Menu

10. Pathology and Oncology MCQs

Practice Set 46 of 351

This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 10. Pathology and Oncology. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.

Question 901

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 12-year-old male presents with chronic knee pain and swelling. Radiographs show an expansile, eccentric lytic lesion in the metaphysis of the distal femur with a thin cortical shell and a 'soap bubble' appearance. MRI reveals multiple fluid-fluid levels within the lesion. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Unicameral Bone Cyst (UBC)
. Giant Cell Tumor (GCT)
. Telangiectatic Osteosarcoma
. Aneurysmal Bone Cyst (ABC)
. Chondroblastoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Aneurysmal Bone Cyst (ABC)

Explanation

Correct Answer: DThe clinical presentation of an expansile, eccentric lytic lesion with a 'soap bubble' appearance on X-ray, combined with the classic MRI finding of fluid-fluid levels, is highly characteristic of an Aneurysmal Bone Cyst (ABC). While Telangiectatic Osteosarcoma can also present with fluid-fluid levels and lytic destruction, ABCs are typically benign and occur in a younger age group, making ABC the most likely primary diagnosis given the typical presentation. Unicameral Bone Cysts are usually centrally located, do not typically have fluid-fluid levels, and are often asymptomatic until fracture. Giant Cell Tumors are typically epiphyseal and occur in skeletally mature individuals. Chondroblastomas are also epiphyseal but have a chondroid matrix.

Question 902

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

Which of the following is considered the gold standard for confirming the diagnosis of an Aneurysmal Bone Cyst (ABC) and differentiating it from other lesions, particularly telangiectatic osteosarcoma?

. Plain Radiographs
. Computed Tomography (CT)
. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
. Biopsy and Histopathological Examination
. Bone Scintigraphy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Biopsy and Histopathological Examination

Explanation

Correct Answer: DWhile imaging modalities such as plain radiographs, CT, and MRI provide characteristic findings (e.g., fluid-fluid levels on MRI), definitive diagnosis and differentiation from malignant mimics like telangiectatic osteosarcoma always require biopsy and histopathological examination. Histology reveals blood-filled spaces separated by fibrous septa containing fibroblasts, inflammatory cells, and multinucleated giant cells, often with reactive woven bone formation. Imaging alone, even with highly suggestive features, cannot definitively rule out malignancy.

Question 903

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

Regarding the pathophysiology of primary Aneurysmal Bone Cyst (ABC), which of the following statements is most accurate?

. It is a true neoplasm with metastatic potential.
. It results from a failure of vascular remodeling during bone development.
. It is a reactive lesion characterized by local hemodynamic disturbance and bone resorption.
. It is an infectious process leading to chronic osteomyelitis.
. It is a hamartomatous malformation of cartilaginous tissue.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. It is a reactive lesion characterized by local hemodynamic disturbance and bone resorption.

Explanation

Correct Answer: CAneurysmal Bone Cyst is widely regarded as a benign, locally aggressive, reactive lesion characterized by local hemodynamic disturbance and rapid bone resorption. While a specific chromosomal translocation (t(16;17)(q22;p13)) involving the USP6 gene has been identified in a significant proportion of primary ABCs, suggesting a neoplastic component, it is generally considered a reactive lesion and not a true neoplasm with metastatic potential. It is not infectious or a hamartoma of cartilage.

Question 904

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 10-year-old child presents with an expansile lesion of the proximal humerus. Biopsy confirms an Aneurysmal Bone Cyst. The lesion is large, involves the metaphysis, and has thinned the cortex significantly but without clear pathological fracture. What is the generally preferred surgical treatment strategy for such an accessible lesion?

. En bloc resection with wide margins.
. Curettage with high-speed burr and adjuvant therapy (e.g., cryotherapy, phenol).
. Observation with serial imaging.
. Systemic chemotherapy.
. Primary selective arterial embolization only.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Curettage with high-speed burr and adjuvant therapy (e.g., cryotherapy, phenol).

