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Question 121

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 6-year-old boy complains of localized back pain. Lateral radiographs show complete collapse of the T8 vertebral body (vertebra plana) with preservation of the adjacent disc spaces. The most likely diagnosis is:

. Ewing sarcoma
. Osteosarcoma
. Eosinophilic granuloma
. Aneurysmal bone cyst
. Osteoid osteoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Eosinophilic granuloma


Explanation

Eosinophilic granuloma (Langerhans cell histiocytosis) is a classic cause of vertebra plana in children. The disc spaces are characteristically preserved, unlike in infectious discitis.

Question 122

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 58-year-old man presents with bowel and bladder dysfunction and sacral pain. Imaging shows a large, destructive midline sacral mass. Biopsy reveals physaliferous cells in a myxoid background. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

. Intralesional curettage and bone grafting
. Wide en bloc excision
. Palliative decompression and stabilization
. Radiotherapy alone
. Chemotherapy followed by intralesional resection

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Wide en bloc excision


Explanation

The patient has a sacral chordoma, characterized histologically by physaliferous cells. The gold standard treatment is wide en bloc excision to minimize the high risk of local recurrence.

Question 123

Topic: Soft Tissue Tumors & Metastasis

A 40-year-old man presents with radicular pain. MRI reveals an intradural, extramedullary mass extending through the neural foramen into the extraspinal space, creating a "dumbbell" shape. Histology shows Antoni A and Antoni B tissue patterns. The correct diagnosis is:

. Meningioma
. Schwannoma
. Neurofibroma
. Ependymoma
. Paraganglioma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Schwannoma


Explanation

Schwannomas frequently present as dumbbell-shaped tumors extending through the neural foramen. Histologically, they feature hypercellular Antoni A areas with Verocay bodies and hypocellular Antoni B areas.

Question 124

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 22-year-old woman presents with severe back pain. MRI shows an expansile, multiloculated lytic lesion in the posterior elements of L3 with multiple fluid-fluid levels on T2-weighted sequences. The most likely diagnosis is:

. Aneurysmal bone cyst
. Giant cell tumor
. Osteoblastoma
. Chordoma
. Osteosarcoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Aneurysmal bone cyst


Explanation

Aneurysmal bone cysts (ABCs) typically arise in the posterior elements of the spine in young patients. The presence of fluid-fluid levels on MRI is a hallmark characteristic.

Question 125

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 60-year-old man with a history of renal cell carcinoma presents with acute paraparesis from a T10 metastatic lesion causing spinal cord compression. If surgical decompression is planned, which of the following should ideally precede surgery?

. Neoadjuvant radiation therapy
. Preoperative selective arterial embolization
. Systemic chemotherapy
. High-dose intravenous bisphosphonates
. Radiofrequency ablation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Preoperative selective arterial embolization


Explanation

Renal cell carcinoma and thyroid cancer metastases to the spine are highly vascular. Preoperative selective arterial embolization is strongly recommended to reduce intraoperative blood loss.

Question 126

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

Which of the following represents the most common primary malignant bone tumor of the spine in the adult population?

. Chondrosarcoma
. Osteosarcoma
. Chordoma
. Multiple myeloma
. Ewing sarcoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Multiple myeloma


Explanation

Multiple myeloma is the most common primary malignant bone tumor overall and in the spine for adults. It often presents with lytic, "punched-out" lesions and osteopenia.

Question 127

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 28-year-old man presents with progressive lower extremity weakness. MRI identifies a myxopapillary ependymoma located in the conus medullaris and filum terminale. What is the most important factor in preventing local recurrence?

. Adjuvant chemotherapy
. Gross total unruptured en bloc resection
. Preoperative radiation
. Intraoperative stereotactic radiosurgery
. Prophylactic whole-brain radiation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Gross total unruptured en bloc resection


Explanation

Myxopapillary ependymomas are WHO Grade I tumors. Achieving a gross total unruptured en bloc resection provides the highest cure rate and minimizes the risk of local recurrence and CSF dissemination.

