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Question 1401

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 13-year-old girl is diagnosed with a stage IIB osteosarcoma of the proximal tibia. Following neoadjuvant chemotherapy, local control should consist of
. wide resection and reconstruction.
. wide resection and radiation therapy.
. radiation therapy.
. curettage and bone grafting.
. observation.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. wide resection and reconstruction.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Local control of osteosarcoma consists of wide resection and reconstruction. Radiation therapy is not recommended except in unresectable lesions or for palliation. Curettage and bone grafting result in intralesional resection with an unacceptable high rate of local recurrence. Chemotherapy alone is not adequate for local control. REFERENCES: Simon M, Springfield D, et al: Osteogenic Sarcoma: Surgery for Bone and Soft Tissue. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Raven, 1998, p 274. Wold LA, et al: Osteogenic Sarcoma: Atlas of Orthopaedic Pathology. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1990, pp 14-15.

Question 1402

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 75-year-old woman has had severe shoulder pain for the past month. Her medical history includes hypertension and a total nephrectomy for renal cell carcinoma 7 years ago. Radiographs and sagittal MRI scans are shown in Figures 36a through 36d. A bone scan reveals this to be an isolated lesion. Biopsy findings are consistent with metastatic renal cell carcinoma. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
. Prophylactic stabilization with an intramedullary rod
. Radiation therapy alone
. Embolization alone
. Wide resection and prosthetic reconstruction
. Prophylactic stabilization with a locking plate and polymethylmethacrylate cement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Wide resection and prosthetic reconstruction


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Resection and reconstruction of this very proximal lesion provides the best chance to avoid hardware complications that may be associated with stabilization procedures. Wide resection of isolated renal cell carcinoma metastasis, which presents distant to the nephrectomy, may improve long-term survival. REFERENCES: Fuchs B, Trousdale RT, Rock MG: Solitary bony metastasis from renal cell carcinoma: Significance of surgical treatment. Clin Orthop Relat Res 2005;431:187-192. Jung ST, Ghert MA, Harrelson JM, et al: Treatment of osseous metastases in patients with renal cell carcinoma. Clin Orthop Relat Res 2003;409:223-231.

Question 1403

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 13-year-old boy has had pain and swelling in his ankle for the past several months. Based on the radiograph, MRI scan, and biopsy specimen shown in Figures 77a through 77c, what is the best course of action?
. Observation
. Curettage and bone grafting
. Radiofrequency ablation
. Radiation therapy
. Wide resection

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Curettage and bone grafting


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Chondroblastomas are benign cartilage lesions frequently seen in adolescents or young adults. They are found in the epiphyseal or apophyseal regions of bones. The radiograph shows a radiolucent lesion with mineralization and a well-marginated rim of reactive bone. The lesion is composed of sheets of immature chondroblasts (polygonal cells with a clear, bluish cytoplasm and a small round central nucleus). In some regions, classic “chicken-wire” matrix calcifications and a “cobblestone” pattern of cell arrangement may be seen. Treatment consists of curettage and bone grafting. REFERENCES: Campanacci M: Bone and Soft Tissue Tumors, ed 2. New York, NY, Springer-Verlag, 1999, pp 247-264. Lin PP, Thenappan A, Deavers MT, et al: Treatment and prognosis of chondroblastoma. Clin Orthop Relat Res 2005;438:103-109.

Question 1404

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 6-year-old boy has had increasing pain and a mass in the suprapatellar region of the right femur for the past week. Examination of the mass reveals it may be firm, immobile, and tender to palpitation. The patient has no systemic symptoms. Laboratory studies show a WBC of 7000 per cubic millimeter, a hematocrit of 40%, and an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 10 mm/hr. radiographs are normal. Figures 64a and 64b show saggital and axial T1-weighted MRI scans. Figure 64c shows frozen section pathology of the biopsy specimen. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Synovial sarcoma
. Soft-tissue abcess
. Rhabdomyosarcoma
. Eosinophilic granuloma
. Nodular pigmented villonodular synovitis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Soft-tissue abcess


Explanation

Multiple hints in this history, MRI and pathology section leads to the diagnosis of soft tissue abscess. The sarcomas are slow growing and mostly are asymptomatic. The mass is tender and enlarging over the past week. PVNS would give the patient a painful boggy joint and this mass is supracondyler. Esinophilic granuloma would give a punched-out lesion in the long bones on the plain radiographs. The best clue is the slide given which shows inflammatory cells. PVNS would show hemosiderin stained giant cells, synovial sarcoma would reveal a biphasic pattern of spindle cells, E.G. would show eosinophils and histiocytes, and rhabdomyosarcoma would have cross striation within the tumor cells.