Explanation

Correct Answer: BFor most accessible Aneurysmal Bone Cysts, the standard surgical treatment is thorough intralesional curettage, often performed with a high-speed burr, followed by adjuvant therapy. Adjuvants like cryotherapy (liquid nitrogen), phenol, or argon beam coagulation are used to destroy residual cells in the cyst wall, thereby reducing recurrence rates. En bloc resection is typically reserved for lesions in expendable bones, aggressively recurrent lesions, or those in critical locations where intralesional treatment is insufficient or carries high risk. Observation is not appropriate for an actively symptomatic and growing lesion. Chemotherapy is not indicated. While selective arterial embolization can be used pre-operatively to reduce bleeding or as a primary treatment for inaccessible lesions, it is not the generally preferred primary surgical strategy for an accessible long bone lesion.

Question 905

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

Which specific gene rearrangement has been identified in a significant number of primary Aneurysmal Bone Cysts and is considered a molecular marker for the lesion?

. EWSR1-FLI1 fusion
. BCR-ABL translocation
. USP6 rearrangement
. MDM2 amplification
. COL1A1-PDGFB fusion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. USP6 rearrangement

Explanation

Correct Answer: CThe USP6 (ubiquitin specific peptidase 6) gene rearrangement, often involving its promoter region, has been identified in the majority of primary Aneurysmal Bone Cysts. This rearrangement leads to overexpression of USP6, which is thought to drive the characteristic osteolytic and vascular changes of ABC. EWSR1-FLI1 is associated with Ewing sarcoma, BCR-ABL with chronic myeloid leukemia, MDM2 amplification with parosteal osteosarcoma or atypical lipomatous tumor, and COL1A1-PDGFB with dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans.

Question 906

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 15-year-old female presents with progressive low back pain and unilateral lower extremity weakness. MRI reveals an expansile lytic lesion involving the L3 vertebral body, causing significant spinal canal compromise, and demonstrating fluid-fluid levels. Biopsy confirms Aneurysmal Bone Cyst. What is the immediate management priority?

. Initiate sclerotherapy with polidocanol.
. Schedule elective surgical curettage and bone grafting.
. Perform urgent surgical decompression and stabilization.
. Administer systemic corticosteroids to reduce edema.
. Arrange for pre-operative selective arterial embolization.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Perform urgent surgical decompression and stabilization.

Explanation

Correct Answer: CIn a patient with an Aneurysmal Bone Cyst causing significant neurological deficit due to spinal canal compromise, urgent surgical decompression and stabilization are the immediate priorities. The neurological status dictates the urgency. While selective arterial embolization can be beneficial pre-operatively to reduce blood loss, and surgical curettage/bone grafting are definitive treatments, addressing the neurological compromise is paramount to prevent irreversible damage. Sclerotherapy and corticosteroids are not primary treatments for acute neurological deficits from spinal ABCs.

Question 907

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

Which benign bone lesion is most commonly associated with a secondary Aneurysmal Bone Cyst (ABC)?

. Enchondroma
. Fibrous Dysplasia
. Osteochondroma
. Unicameral Bone Cyst (UBC)
. Giant Cell Tumor (GCT)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Giant Cell Tumor (GCT)

Explanation

Correct Answer: EAneurysmal Bone Cysts can be primary (arising de novo) or secondary (arising within another pre-existing bone lesion). While several lesions can underlie a secondary ABC, Giant Cell Tumor (GCT) is one of the most common associated benign bone tumors. Others include chondroblastoma, fibrous dysplasia, osteoblastoma, and unicameral bone cyst, but GCT is particularly noted for this association and can complicate diagnosis due to overlapping histologic features.

Question 908

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

When performing curettage for an Aneurysmal Bone Cyst, what is the primary purpose of using adjuvant therapies like cryotherapy (liquid nitrogen)?

. To induce osteogenesis and facilitate bone healing.
. To reduce intraoperative blood loss.
. To destroy residual tumor cells and reduce local recurrence rates.
. To stimulate a localized immune response.
. To provide immediate structural stability to the treated bone.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. To destroy residual tumor cells and reduce local recurrence rates.