Question 128

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

Which of the following tumor types is most characteristically associated with von Hippel-Lindau (VHL) syndrome when presenting in the spinal cord?

. Hemangioblastoma
. Ependymoma
. Astrocytoma
. Meningioma
. Neurofibroma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hemangioblastoma


Explanation

Hemangioblastomas of the central nervous system, including the spinal cord, are strongly associated with von Hippel-Lindau (VHL) disease. They are highly vascular, benign tumors.

Question 129

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 9-year-old child presents with progressive scoliosis and central nervous system signs. MRI reveals an extensive intramedullary cystic mass expanding the spinal cord from C3 to T2. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Meningioma
. Schwannoma
. Astrocytoma
. Hemangioma
. Chordoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Astrocytoma


Explanation

Astrocytomas are the most common intramedullary spinal cord tumors in children. They are typically eccentric, ill-defined, and frequently associated with tumoral cysts or syringomyelia.

Question 130

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 50-year-old woman with a history of breast cancer presents with thoracic back pain. MRI shows a single vertebral metastasis at T7 with epidural extension causing mild cord compression. Based on the Tokuhashi scoring system, a score of 12 (high score) suggests:

. Life expectancy < 3 months, indicating palliative care only
. Life expectancy < 6 months, indicating decompression without stabilization
. Life expectancy > 1 year, indicating an excisional procedure (corpectomy) is reasonable
. Immediate need for radiation therapy without surgical consideration
. The lesion is benign and observation is warranted

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Life expectancy > 1 year, indicating an excisional procedure (corpectomy) is reasonable


Explanation

In the Tokuhashi scoring system, a high score (12-15) predicts a survival of more than 1 year. In these patients, aggressive excisional surgery (e.g., corpectomy and stabilization) is indicated for isolated metastatic lesions.

Question 131

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 16-year-old male presents with fever and severe low back pain. Imaging shows a permeative, destructive lesion in the L4 vertebral body with a large associated soft-tissue mass. Biopsy reveals small round blue cells that are CD99 positive. The most likely diagnosis is:

. Osteosarcoma
. Ewing sarcoma
. Aneurysmal bone cyst
. Eosinophilic granuloma
. Lymphoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ewing sarcoma


Explanation

Ewing sarcoma typically presents in adolescents with a permeative bony lesion, soft tissue mass, and systemic symptoms. Histologically, it is composed of small round blue cells that stain positive for CD99.

Question 132

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 45-year-old female presents with progressive spastic paraparesis and sensory loss. MRI reveals a well-circumscribed, centrally located, strongly enhancing intramedullary spinal cord lesion at T8 with an associated syrinx. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Astrocytoma
. Ependymoma
. Schwannoma
. Meningioma
. Hemangioblastoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ependymoma


Explanation

Ependymoma is the most common intramedullary spinal cord tumor in adults and typically presents as a centrally located, well-circumscribed, enhancing mass often associated with a syrinx. Gross total resection is often possible due to a distinct cleavage plane.

Question 133

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 6-year-old child presents with torticollis and upper extremity weakness. MRI demonstrates an eccentrically located, ill-defined intramedullary lesion in the cervical spinal cord that expands the cord. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Ependymoma
. Schwannoma
. Astrocytoma
. Chordoma
. Eosinophilic granuloma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Astrocytoma


Explanation

Astrocytomas are the most common intramedullary spinal cord tumors in children. They are typically eccentrically located and ill-defined, making gross total resection difficult compared to ependymomas.

Question 134

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 60-year-old woman presents with thoracic radicular pain. MRI reveals an intradural, extramedullary, homogeneously enhancing mass with a broad base on the dura and a "dural tail". What is the best initial surgical management strategy?

