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Question 6601

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 50-year-old female presents with recurrent kidney stones and bone pain. Radiographs show an expansile, multiloculated lytic lesion in her third metacarpal. Biopsy reveals multinucleated giant cells clustered in a highly vascular, fibroblastic stroma with extensive hemosiderin deposition. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Ray amputation of the third digit
. Evaluation of serum calcium, phosphorus, and parathyroid hormone levels
. Administration of denosumab
. Wide surgical resection and reconstruction
. Intralesional curettage, phenolization, and bone grafting

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Evaluation of serum calcium, phosphorus, and parathyroid hormone levels


Explanation

The clinical presentation and histology (giant cells, hemosiderin) are highly suggestive of a Brown tumor associated with hyperparathyroidism. The correct next step is to evaluate her serum calcium and PTH levels to confirm the diagnosis, as treatment is directed at correcting the hyperparathyroidism, not primary bone resection.

Question 6602

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 70-year-old man is newly diagnosed with multiple myeloma. Which of the following serum markers is considered the most significant independent prognostic factor for survival in this disease?

. Serum calcium level
. Beta-2 microglobulin
. Alkaline phosphatase
. C-reactive protein
. Monoclonal spike amplitude on SPEP

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Beta-2 microglobulin


Explanation

Serum Beta-2 microglobulin is the single most powerful and reliable independent prognostic factor for survival in multiple myeloma. It is used alongside serum albumin to stage the disease according to the International Staging System (ISS).

Question 6603

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 30-year-old male is evaluated for a minor knee sprain. Incidentally, plain radiographs reveal multiple small, symmetric, well-defined circular sclerotic foci clustered in the periarticular regions of the distal femur and proximal tibia. He has no prior medical history. Which genetic mutation is most commonly associated with this benign condition?

. GNAS mutation
. LEMD3 mutation
. MAP2K1 mutation
. SQSTM1 mutation
. COL1A1 mutation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. LEMD3 mutation


Explanation

This radiographic appearance is pathognomonic for Osteopoikilosis (spotted bone disease). It is a benign, autosomal dominant sclerosing bone dysplasia caused by a loss-of-function mutation in the LEMD3 gene, which is also associated with Buschke-Ollendorff syndrome.

Question 6604

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 68-year-old man presents with severe lower back pain, fatigue, and recent onset of renal impairment. Radiographs demonstrate multiple sharply marginated "punched-out" lytic lesions in the skull and spine.

Which of the following is most commonly detected in the urine of patients with this condition?

. Bence Jones proteins
. Alkaline phosphatase
. Calcium pyrophosphate crystals
. Homogentisic acid
. Procollagen type I N-terminal propeptide

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Bence Jones proteins


Explanation

Multiple myeloma is characterized by the neoplastic proliferation of plasma cells, which frequently secrete monoclonal immunoglobulin light chains. These free light chains are filtered by the kidneys and can be detected in the urine as Bence Jones proteins.

Question 6605

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 55-year-old man undergoes a biopsy of a solitary lytic lesion in the T10 vertebral body, which confirms a solitary bone plasmacytoma. A bone marrow biopsy shows less than 5% plasma cells, and a skeletal survey is otherwise negative. What is the approximate probability that this condition will progress to multiple myeloma within 10 years?

. 10%
. 25%
. 50%
. 85%
. 100%

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 85%


Explanation

Solitary bone plasmacytomas have a high rate of progression to systemic multiple myeloma. Studies demonstrate that approximately 85% of patients with a solitary bone plasmacytoma will progress to multiple myeloma within 10 years.

Question 6606

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 15-year-old boy presents with shoulder pain after a minor fall. Radiographs show an expansile, eccentric lytic lesion in the proximal humeral metaphysis. Biopsy reveals blood-filled spaces lacking a true endothelial lining, interspersed with fibrous septa containing giant cells. Which genetic translocation is highly specific for this primary lesion?

. t(11;22)
. t(X;18)
. t(16;17) involving the USP6 gene
. t(2;13)
. t(12;16)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(16;17) involving the USP6 gene


Explanation

Primary aneurysmal bone cysts (ABCs) are neoplastic processes characterized by recurrent translocations involving the USP6 gene, most commonly t(16;17). This leads to USP6 upregulation, which drives the cystic and expansile growth.

Question 6607

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 25-year-old woman presents with a Shepherd's crook deformity of the proximal femur. Radiographs display a large intramedullary lesion with a "ground-glass" appearance. She is diagnosed with fibrous dysplasia, which is caused by a somatic activating mutation in the GNAS gene. What is the direct intracellular consequence of this mutation?

. Decreased intracellular cAMP levels
. Increased intracellular cAMP levels
. Decreased intracellular cGMP levels
. Abnormal tyrosine kinase receptor activation
. Inhibition of the Wnt/beta-catenin pathway

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increased intracellular cAMP levels


Explanation

The GNAS gene encodes the alpha subunit of the stimulatory G protein (Gs). A mutation causes constitutive activation of adenylate cyclase, leading to persistently increased levels of intracellular cyclic AMP (cAMP), which disrupts normal osteoblast differentiation.