Explanation

Correct Answer: CAdjuvant therapies such as cryotherapy, phenol, or argon beam coagulation are utilized after thorough curettage to destroy any remaining microscopic tumor cells in the cyst wall that may have been missed by mechanical debridement. This significantly reduces the local recurrence rate, which can be high with curettage alone. These adjuvants do not primarily induce osteogenesis, reduce blood loss, stimulate an immune response, or provide structural stability.

Question 909

Topic: Bone Tumors

A patient undergoes selective arterial embolization for a large, inaccessible Aneurysmal Bone Cyst in the sacrum. What is the primary mechanism by which embolization achieves its therapeutic effect?

. Direct toxic effect of the embolizing agent on bone cells.
. Ischemic necrosis of the cyst wall due to reduced blood supply.
. Mechanical obliteration of the cyst cavity.
. Stimulation of osteoblast activity within the lesion.
. Modulation of the local immune response against the cyst.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ischemic necrosis of the cyst wall due to reduced blood supply.

Explanation

Correct Answer: BSelective arterial embolization primarily works by cutting off the blood supply to the highly vascularized Aneurysmal Bone Cyst, leading to ischemic necrosis of the cyst wall and eventual thrombosis of the vascular channels. This can cause the lesion to shrink, become less painful, and sometimes resolve completely, especially in inaccessible locations or as a pre-operative measure to reduce intraoperative bleeding. The embolizing agents are not directly toxic to bone cells in a therapeutic manner; their effect is vascular occlusion.

Question 910

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 30-year-old male presents with a painful mass in his distal femur. Biopsy reveals high-grade osteosarcoma. Imaging, including MRI, shows the tumor is contained within the bone, but there is significant cortical thinning and a prominent periosteal reaction. There are no skip lesions or distant metastases identified. According to Enneking's staging system for malignant tumors, what is the correct stage?
. Stage IA
. Stage IB
. Stage IIA
. Stage IIB
. Stage III

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Stage IIA

Explanation

The patient has a high-grade osteosarcoma, which corresponds to a G2 (high histological grade) tumor. The imaging shows the tumor is contained within the bone, despite cortical thinning and periosteal reaction, indicating it is intracompartmental (T1). There are no distant metastases (M0). Therefore, a G2, T1, M0 classification corresponds to Enneking Stage IIA. Stage IA is for low-grade (G1) intracompartmental (T1) tumors. Stage IB is for low-grade (G1) extracompartmental (T2) tumors. Stage IIB is for high-grade (G2) extracompartmental (T2) tumors. Stage III is for any malignant tumor with distant metastases (M1).

Question 911

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 15-year-old male presents with a rapidly enlarging, painful mass in his proximal tibia. Radiographs and MRI reveal an aggressive lytic lesion with significant cortical destruction and a large associated soft tissue mass. Biopsy confirms an aneurysmal bone cyst (ABC). Given its aggressive local behavior, what is the appropriate Enneking benign tumor stage?

. Stage 1 (Latent)
. Stage 2 (Active)
. Stage 3 (Aggressive)
. Stage 4 (Malignant transformation)
. Benign tumors are not staged by Enneking

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Stage 3 (Aggressive)

Explanation

Correct Answer: CEnneking's staging system for benign tumors classifies them based on their local biological behavior. Stage 3 (Aggressive) tumors are characterized by rapid, destructive growth, often with cortical breakthrough, significant soft tissue extension, and a high propensity for local recurrence. The description of a rapidly enlarging, painful mass with significant cortical destruction and a large soft tissue component in an ABC fits the criteria for an aggressive (Stage 3) benign tumor.Option A (Stage 1 - Latent):These are typically asymptomatic, well-defined lesions with a sclerotic rim, showing no active growth (e.g., non-ossifying fibroma, osteoid osteoma).Option B (Stage 2 - Active):These tumors show active growth, often with cortical thinning or expansion, but are generally contained by the periosteum and do not exhibit the rapid, destructive extraosseous extension seen in Stage 3 (e.g., some giant cell tumors, symptomatic enchondromas).Option D (Stage 4 - Malignant transformation):This is not a standard Enneking benign stage. While benign lesions can rarely undergo malignant transformation, this would then be staged as a malignant tumor.Option E (Benign tumors are not staged by Enneking):This is incorrect; Enneking developed a specific staging system for benign musculoskeletal tumors.