Question 1405

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
Survival rates for children with soft-tissue sarcoma other than rhabdomyosarcoma are best correlated with
. size of the tumor.
. histologic grade.
. histologic subtype.
. use of adjuvant chemotherapy.
. age of the patient.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. histologic grade.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: In review of 154 patients with nonrhabdomyosarcoma, Rao reported that histologic grade, tumor invasiveness, and adequate surgical margin were the most important prognostic factors. Histologic subtype, use of adjuvant chemotherapy, and patient age were not as important. Size related to degree of invasiveness was not statistically significant. REFERENCES: Rao BN: Nonrhabdomyosarcoma in children: Prognostic factors influencing survival. Semin Surg Oncol 1993;9:524-531. Andrassy R, et al: Non-rhabdomyosarcoma Soft-Tissue Sarcomas: Pediatric Surgical Oncology. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, p 221.

Question 1406

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 12-year-old boy who pitches on two “select” baseball teams has had pain in his dominant right shoulder for the past 6 weeks. The pain is present only with throwing and is associated with decreased throwing velocity and control. He has no radiation of pain or paraesthesias of the upper extremity. An AP radiograph and MRI scan are shown in Figures 19a and 19b, respectively. Management should consist of Review Topic

. rest from throwing activities.
. a subacromial corticosteroid injection.
. open reduction and internal fixation.
. arthroscopic labral repair.
. biopsy of the proximal humerus.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. rest from throwing activities.


Explanation

The imaging study demonstrates characteristics of Little Leaguer’s shoulder, including physeal widening. This condition is secondary to overuse (typically throwing) and responds well to rest from the inciting activity. There is no evidence from the patient’s history or examination that he has an impingement syndrome, nor is there any indication of labral pathology on the MRI scan. The changes in the proximal humerus are classic for this condition and are not suggestive of a neoplastic process requiring biopsy for definitive diagnosis.

Question 1407

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 14-year-old girl has had progressive heel pain for the past several months. Based on the radiograph, MRI scan, and biopsy specimens shown in Figures 37a through 37d, treatment should include
. observation.
. wide resection.
. radiation therapy.
. extended curettage.
. chemotherapy.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. extended curettage.


Explanation

An aneurysmal bone cyst is a benign, locally destructive lesion of bone. Most are seen in patients in the second decade of life. The clinical presentation varies, but most patients have pain, tenderness, swelling, and/or pathologic fracture. Radiographs show a radiolucent lesion sometimes with expansile remodeling of the cortex. MRI best detects the commonly seen fluid-fluid levels associated with this lesion. Histologic findings include blood-filled spaces with bland fibrous connective tissue septa. The stroma has histiocytes, fibroblasts, scattered giant cells, hemosiderin, and occasional inflammatory cells. Treatment of these lesions consists of extended curettage, plus or minus the use of adjuvants (liquid nitrogen, phenol, argon beam coagulation), and finally filling the bone void (allograft or other bone substitute).

Question 1408

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 43-year-old woman is referred after excisional biopsy of a cutaneous soft-tissue mass from her left shoulder. Based on the biopsy specimens shown in Figures 44a and 44b, what is the best course of action?
. Marginal resection
. Observation
. Wide tumor bed resection
. Radiation therapy
. Chemotherapy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Wide tumor bed resection


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans (DFSP) is a rare superficial sarcoma that is frequently misdiagnosed at presentation. It is frequently excised prior to suspecting that the lesion is a sarcoma and if not appropriately treated with tumor bed resection to obtain wide margins, these lesions have a high incidence of local recurrence. It is recommended that the wide excision include the deep fascia and a 2.5- to 3-cm cuff of normal-appearing skin. Distant disease spread is rare and usually occurs in the face of a multiply recurrent lesion. Despite the apparent gross circumscription of these lesions, the tumor diffusely infiltrates the dermis and subcutaneous tissues. A characteristic histologic finding can be seen in the deep margins of the tumor where it intricately interdigitates with normal fat. REFERENCES: Lindner NJ, Scarborough MT, Powell GJ, et al: Revision surgery in dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans of the trunk and extremities. Eur J Surg Oncol 1999;25:392-397. Weiss SW, Goldblum JR, Enzinger FM: Enzinger and Weiss’s Soft Tissue Tumors, ed 4. Philadelphia, PA, Elsevier, 2001, pp 491-505.