. En bloc spondylectomy
. Stereotactic radiosurgery
. Gross total resection including the dural attachment
. Biopsy and chemotherapy
. Lumbar puncture to rule out infection

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Gross total resection including the dural attachment


Explanation

The clinical and radiographic presentation is classic for a spinal meningioma. The standard of care is gross total surgical resection, which often includes excision or coagulation of the dural attachment to minimize recurrence.

Question 135

Topic: Soft Tissue Tumors & Metastasis

Which of the following histologic findings is most characteristic of a spinal schwannoma?

. Perivascular pseudorosettes
. Physaliferous cells
. Antoni A and Antoni B tissue patterns
. Whorls of spindle cells with psammoma bodies
. Giant cells with prominent nucleoli

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Antoni A and Antoni B tissue patterns


Explanation

Schwannomas are characterized histologically by alternating regions of high cellularity (Antoni A) containing Verocay bodies, and low cellularity (Antoni B). Psammoma bodies are seen in meningiomas, and perivascular pseudorosettes in ependymomas.

Question 136

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 55-year-old man presents with bowel and bladder dysfunction and severe sacral pain. Radiographs reveal a large destructive, midline lytic lesion of the sacrum. Biopsy shows cords of large vacuolated cells (physaliferous cells) in a myxoid background. What is the optimal definitive treatment?

. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy and intralesional curettage
. En bloc wide surgical resection
. Primary external beam radiation
. Radiofrequency ablation
. Denosumab therapy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. En bloc wide surgical resection


Explanation

Chordomas are locally aggressive, chemoresistant, and radioresistant tumors derived from notochordal remnants. The standard of care for achievable cure is en bloc wide surgical excision with negative margins.

Question 137

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 7-year-old boy complains of localized back pain. Radiographs of the thoracic spine show uniform collapse of the T7 vertebral body (vertebra plana) with preservation of the adjacent disc spaces. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Ewing sarcoma
. Langerhans cell histiocytosis
. Osteomyelitis
. Aneurysmal bone cyst
. Osteosarcoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Langerhans cell histiocytosis


Explanation

Langerhans cell histiocytosis (eosinophilic granuloma) is the most common cause of vertebra plana in a child. Adjacent disc spaces are classically preserved, differentiating it from discitis/osteomyelitis.

Question 138

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 16-year-old boy presents with severe thoracic back pain that is worse at night and completely relieved by ibuprofen. CT scan shows a 1 cm radiolucent nidus with surrounding sclerosis in the pedicle of T9. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step if conservative management fails?

. En bloc spondylectomy
. Radiofrequency ablation
. External beam radiation
. Chemotherapy
. Wide local excision

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Radiofrequency ablation


Explanation

The clinical picture is classic for an osteoid osteoma. If conservative management with NSAIDs fails, minimally invasive procedures such as CT-guided radiofrequency ablation (RFA) are the treatment of choice.

Question 139

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

An intradural, extramedullary spinal tumor is resected from the cervical spine of a 40-year-old patient. Pathology demonstrates an encapsulated mass containing spindle-shaped cells arranged in whorls and the presence of calcified concentric structures. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Schwannoma
. Meningioma
. Ependymoma
. Astrocytoma
. Neurofibroma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Meningioma


Explanation

The histologic description of whorled spindle cells and psammoma bodies (calcified concentric structures) is pathognomonic for a meningioma. These typically arise in the intradural, extramedullary space.

Question 140

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 65-year-old man with prostate cancer presents with sudden onset lower extremity weakness and hyperreflexia. MRI shows a metastatic lesion at T10 causing severe ventral spinal cord compression. He has a life expectancy of 2 years and is an excellent surgical candidate. What is the best management?

. Dexamethasone and emergent surgical decompression with stabilization
. Immediate palliative radiotherapy without surgery
. Bisphosphonate therapy only
. High-dose chemotherapy
. Observation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Dexamethasone and emergent surgical decompression with stabilization


Explanation

According to the Patchell criteria, patients with metastatic spinal cord compression who have a good functional status, an estimated survival >3 months, and an operable tumor benefit more from direct decompressive surgery plus radiation than from radiation alone.