Question 6608

Topic: Bone Tumors

An 18-year-old male complains of deep, aching pain in his right thigh that is worse at night and dramatically relieved by ibuprofen. Radiographs reveal a 1 cm radiolucent nidus surrounded by intense reactive sclerosis in the femoral diaphysis. What is the most common anatomic location for this type of lesion?

. Proximal femur
. Distal tibia
. Posterior elements of the spine
. Phalanges of the hand
. Pelvis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Proximal femur


Explanation

The clinical presentation and radiographic findings are classic for an osteoid osteoma. More than 50% of osteoid osteomas occur in the long bones of the lower extremity, with the proximal femur being the most common specific anatomic location.

Question 6609

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 15-year-old boy presents with progressive, worsening pain and swelling around his knee. Radiographs reveal a destructive lesion in the distal femoral metaphysis with a "sunburst" periosteal reaction and a Codman triangle. Biopsy confirms conventional high-grade osteosarcoma. What is the current standard of care for this patient?

. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy, followed by wide surgical resection, then adjuvant chemotherapy
. Wide surgical resection alone
. Radiation therapy followed by wide surgical resection
. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy combined with definitive radiation therapy
. Immediate above-knee amputation without chemotherapy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy, followed by wide surgical resection, then adjuvant chemotherapy


Explanation

The standard of care for conventional high-grade osteosarcoma consists of multiagent neoadjuvant chemotherapy, followed by definitive limb-sparing wide surgical resection, and concluding with adjuvant chemotherapy. Osteosarcoma is generally radioresistant.

Question 6610

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 12-year-old boy presents with fever, weight loss, and severe pain in his leg. Radiographs reveal a permeative, destructive lesion in the tibial diaphysis with a multi-layered "onion-skin" periosteal reaction. Cytogenetics demonstrate a t(11;22) translocation. Which immunohistochemical marker is characteristically strongly positive in this tumor?

. CD99 (MIC2)
. Cytokeratin
. S100 protein
. CD34
. Desmin

Correct Answer & Explanation

. CD99 (MIC2)


Explanation

The diagnosis is Ewing sarcoma, characterized by the t(11;22) translocation forming the EWS-FLI1 fusion protein. Immunohistochemically, Ewing sarcoma cells typically display strong, diffuse membranous staining for CD99 (also known as MIC2).

Question 6611

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 10-year-old asymptomatic boy has a knee radiograph taken after a minor contusion. The imaging reveals an incidental eccentric, lobulated, bubbly radiolucent lesion with a well-defined sclerotic margin located in the distal femoral metaphysis, measuring 2 cm in length. What is the most appropriate management?

. Intralesional curettage and bone grafting
. Prophylactic internal fixation
. Observation and reassurance
. Radiofrequency ablation
. Core needle biopsy to rule out malignancy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Observation and reassurance


Explanation

The radiographic appearance is classic for a non-ossifying fibroma (NOF). Since the lesion is small, asymptomatic, and does not pose a significant risk of fracture, the best management is observation and reassurance, as these lesions spontaneously ossify and resolve during skeletal maturity.

Question 6612

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 7-year-old boy presents with mid-back pain. Radiographs reveal the complete collapse of the T8 vertebral body, appearing as a thin dense line ("vertebra plana"), with adjacent discs maintained. Biopsy reveals cells containing tennis-racket-shaped Birbeck granules on electron microscopy. Which immunohistochemical stain is classically positive in this disease?

. CD1a
. CD20
. Vimentin
. Smooth muscle actin
. Epithelial Membrane Antigen (EMA)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. CD1a


Explanation

The diagnosis is Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis (Eosinophilic Granuloma). The pathological Langerhans cells characteristically express CD1a and S-100 on immunohistochemistry, and feature distinctive Birbeck granules on electron microscopy.

Question 6613

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 55-year-old man presents with a 6-month history of dull shoulder pain. Radiographs show a large lytic lesion in the proximal humerus with intralesional "popcorn" and "ring-and-arc" calcifications. MRI demonstrates endosteal scalloping involving more than 2/3 of the cortical thickness. Biopsy confirms conventional grade II chondrosarcoma. What is the mainstay of treatment?
. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by wide resection
. Wide surgical resection with negative margins
. Definitive external beam radiation therapy
. Intralesional curettage followed by polymethylmethacrylate (PMMA) cementing
. Targeted molecular therapy with an IDH1 inhibitor

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Wide surgical resection with negative margins


Explanation

Conventional intermediate to high-grade (Grade II/III) chondrosarcomas are generally resistant to both chemotherapy and radiation. Therefore, the gold standard of treatment is wide surgical resection with negative margins to prevent local recurrence.

Question 6614

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 65-year-old woman presents with isolated right hip pain. Radiographs demonstrate a single 5 cm lytic lesion in the right ilium.

A biopsy confirms monoclonal plasma cells. Comprehensive staging, including a bone marrow biopsy, reveals less than 5% clonal plasma cells elsewhere, and no end-organ damage. What is the preferred primary treatment for this condition?