Question 1409

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
Which of the following definitions best describes Batson’s vertebral vein system?
. A system of valves that allows retrograde embolism
. A vascular system that bypasses organs such as the breast, prostate, lung, kidney, and thyroid
. A system of veins within the thoracoabdominal cavity that are not subject to compression or collapse by increases in intra-abdominal pressure
. A series of valveless veins that allow tumor cell extravasation
. A longitudinal vein system with a segmental distribution to the vertebra that extends from the dural venous sinuses of the skull to the sacrum

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A series of valveless veins that allow tumor cell extravasation


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The venous plexus was described by Batson and helps to explain the common distribution of metastatic cells to the vertebrae, skull, ribs, and proximal long bones. Batson studied the vertebral vein system extensively by using contrast agents in human cadavers and live monkeys. Batson’s plexus is a valveless system that allows retrograde embolism from the major organs such as the breast, prostate, lung, kidney, and thyroid. It is located within the thoracoabdominal cavity and has connections to the proximal long bones and an intercommunicating network of thin-walled veins with a low intraluminal pressure. REFERENCES: Batson OV: Function of vertebral veins and their role in spread of metastases. Ann Surg 1940;112:138-149. Coman DR, de Long RP: Role of vertebral venous system in metastasis of cancer to spinal column: Experiments with tumor-cell suspensions in rats and rabbits. Cancer 1951;4:610-618.

Question 1410

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
Figure 46 shows the MRI scan of a patient who has a mass in the calf that has been fluctuating in size. Radiographs are negative. Which of the following procedures will most quickly aid in confirming the diagnosis?
. Open biopsy
. Needle aspiration
. Arthroscopy
. CT
. Arthrography

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Needle aspiration


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The bright signal on the T2-weighted MRI scan suggests fluid. The multiloculated appearance in proximity to the proximal tibiofibular joint suggests that the most likely diagnosis is a ganglion. They typically increase and decrease in size and can be diagnosed by the classic gelatinous fluid obtained through needle aspiration.

Question 1411

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 17-year-old boy has had elbow pain for the past 6 weeks. A radiograph, MRI scans, and biopsy specimens are shown in Figures 65a through 65e. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Osteoid osteoma
. Osteoblastoma
. Osteosarcoma
. Chondroblastoma
. Giant cell tumor

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Osteoblastoma


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The findings are consistent with an osteoblastoma. The radiographs show a bone-forming lesion of the distal humerus. The lesion has an osseous component extending out of the native cortex with a thin sclerotic border. The T2-weighted MRI scan shows the lesion extending anteriorly beyond the native cortex. No fluid-fluid levels are seen. Histology shows large osteoblasts producing osteoid and woven bone. The tissue between the spicules of bone and osteoid contains thin fibrous tissue and capillaries. Osteoid osteoma is a smaller lesion usually with sclerotic reactive bone around a small nidus. The histology differentiates osteoblastoma from osteosarcoma because no malignant cells are seen. There is no cartilage production or chondroblasts in the histologic specimen, eliminating chondroblastoma. Giant cell tumors of bone typically occur in an epiphyseal metaphyseal location, most commonly after skeletal maturity, and contain numerous giant cells.