Question 912

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A surgeon performs an en bloc resection for a low-grade chondrosarcoma of the ilium. The goal was to achieve a wide surgical margin. Post-operative pathological examination of the resected specimen reveals tumor cells present at the outermost inked surface of the pseudocapsule, but no tumor cells are found in the surrounding healthy bone or muscle tissue beyond this reactive zone. Which Enneking surgical margin best describes the outcome achieved?

. Intralesional
. Marginal
. Wide
. Radical
. Contaminated

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Marginal

Explanation

Correct Answer: BA marginal excision (or marginal margin) is defined as a plane of dissection that passes through the reactive zone or pseudocapsule surrounding the tumor. This means that while the macroscopic tumor may appear to be removed, microscopic tumor cells may be left behind within the reactive zone or at the margin of the pseudocapsule, as described in the vignette. A positive inked margin, where tumor cells are found at the edge of the specimen, is characteristic of a marginal excision.Option A (Intralesional):An intralesional margin implies that the plane of dissection passes directly through the tumor itself, leaving gross (macroscopic) tumor behind.Option C (Wide):A wide surgical margin involves removing the tumor with a cuff of healthy, uninvolved tissue outside the reactive zone, aiming for a microscopically negative margin. The presence of tumor cells at the inked margin contradicts a wide excision.Option D (Radical):A radical excision involves removing the entire anatomical compartment containing the tumor.Option E (Contaminated):While a marginal excision can lead to microscopic contamination, 'contaminated' is not a formal Enneking surgical margin classification. The most precise term for tumor cells at the pseudocapsule margin is 'marginal'.

Question 913

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 55-year-old male presents with a rapidly growing, painful mass in his proximal thigh. Biopsy confirms a high-grade undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma. Staging workup, including a PET-CT scan, reveals multiple metabolically active pulmonary nodules consistent with distant metastases. What is the Enneking stage for this malignant tumor?
. Stage IA
. Stage IB
. Stage IIA
. Stage IIB
. Stage III

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Stage III

Explanation

The Enneking Musculoskeletal Tumor Society (MSTS) staging system for malignant tumors incorporates three factors: Grade (G), Local Extent (T), and Metastasis (M). The presence of distant metastases (M1) automatically classifies any malignant tumor as Stage III, regardless of its histological grade or local extent. In this case, the patient has pulmonary metastases, which signifies M1, thus placing the tumor in Stage III.

Question 914

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

An 8-year-old female undergoes a routine radiograph of her knee for a minor sports injury. The radiograph incidentally reveals a well-circumscribed, sclerotic lesion in the distal femoral metaphysis. She is completely asymptomatic, and the lesion has been stable on previous imaging. What is the most appropriate Enneking benign tumor stage for this lesion?

. Stage 1 (Latent)
. Stage 2 (Active)
. Stage 3 (Aggressive)
. Stage 0 (Quiescent)
. Benign lesions are not staged if asymptomatic

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Stage 1 (Latent)

Explanation

Correct Answer: AEnneking Stage 1 (Latent) benign tumors are characterized by slow or no growth, are typically asymptomatic or mildly symptomatic, and are surrounded by a mature reactive rim or sclerotic bone, indicating effective host containment. The description of a well-circumscribed, sclerotic, asymptomatic, and stable lesion perfectly fits the criteria for a Stage 1 (Latent) benign tumor. Common examples include non-ossifying fibromas (fibrous cortical defects), osteoid osteomas, and unicameral bone cysts.Option B (Stage 2 - Active):These tumors show evidence of local progression, such as cortical thinning or expansion, and are often symptomatic, but remain contained within the periosteum.Option C (Stage 3 - Aggressive):These tumors exhibit rapid, destructive growth, often with cortical breakthrough and soft tissue extension, and have a high risk of local recurrence.Option D (Stage 0 - Quiescent):This is not a standard Enneking benign tumor stage.Option E (Benign lesions are not staged if asymptomatic):This is incorrect; Enneking staging applies to all musculoskeletal tumors, and asymptomatic lesions are typically Stage 1.