. Definitive local radiation therapy
. Systemic multi-agent chemotherapy
. Wide surgical excision with endoprosthetic reconstruction
. Hindquarter amputation
. Observation with serial skeletal surveys

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Definitive local radiation therapy


Explanation

The diagnosis is a solitary bone plasmacytoma. Because plasma cells are highly radiosensitive, the primary treatment of choice for a solitary bone plasmacytoma is definitive local external beam radiation therapy, which offers excellent local control.

Question 6615

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 3-year-old boy presents with painless anterior bowing of the tibia. Radiographs demonstrate multiple intracortical osteolytic lesions in the anterior tibial diaphysis. Biopsy reveals a bland fibroblastic stroma with spicules of woven bone rimmed by active osteoblasts. This specific condition is closely related to, and can occasionally be a precursor for, which of the following malignant tumors?

. Osteosarcoma
. Ewing sarcoma
. Adamantinoma
. Chondrosarcoma
. Fibrosarcoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Adamantinoma


Explanation

The clinical presentation and histology are characteristic of osteofibrous dysplasia (Campanacci disease). This condition almost exclusively affects the tibia and is considered closely related to adamantinoma, a low-grade malignant tumor that can sometimes develop from or coexist with these lesions.

Question 6616

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 60-year-old woman with a known history of multiple myeloma presents with progressive thigh pain with weight-bearing. Radiographs show a 3.5 cm lytic lesion in the peritrochanteric region of the femur involving greater than 50% of the cortical diameter.

What is her Mirels score, and what is the most appropriate management?

. Score 7; radiation therapy and bisphosphonates
. Score 8; protected weight-bearing and observation
. Score 10; prophylactic internal fixation
. Score 11; prophylactic internal fixation
. Score 12; wide resection and endoprosthetic reconstruction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Score 11; prophylactic internal fixation


Explanation

The Mirels score is 11 (Site: Lower extremity = 2, Pain: Functional = 3, Lesion: Lytic = 3, Size: >2/3 cortical diameter = 3). A score greater than or equal to 9 indicates a high risk of fracture, warranting prophylactic internal fixation.

Question 6617

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 70-year-old male with new-onset back pain is diagnosed with multiple myeloma after radiographs demonstrate diffuse osteopenia and punched-out lytic lesions in his lumbar spine.

Which of the following laboratory values is considered the most significant independent prognostic indicator for overall survival in this patient?

. Serum calcium level
. Hemoglobin concentration
. Serum beta-2 microglobulin level
. Serum M-protein spike amplitude
. Urinary Bence-Jones protein level

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Serum beta-2 microglobulin level


Explanation

Serum beta-2 microglobulin reflects both tumor burden and renal function. It is widely considered the most powerful independent prognostic factor for survival in multiple myeloma.

Question 6618

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 62-year-old male presents with acute kidney injury, hypercalcemia, and a lytic lesion in his right humerus. Serum protein electrophoresis shows a monoclonal spike. A diagnosis of multiple myeloma is suspected.

What is the most common underlying mechanism for renal failure in this patient population?

. Direct infiltration of the renal parenchyma by malignant plasma cells
. Precipitation of monoclonal light chains in the distal renal tubules
. Deposition of AL amyloid in the renal glomeruli
. Nephrotoxicity from elevated serum calcium levels
. Formation of uric acid calculi secondary to high tumor turnover

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Precipitation of monoclonal light chains in the distal renal tubules


Explanation

The most common cause of renal failure in multiple myeloma is "myeloma kidney" (cast nephropathy). This results from the precipitation of toxic monoclonal free light chains (Bence-Jones proteins) in the distal tubules.

Question 6619

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 50-year-old male presents with isolated back pain. Imaging demonstrates a single osteolytic lesion in the L3 vertebral body. Biopsy confirms a monoclonal proliferation of plasma cells, but bone marrow aspirate shows only 2% plasma cells. Whole-body MRI reveals no other skeletal lesions. What is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient?

. High-dose chemotherapy with autologous stem cell transplant
. Localized external beam radiation therapy
. Observation with serial skeletal surveys
. Bisphosphonate therapy alone
. Wide en bloc resection of the L3 vertebra

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Localized external beam radiation therapy


Explanation

The patient has a Solitary Plasmacytoma of Bone (SPB). The standard of care is localized external beam radiation therapy, which is highly effective and often locally curative, although many patients eventually progress to multiple myeloma.

Question 6620

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 45-year-old female presents with persistent, deep right shoulder pain. Radiographs reveal a 5 cm radiolucent lesion with stippled calcifications in the proximal humerus. MRI shows endosteal scalloping involving 80% of the cortical thickness. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Enchondroma
. Bone infarct
. Low-grade chondrosarcoma
. Chondroblastoma
. Osteosarcoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Low-grade chondrosarcoma


Explanation

Endosteal scalloping greater than two-thirds of the cortical thickness and the presence of pain in a large proximal long bone lesion strongly suggest low-grade chondrosarcoma over an enchondroma.