Question 1412

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
Figure 10 is an anteroposterior pelvis radiograph of an 82-year-old man who had right hip pain that began 2 weeks ago but has since resolved with use of over-the-counter nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). Currently he has no pain. Examination of his hip shows decreased internal rotation and minimal pain at the extremes of motion. What is the most appropriate treatment at this point?
. Observation and NSAID use as needed
. MRI scan
. Bone biopsy
. Serum protein electrophoresis (SPEP) and urine protein electrophoresis (UPEP)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Observation and NSAID use as needed


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The radiograph shown is consistent with Paget disease of the bone. It demonstrates classic findings of widened lamellae and disorganized sclerotic and lytic areas. The cause is not clearly defined, but may be linked to a viral infection and subsequent alterations of osteoblastic and osteoclastic activity. Most patients are asymptomatic, and Paget disease is often found incidentally on radiographs. In this case, the patient’s symptoms likely were caused by hip arthritis, but Paget disease can cause diffuse bone pain in some cases. Considering the patient’s mild and short-term symptoms, observation and NSAID use is most appropriate. An MRI scan or biopsy is indicated if sarcomatous transformation is suspected, but this condition is rare and is associated with a substantial, unrelenting increase in pain. SPEP and UPEP are tests for multiple myeloma, of which the radiographs show no signs.

Question 1413

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 68-year-old woman with metastatic breast carcinoma is seen in the emergency department. She appears lethargic, and she reports abdominal pain, nausea, and constipation. An EKG reveals a shortened QT interval. The only physical finding on examination is diffuse hyporeflexia. What is the most appropriate step in management?
. Intravenous fluid administration
. Intravenous bisphosphonates
. Intranasal calcitonin
. Methotrexate
. Mithramycin by oral administration

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Intravenous fluid administration


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Intravenous fluid administration is the best first step to treat the hypercalcemia of malignancy. Many of these patients are dehydrated, and the increased serum calcium impairs the ability of the kidney to concentrate the urine. The decreased glomerular filtration rate secondary to the hypovolemia also leads to increased tubular resorption of calcium. The establishment of normovolemia will help promote increased urinary excretion of calcium. Lasix can also be used to help promote calciuria. Mithramycin is an antibiotic derived from Streptomyces plicatus. It is part of a group of drugs referred to as chromomycin antibiotics and is the only one of this group used clinically in the United States. It is rarely used in cancer chemotherapy because of its toxicity. A number of drug-related deaths have occurred from the use of mithramycin. Its use is now limited to the treatment of hypercalcemia associated with malignancy where it is used in lower dosage than that used for the treatment of tumors. Methotrexate has no role in the treatment of hypercalcemia of malignancy. While intravenous bisphosphonates are helpful in slowing progression of metastases and may help lower serum calcium, they are not appropriate in the emergent treatment of hypercalcemia in the metastatic cancer patient. REFERENCE: Stewart AF: Clinical practice: Hypercalcemia associated with cancer. N Engl J of Med 2005;352:373-379.

Question 1414

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 38-year-old woman has a lesion on her left foot that has increased in size over the past 6 months. The clinical photograph is shown in Figure 17a, and a photomicrograph of the biopsy specimen is shown in Figure 17b. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Kaposi sarcoma
. Squamous cell carcinoma
. Pigmented basal cell carcinoma
. Melanoma
. Bacillary angiomatosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Melanoma


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Melanoma comprises 25% of lower extremity lesions and is the most common malignant tumor of the foot. The preferred treatment is wide resection. REFERENCES: Hughes LE, Horgan K, Taylor BA, Laidler P: Malignant melanoma of the hand and foot: Diagnosis and management. Br J Surg 1985;72:811-815. Fortin PT, Freiberg AA: Malignant melanoma of the foot and ankle. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1995;77:1396-1403.

Question 1415

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
An 18-year-old boy has had pain in the right knee for the past 6 months. Examination reveals some fullness behind the knee but no significant palpable soft-tissue mass. There is no effusion, and he has full knee range of motion. The remainder of the examination is unremarkable. A radiograph and MRI scans are shown in Figures 33a through 33c, and biopsy specimens are shown in Figures 33d and 33e. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Parosteal osteosarcoma
. Classic osteogenic sarcoma
. Ewing’s sarcoma
. Osteochondroma
. Chondrosarcoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Parosteal osteosarcoma


Explanation

The patient has parosteal osteosarcoma. The posterior aspect of the distal femur is the typical location for this variant of osteogenic sarcoma. The imaging studies indicate a surface lesion with no involvement of the adjacent intramedullary canal. The histologic appearance is that of a low-grade fibroblastic osteosarcoma, consisting of relatively mature bone and a bland fibroblastic stroma lacking cytologic atypia and mitotic activity. A cartilaginous component is also frequently seen. Classic osteosarcoma typically has a more aggressive radiologic and histologic appearance.