Question 915

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 45-year-old patient presents with a large, high-grade osteosarcoma involving the entire distal femur, extending into the knee joint, and encasing the neurovascular bundle. Due to the extensive involvement and inability to achieve clear margins with limb salvage, the surgical team decides to perform an above-knee amputation . Which Enneking surgical margin was achieved with this procedure?

. Intralesional
. Marginal
. Wide
. Radical
. Compartmental

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Radical

Explanation

Correct Answer: DA radical excision, according to Enneking's classification, involves the removal of the entire anatomical compartment containing the tumor. For a tumor of the distal femur, an above-knee amputation effectively removes the entire femoral compartment (including the bone, muscles, and associated soft tissues), thereby achieving a radical margin. This approach aims to ensure the highest likelihood of local tumor control by removing all tissue within the involved compartment.Option A (Intralesional):This involves passing through the tumor itself, leaving gross tumor behind.Option B (Marginal):This involves passing through the reactive zone or pseudocapsule, potentially leaving microscopic tumor behind.Option C (Wide):This involves removing the tumor with a cuff of healthy tissue outside the reactive zone, aiming for microscopically clear margins, but does not necessarily remove the entire compartment.Option E (Compartmental):While a radical excision is compartmental, 'compartmental' itself is not a distinct Enneking surgical margin term; 'radical' is the specific classification.

Question 916

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 16-year-old patient is diagnosed with a high-grade osteosarcoma of the proximal tibia. The Enneking MSTS staging system is used to guide treatment and predict prognosis. When considering the long-term prognosis for this patient, which component of the Enneking staging system carries the most significant negative prognostic implication for overall survival?
. Tumor grade (G2)
. Extracompartmental extent (T2)
. Presence of skip lesions
. Presence of distant metastases (M1)
. Tumor size

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Presence of distant metastases (M1)

Explanation

In the Enneking Musculoskeletal Tumor Society (MSTS) staging system for malignant tumors, the presence of distant metastases (M1) is universally recognized as the single most significant negative prognostic factor for overall survival. Patients with metastatic disease (Stage III) have a drastically reduced survival rate compared to those without metastases, regardless of the tumor's grade or local extent. While high grade (G2) and extracompartmental extent (T2) are also poor prognostic indicators, they do not carry the same weight as distant spread.

Question 917

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 40-year-old male presents with a low-grade chondrosarcoma of the proximal humerus. An MRI is performed for local staging. The MRI images clearly demonstrate that the tumor is entirely confined to the medullary canal of the humerus, with no evidence of cortical breach, periosteal involvement, or soft tissue extension. According to Enneking's local extent (T) classification for malignant bone tumors, what is the correct T-stage?

. T0
. T1
. T2
. T3
. Not applicable, T-stage is only for soft tissue sarcomas

Correct Answer & Explanation

. T1

Explanation

Correct Answer: BIn the Enneking staging system for malignant tumors, the 'T' component (local extent) differentiates between intracompartmental and extracompartmental disease. T1 signifies an intracompartmental tumor, meaning it is confined within the anatomical compartment of origin. For a bone tumor, this means it is contained within the bone itself, without breaching the cortex or extending into the surrounding soft tissues. The description of the tumor being entirely confined to the medullary canal with no cortical breach or soft tissue extension perfectly fits the definition of T1.Option A (T0):T0 is not a standard Enneking T-stage for malignant tumors.Option C (T2):T2 signifies an extracompartmental tumor, meaning it has extended beyond its anatomical compartment, such as breaching the cortex and extending into surrounding soft tissues, or the presence of skip lesions.Option D (T3):T3 is not a standard Enneking T-stage for malignant tumors.Option E (Not applicable, T-stage is only for soft tissue sarcomas):This is incorrect; the T-stage is a critical component of Enneking's staging for both bone and soft tissue sarcomas.

Question 918

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 25-year-old female presents with a recurrent aggressive giant cell tumor (GCT) of the proximal tibia. Imaging shows significant cortical destruction, a large soft tissue component, and evidence of rapid local progression. This lesion is classified as an Enneking Stage 3 (Aggressive) benign tumor. What type of surgical margin is generally recommended to achieve local control for such a lesion?

