This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 10. Pathology and Oncology. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 121
Topic: Bone Tumors
A 6-year-old boy complains of localized back pain. Lateral radiographs show complete collapse of the T8 vertebral body (vertebra plana) with preservation of the adjacent disc spaces. The most likely diagnosis is:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Eosinophilic granuloma
Explanation
Eosinophilic granuloma (Langerhans cell histiocytosis) is a classic cause of vertebra plana in children. The disc spaces are characteristically preserved, unlike in infectious discitis.
Question 122
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 58-year-old man presents with bowel and bladder dysfunction and sacral pain. Imaging shows a large, destructive midline sacral mass. Biopsy reveals physaliferous cells in a myxoid background. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Wide en bloc excision
Explanation
The patient has a sacral chordoma, characterized histologically by physaliferous cells. The gold standard treatment is wide en bloc excision to minimize the high risk of local recurrence.
Question 123
Topic: Soft Tissue Tumors & Metastasis
A 40-year-old man presents with radicular pain. MRI reveals an intradural, extramedullary mass extending through the neural foramen into the extraspinal space, creating a "dumbbell" shape. Histology shows Antoni A and Antoni B tissue patterns. The correct diagnosis is:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Schwannoma
Explanation
Schwannomas frequently present as dumbbell-shaped tumors extending through the neural foramen. Histologically, they feature hypercellular Antoni A areas with Verocay bodies and hypocellular Antoni B areas.
Question 124
Topic: Bone Tumors
A 22-year-old woman presents with severe back pain. MRI shows an expansile, multiloculated lytic lesion in the posterior elements of L3 with multiple fluid-fluid levels on T2-weighted sequences. The most likely diagnosis is:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Aneurysmal bone cyst
Explanation
Aneurysmal bone cysts (ABCs) typically arise in the posterior elements of the spine in young patients. The presence of fluid-fluid levels on MRI is a hallmark characteristic.
Question 125
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 60-year-old man with a history of renal cell carcinoma presents with acute paraparesis from a T10 metastatic lesion causing spinal cord compression. If surgical decompression is planned, which of the following should ideally precede surgery?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Preoperative selective arterial embolization
Explanation
Renal cell carcinoma and thyroid cancer metastases to the spine are highly vascular. Preoperative selective arterial embolization is strongly recommended to reduce intraoperative blood loss.
Question 126
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
Which of the following represents the most common primary malignant bone tumor of the spine in the adult population?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Multiple myeloma
Explanation
Multiple myeloma is the most common primary malignant bone tumor overall and in the spine for adults. It often presents with lytic, "punched-out" lesions and osteopenia.
Question 127
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 28-year-old man presents with progressive lower extremity weakness. MRI identifies a myxopapillary ependymoma located in the conus medullaris and filum terminale. What is the most important factor in preventing local recurrence?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Gross total unruptured en bloc resection
Explanation
Myxopapillary ependymomas are WHO Grade I tumors. Achieving a gross total unruptured en bloc resection provides the highest cure rate and minimizes the risk of local recurrence and CSF dissemination.
Question 128
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
Which of the following tumor types is most characteristically associated with von Hippel-Lindau (VHL) syndrome when presenting in the spinal cord?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Hemangioblastoma
Explanation
Hemangioblastomas of the central nervous system, including the spinal cord, are strongly associated with von Hippel-Lindau (VHL) disease. They are highly vascular, benign tumors.
Question 129
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 9-year-old child presents with progressive scoliosis and central nervous system signs. MRI reveals an extensive intramedullary cystic mass expanding the spinal cord from C3 to T2. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Astrocytoma
Explanation
Astrocytomas are the most common intramedullary spinal cord tumors in children. They are typically eccentric, ill-defined, and frequently associated with tumoral cysts or syringomyelia.
Question 130
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 50-year-old woman with a history of breast cancer presents with thoracic back pain. MRI shows a single vertebral metastasis at T7 with epidural extension causing mild cord compression. Based on the Tokuhashi scoring system, a score of 12 (high score) suggests:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Life expectancy > 1 year, indicating an excisional procedure (corpectomy) is reasonable
Explanation
In the Tokuhashi scoring system, a high score (12-15) predicts a survival of more than 1 year. In these patients, aggressive excisional surgery (e.g., corpectomy and stabilization) is indicated for isolated metastatic lesions.