Question 1416

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

In the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis, which medication is an antagonist of tumor necrosis factor-alpha?

. Rituximab
. Etanercept
. Abatacept
. Methotrexate
. Leflunomide

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Etanercept


Explanation

Etanercept is a biochemically designed tumor necrosis factor receptor immunoglobulin G fusion protein, which binds to TNF-alpha and is thus a TNF-alpha antagonist.TNF-alpha is considered to be one of the major cytokines involved in rheumatoid arthritis pathology. As a result, many biologic agents used to treat rheumatoid arthritis (RA) are manufactured to block TNF-alpha or its receptors. This has been shown to reduce inflammation and stop disease progression. In the USA, Etanercept is approved to treat rheumatoid arthritis, juvenile rheumatoid arthritis and psoriatic arthritis, plaque psoriasis and ankylosing spondylitis. The route of administration is subcutaneous.Bongartz et al. used a randomized control trial to asses the risk of infection and malignancy rates in RA treated with TNF-alpha antagonist. Overall, patients with RA appear to have an approximately 2-fold increased risk of serious infection compared to the general population and non-RA controls, irrespective of TNF-alpha antagonist use. The pooled odds ratio for malignancy was 3.3 (95% confidence interval [CI], 1.2-

Question 1417

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 58-year-old woman has had a painless periscapular mass for the past year. An MRI scan and biopsy specimen are shown in Figures 4a and 4b. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Elastofibroma
. Desmoid tumor
. Nodular fasciitis
. Malignant fibrous histiocytoma
. Atrophic serratus anterior

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Elastofibroma


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Elastofibroma is a rare tumor that most commonly occurs in adults who are older than age 55 years. The lesions usually grow between the chest wall and the scapula, and 10% are bilateral. Histologic analysis shows that they are composed of equal amounts of elastin and collagen with occasional fibroblasts.

Question 1418

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
Epithelioid sarcoma most commonly occurs in which of the following anatomic locations?
. Upper extremity
. Lower extremity
. Pelvis and buttock
. Retroperitoneum
. Spine

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Upper extremity


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Epithelioid sarcoma is a rare soft-tissue sarcoma that most commonly arises in the hand or upper extremity, and it is frequently misdiagnosed as an infection or granuloma. It tends to have a higher incidence of lymph node metastasis than other soft-tissue sarcomas. The mainstay of treatment is wide surgical excision.

Question 1419

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
An 11-year-old child has Ewing’s sarcoma of the femoral diaphysis with a small soft-tissue mass. Staging studies show no evidence of metastases. Treatment should consist of
. chemotherapy and radiation therapy to the femur.
. chemotherapy and wide resection.
. chemotherapy and above-knee amputation.
. hip disarticulation.
. wide resection.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. chemotherapy and wide resection.


Explanation

The use of chemotherapy has dramatically improved survival rates of patients with Ewing’s sarcoma. Local disease is best handled with wide resection to decrease local recurrence and to avoid the complications of radiation therapy (i.e., secondary sarcomas). Radiation therapy alone is reserved for unresectable lesions or poor surgical margins. Amputation generally is not necessary.

Question 1420

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 45-year-old man reports right shoulder pain with overhead activities only. Figures 47a through 47d show the radiographs, bone scan, and MRI scan of a lesion of the proximal shoulder. What is the most appropriate treatment?
. Needle biopsy
. Incisional biopsy
. Curettage and grafting
. Observation
. En bloc resection

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Observation


Explanation

The figures show a lesion of the proximal humerus consistent with an enchondroma. The lesion is calcified on the radiographs. There is no cortical destruction, significant endosteal scalloping, or soft-tissue mass. The bone scan shows mild uptake in the area of the proximal humerus, and the T2-weighted MRI scan shows a lesion with high uptake, suggesting a lesion with high water content. A CT scan could also be obtained to rule out bone destruction or periosteal reaction. Pain with overhead activities is likely related to the rotator cuff. A biopsy is unlikely to add information because of inherent difficulties interpreting low-grade cartilaginous lesions. Curettage and grafting and en bloc resection are excessive treatments for a benign lesion that is apparently asymptomatic. Observation with a follow-up radiograph in 3 to 6 months is appropriate.