a prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level


Explanation

The radiograph and MR images show an osteoblastic lesion in the T9 and T8 vertebral bodies. In an older man, this finding most likely reveals metastatic prostate cancer. The first and least invasive diagnostic step is to order a PSA level. Gleave and associates found in a retrospective review of patients with prostate cancer that isolated levels of PSA lower than 10 to 20 micrograms per liter are rarely associated with bone metastasis. In a neurologically intact patient with no evidence of neural compression or instability, surgery is not indicated. Fine-needle aspiration may be performed, but the diagnostic yield in a blastic lesion is low. A bone scan may be indicated to complete the metastatic workup, but it will not aid in the diagnosis of tissue source.

Question 1450

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 14-year-old girl reports a 3-week history of anterior thigh pain and a palpable mass after sustaining a soccer-related injury. Examination reveals a tender, firm mass in the midportion of the rectus femoris. MRI scans are shown in Figures 39a through 39c. What is the most appropriate management?
. Incision and drainage of the abscess
. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, physical therapy, and a repeat MRI scan in 6 to 8 weeks
. Open biopsy
. Hematoma evacuation and musculotendinous repair
. Primary wide resection followed by radiation therapy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, physical therapy, and a repeat MRI scan in 6 to 8 weeks


Explanation

The history, examination, and MRI scan findings are consistent with a midsubstance partial rupture of the rectus femoris muscle. This is an injury masquerading as a “pseudo tumor.” The lack of an appreciable mass effect on the T1-weighted MRI scan, the defined fluid signal on the T2-weighted scans, and the lack of significant contrast enhancement after gadolinium are all most consistent with injury rather than a neoplasm. Most of these injuries respond to nonsurgical management; a few will benefit from late debridement and repair if symptoms fail to resolve in 3 to 6 months. The treatment of choice is nonsurgical management with a follow-up MRI scan to verify that the findings are resolving.

Question 1451

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A patient presents with a hard leg mass and pain with activity. The anteroposterior and lateral radiographs are shown in Slide 1 and Slide 2. An axial computed tomography scan is shown in Slide 3. Which of the following tumor suppressor genes is most likely involved?
. This patient has multiple hereditary exostoses. Widening of the metaphysis is characteristic of multiple hereditary exostoses. Large sessile osteochondromas arise from the metaphysis and a large osteochondroma arises from the medial metaphysis with a characteristic cartilaginous cap. The computed tomography scan shows the widening and abnormal tubulation of the bone.
. No evidence of malignancy exists in this large osteochondroma. The cartilage cap is regular with no areas of bone destruction. One should also look for a soft tissue mass, which often shows areas of focal calcifications. No soft tissue masses are present in this patient.
. EXT1 or EXT2

Correct Answer & Explanation

. EXT1 or EXT2


Explanation

It is important to remember that this condition is autosomal dominant. The putative tumor suppressor gene mutations are EXT1 or EXT2. The risk of low-grade chondrosarcoma occurring in this condition is approximately 10%.

Question 1452

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
What are the five most common tumors that metastasize to bone?
. Breast, cervical, ovarian, thyroid, lung
. Breast, prostate, lung, renal, thyroid
. Renal, thyroid, prostate, breast, gastrointestinal
. Prostate, lung, breast, renal, laryngeal
. Prostate, breast, lung, thyroid, gastrointestinal

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Breast, prostate, lung, renal, thyroid


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The five most common primary carcinomas that metastasize to bone are breast, prostate, lung, renal, and thyroid in decreasing order of incidence. REFERENCES: Frassica FJ, Gitelis S, Sim FH: Metastatic bone disease: General principles, pathophysiology, evaluation, and biopsy. Instr Course Lect 1992;41:293-300. CA, January/February 2000, vol 50, no. 1 (Cancer Statistics).

Question 1453

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
Which of the following diagnostic studies best distinguishes Ewing’s sarcoma from small cell osteosarcoma?
. Bone scan
. Cytogenetics
. DNA ploidy analysis
. Sentinel node biopsy
. L-lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cytogenetics


Explanation

Cytogenetics best demonstrates the 11;22 translocation characteristic of Ewing’s sarcoma. The translocation also can be detected with polymerase chain reaction and fluorescent in situ hybridization. The Ewing antibody is used for immunostaining to check for cell membrane (surface) staining of a marker unrelated to the translocation; this could also help distinguish Ewing’s sarcoma from small cell osteosarcoma. A bone scan will show increased uptake with both types of tumors. Although most Ewing’s sarcoma tumors are diploid, some are polyploid as are most osteosarcomas. Flow cytometry is used to sort cells, sometimes based on antibody binding. LDH can be elevated in both Ewing’s sarcoma and osteosarcoma and is a poor prognostic indicator when elevated. Lymph node metastases are uncommon in both of these tumors.

Question 1454

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

What is the treatment recommendation for an American Joint Committee on Cancer stage IIB (Enneking stage IIB) malignant fibrous histiocytoma of bone?