. Intralesional curettage only
. Marginal excision with adjuvant therapy
. Wide excision
. Palliative debulking
. Observation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Wide excision

Explanation

Correct Answer: CEnneking Stage 3 (Aggressive) benign tumors, such as aggressive giant cell tumors with cortical destruction and soft tissue extension, behave in a locally destructive manner, often mimicking low-grade malignancies. They have a high propensity for local recurrence if treated with less aggressive methods. Therefore, a wide surgical excision, aiming for a microscopically clear margin through healthy tissue, is generally recommended to achieve adequate local control and minimize recurrence risk for these aggressive benign lesions. While adjuvant therapies (like cryotherapy or phenol) are often used with intralesional curettage for Stage 2 GCTs, for Stage 3 lesions with significant extraosseous extension, a more definitive wide excision is preferred.Option A (Intralesional curettage only):This is typically used for Stage 1 or Stage 2 benign tumors, but would have an unacceptably high recurrence rate for a Stage 3 aggressive lesion.Option B (Marginal excision with adjuvant therapy):While marginal excision is more aggressive than intralesional, for a Stage 3 tumor with significant soft tissue extension, a wide margin is often necessary to ensure complete removal.Option D (Palliative debulking):This is not a primary goal for a resectable aggressive benign tumor where local control is achievable.Option E (Observation):Observation is inappropriate for an aggressive, symptomatic, and destructive lesion.

Question 919

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 16-year-old patient with a Stage IIB osteosarcoma of the distal femur completes neoadjuvant chemotherapy. Post-treatment imaging shows excellent tumor necrosis (estimated 95% necrosis on biopsy of the resected specimen). What is the *primary* implication of this excellent response to neoadjuvant chemotherapy for the planned definitive surgical margin?

. An intralesional margin is now acceptable due to good response.
. A marginal margin is sufficient given the high necrosis.
. The requirement for a wide surgical margin remains unchanged.
. A radical margin is always preferred regardless of necrosis.
. The tumor is now considered benign, altering margin goals.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The requirement for a wide surgical margin remains unchanged.

Explanation

Correct Answer: CWhile an excellent response to neoadjuvant chemotherapy (high percentage of tumor necrosis) is a very positive prognostic indicator for overall survival in high-grade sarcomas like osteosarcoma, it does not typically change thetypeof surgical margin required for local control. For a high-grade malignant tumor (G2), the goal remains to achieve a wide surgical margin, meaning resection through healthy, uninvolved tissue outside the reactive zone. Even with significant necrosis, microscopic residual tumor cells can persist, and an inadequate margin (intralesional or marginal) would still carry an unacceptably high risk of local recurrence.Option A (An intralesional margin is now acceptable):This is incorrect. Intralesional margins are never acceptable for high-grade sarcomas due to high recurrence rates.Option B (A marginal margin is sufficient):This is incorrect. Marginal margins are associated with higher local recurrence rates for high-grade sarcomas, even with good chemotherapy response.Option D (A radical margin is always preferred):While radical margins offer the highest local control, they are often associated with significant morbidity (e.g., amputation). The goal is to achieve a wide margin, and radical is reserved when wide cannot be achieved with limb salvage.Option E (The tumor is now considered benign):This is incorrect. Chemotherapy induces necrosis but does not change the malignant nature of the tumor.

Question 920

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 25-year-old male presents with severe pain and a mass in his distal radius. Radiographs show a lytic, eccentrically placed epiphyseal-metaphyseal lesion with cortical destruction and soft tissue extension. Biopsy confirms a giant cell tumor of bone. There are no lung metastases. According to the Enneking staging system for benign tumors, what is the appropriate stage?

. Stage 1
. Stage 2
. Stage 3
. Stage IA
. Stage IIB

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Stage 3

Explanation

Enneking Stage 3 describes aggressive benign tumors demonstrating cortical destruction and soft tissue extension. Stage 1 is latent, and Stage 2 is active but contained within the bony compartment.

Test Yourself

Switch to an interactive, timed exam simulation to truly master this topic.

On this Page