Question 131
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 16-year-old male presents with fever and severe low back pain. Imaging shows a permeative, destructive lesion in the L4 vertebral body with a large associated soft-tissue mass. Biopsy reveals small round blue cells that are CD99 positive. The most likely diagnosis is:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Ewing sarcoma
Explanation
Ewing sarcoma typically presents in adolescents with a permeative bony lesion, soft tissue mass, and systemic symptoms. Histologically, it is composed of small round blue cells that stain positive for CD99.
Question 132
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 45-year-old female presents with progressive spastic paraparesis and sensory loss. MRI reveals a well-circumscribed, centrally located, strongly enhancing intramedullary spinal cord lesion at T8 with an associated syrinx. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Ependymoma
Explanation
Ependymoma is the most common intramedullary spinal cord tumor in adults and typically presents as a centrally located, well-circumscribed, enhancing mass often associated with a syrinx. Gross total resection is often possible due to a distinct cleavage plane.
Question 133
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 6-year-old child presents with torticollis and upper extremity weakness. MRI demonstrates an eccentrically located, ill-defined intramedullary lesion in the cervical spinal cord that expands the cord. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Astrocytoma
Explanation
Astrocytomas are the most common intramedullary spinal cord tumors in children. They are typically eccentrically located and ill-defined, making gross total resection difficult compared to ependymomas.
Question 134
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 60-year-old woman presents with thoracic radicular pain. MRI reveals an intradural, extramedullary, homogeneously enhancing mass with a broad base on the dura and a "dural tail". What is the best initial surgical management strategy?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Gross total resection including the dural attachment
Explanation
The clinical and radiographic presentation is classic for a spinal meningioma. The standard of care is gross total surgical resection, which often includes excision or coagulation of the dural attachment to minimize recurrence.
Question 135
Topic: Soft Tissue Tumors & Metastasis
Which of the following histologic findings is most characteristic of a spinal schwannoma?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Antoni A and Antoni B tissue patterns
Explanation
Schwannomas are characterized histologically by alternating regions of high cellularity (Antoni A) containing Verocay bodies, and low cellularity (Antoni B). Psammoma bodies are seen in meningiomas, and perivascular pseudorosettes in ependymomas.
Question 136
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 55-year-old man presents with bowel and bladder dysfunction and severe sacral pain. Radiographs reveal a large destructive, midline lytic lesion of the sacrum. Biopsy shows cords of large vacuolated cells (physaliferous cells) in a myxoid background. What is the optimal definitive treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. En bloc wide surgical resection
Explanation
Chordomas are locally aggressive, chemoresistant, and radioresistant tumors derived from notochordal remnants. The standard of care for achievable cure is en bloc wide surgical excision with negative margins.
Question 137
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 7-year-old boy complains of localized back pain. Radiographs of the thoracic spine show uniform collapse of the T7 vertebral body (vertebra plana) with preservation of the adjacent disc spaces. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Langerhans cell histiocytosis
Explanation
Langerhans cell histiocytosis (eosinophilic granuloma) is the most common cause of vertebra plana in a child. Adjacent disc spaces are classically preserved, differentiating it from discitis/osteomyelitis.
Question 138
Topic: Bone Tumors
A 16-year-old boy presents with severe thoracic back pain that is worse at night and completely relieved by ibuprofen. CT scan shows a 1 cm radiolucent nidus with surrounding sclerosis in the pedicle of T9. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step if conservative management fails?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Radiofrequency ablation
Explanation
The clinical picture is classic for an osteoid osteoma. If conservative management with NSAIDs fails, minimally invasive procedures such as CT-guided radiofrequency ablation (RFA) are the treatment of choice.
Question 139
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
An intradural, extramedullary spinal tumor is resected from the cervical spine of a 40-year-old patient. Pathology demonstrates an encapsulated mass containing spindle-shaped cells arranged in whorls and the presence of calcified concentric structures. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Meningioma
Explanation
The histologic description of whorled spindle cells and psammoma bodies (calcified concentric structures) is pathognomonic for a meningioma. These typically arise in the intradural, extramedullary space.
Question 140
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 65-year-old man with prostate cancer presents with sudden onset lower extremity weakness and hyperreflexia. MRI shows a metastatic lesion at T10 causing severe ventral spinal cord compression. He has a life expectancy of 2 years and is an excellent surgical candidate. What is the best management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Dexamethasone and emergent surgical decompression with stabilization
Explanation
According to the Patchell criteria, patients with metastatic spinal cord compression who have a good functional status, an estimated survival >3 months, and an operable tumor benefit more from direct decompressive surgery plus radiation than from radiation alone.
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