. Wide excision alone
. Radiotherapy and wide excision
. Chemotherapy and radiation
. Chemotherapy and wide excision
. Chemotherapy, wide excision, and radiotherapy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Wide excision alone


Explanation

Question 1455

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
In addition to the radiographic features seen in Figures 49a and 49b, this patient will most likely have which of the following findings?
. Microcephaly
. 1,25 dihydroxy vitamin D deficiency
. Normal dentition
. Anemia
. Developmental delays

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anemia


Explanation

The radiographs show the characteristic features of osteopetrosis. The condition results from defective resorption of immature bone by osteoclasts. There are three distinct clinical forms: (1) infantile-malignant, which is autosomal recessive and fatal in the first few years of life if untreated; (2) intermediate autosomal recessive; and (3) autosomal dominant. These conditions do not follow a malignant course, and patients have normal life expectancy with orthopaedic problems and anemia. In the malignant form, the clinical features include frequent fractures, macrocephaly, progressive deafness and blindness, hepatosplenomegaly, and severe anemia beginning in early infancy or in utero. The anemia is caused by encroachment of bone on marrow, resulting in obliteration, and the hepatosplenomegaly is caused by compensatory extramedullary hematopoiesis. Dental caries and abscesses, as well as osteomyelitis of the mandible, are also seen. Most patients have normal intelligence. Treatment of the malignant form includes high dose 1,25 dihydroxy vitamin D with a low-calcium diet to stimulate bone resorption, not because there are vitamin deficiencies.

Question 1456

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 19-year-old man has had pain and swelling in his left forearm for the past 8 months. Laboratory studies show a mildly elevated WBC count and erythrocyte sedimentation rate. Radiographs are shown in Figures 58a and 58b, a CT scan is shown in Figure 58c, and T1- and T2-weighted MRI scans are shown in Figures 58d and 58e, respectively. A biopsy specimen is shown in Figure 58f. Immunohistochemistry demonstrates that the lesion is negative for leukocyte common antigen (CD34). What is the most common cytogenetic translocation associated with this lesion?
. (11; 22) (q24; q12)
. (X; 18) (p11; q11)
. (12; 22) (q13; q12)
. (2; 13) (q35; q14)
. (12; 16) (q13; p11)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. (11; 22) (q24; q12)


Explanation

The imaging studies show a permeative lytic destructive lesion in the proximal radius with “hair-on-end” periosteal reaction and a large soft-tissue mass most consistent with Ewing’s sarcoma. The pathology reveals monotonous sheets of “round blue” cells. This limits the differential diagnosis to primary lymphoma of bone versus Ewing’s sarcoma. These are best differentiated by immunohistochemistry, cytogenetics, and flow cytometry. Lymphoma of bone is typically CD34 positive and CD99 negative; whereas, the reverse is true of Ewing’s sarcoma, CD34 negative and CD99 positive. The most common cytogenetic translocation with Ewing’s sarcoma is (11; 22) (q24; q12).

Question 1457

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 58-year-old man with a 50-year history of osteomyelitis of the left tibia has a painful ulceration of the anterior lower limb. Figure 1 is the clinical photograph of the wound, which had purulent discharge and an unpleasant odor. Figures 2 and 3 are radiographs of the left tibia. A biopsy reveals malignant degeneration. What are the most likely findings?

. Reticulosarcoma
. Squamous cell carcinoma
. Fibrosarcoma
. Malignant fibrous histiocytoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Reticulosarcoma


Explanation

Discussion: Squamous cell carcinoma is the most common type of malignant tumor deriving from chronic osteomyelitis. The most frequently affected site is the tibia, followed by the femur. When the neoplasm invades the bone, there is either osteolytic erosion or a pathological fracture. Diagnosis is confirmed by biopsy at all suspicious wound sites. The malignant transformation most often results in squamous cell carcinoma and much more rarely in fibrosarcoma, osteosarcoma, reticulosarcoma, malignant fibrous histiocytoma or angiosarcoma. Many experts accept amputation as the best treatment option for carcinomatous transformation of chronic bone infections.

Question 1458

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
The radiographic feature seen in Figure 37 that best indicates a slow-growing process is the
. deformity of the fibula.
. wide base of the lesion.
. lack of joint deformity.
. medullary canal extending into the lesion.
. lack of periosteal reaction.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. deformity of the fibula.


Explanation

For the fibula (or any bone) to bow, a long-standing process needs to be present. Pressure from a rapid process would cause erosion, not allowing the bone to remodel. The other features are helpful confirmatory findings but also may be associated with aggressive processes. In this patient, the fibular deformity is caused by a sessile osteochondroma of the tibia.

Question 1459

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
What mechanism is associated with the spontaneous resorption of herniated nucleus pulposus?
. Macrophage infiltration and phagocytosis
. Granuloma formation
. Antibody mediated destruction
. Complement cascade activation
. Major histocompatibility complex mediated pathways

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Macrophage infiltration and phagocytosis


Explanation

Nonsurgical modalities remain the mainstay for treatment of herniated disks. Spontaneous resorption of herniated disks frequently is detected by MRI. Marked infiltration by macrophages and neovascularization are observed on histologic examination of herniated disks, and the resorption is believed to be related to this process.

Question 1460

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 19-year-old man has had intermittent progressive knee pain with ambulation and pain at night following a rodeo accident 4 weeks ago. Figures 4a through 4e show the radiographs, a bone scan, CT scan, and T2-weighted MRI scan. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Infection
. Osteosarcoma
. Osteoblastoma
. Giant cell tumor
. Distal femoral fracture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Osteosarcoma


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The imaging studies reveal a predominantly blastic lesion in the distal femur with posterolateral periosteal changes. The bone scan shows increased uptake in the distal femur, beyond that expected with radiography. Cross-sectional imaging confirms the presence of a soft-tissue mass extending from the lateral aspect of the femur, with diffuse intramedullary signal changes. This aggressive presentation, particularly in this location and in a patient of this age, is most consistent with osteosarcoma. The mineralization in the soft tissue strongly suggests neoplasm, not the reactive bony changes seen in an infectious process.