This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 10. Pathology and Oncology. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 6561
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 10-year-old boy with a history of DEH of the ankle develops worsening pain. Serial radiographs are obtained. Which of the following is true regarding the risk of malignant transformation in DEH?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Malignant transformation is exceedingly rare and almost non-existent.
Explanation
Unlike Multiple Hereditary Exostoses, which carries a known risk of malignant transformation to chondrosarcoma, malignant transformation in DEH is virtually non-existent.
Question 6562
Topic: Bone Tumors
A 6-year-old child presents with a painless, restricted range of motion in the right ankle. An MRI is ordered to evaluate a suspected Dysplasia Epiphysealis Hemimelica (DEH) lesion of the talus. Which of the following MRI findings is most characteristic of this pathology?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Continuity of the lesion's cartilage cap with the native epiphyseal cartilage.
Explanation
On MRI, a DEH lesion demonstrates continuity of its cartilaginous cap with the native articular epiphyseal cartilage. This contrasts with an osteochondroma, which arises from the metaphysis and shows continuity with the metaphyseal medullary cavity.
Question 6563
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 9-year-old male with known Dysplasia Epiphysealis Hemimelica (DEH) of the distal femur presents for a routine follow-up. The parents inquire about the long-term growth behavior of the lesion. Which of the following best describes the natural history of the mass in DEH?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. It grows proportionally with the child and ceases growing at skeletal maturity.
Explanation
DEH lesions grow proportionally with the child's skeletal growth and typically cease enlarging once skeletal maturity (physis closure) is reached. Malignant transformation is exceedingly rare.
Question 6564
Topic: Bone Tumors
A 5-year-old boy undergoes an excisional biopsy of an irregular, hard mass protruding from the medial distal tibial epiphysis. The histopathology report indicates mature trabecular bone covered by a hyaline cartilage cap undergoing endochondral ossification. Based on these findings, how does the histology of Dysplasia Epiphysealis Hemimelica (DEH) compare to an osteochondroma?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. DEH is histologically indistinguishable from an osteochondroma.
Explanation
Histologically, DEH is identical to an osteochondroma, demonstrating mature bone covered by a hyaline cartilage cap undergoing endochondral ossification. The primary difference is anatomical location (epiphyseal in DEH vs. metaphyseal in osteochondroma).
Question 6565
Topic: Bone Tumors
During a resident teaching round, the attending asks for the defining anatomical distinction between Multiple Hereditary Exostoses (MHE) and Dysplasia Epiphysealis Hemimelica (DEH). While both present with osteochondroma-like lesions, DEH is uniquely characterized by its origin from which specific region of the developing bone?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Epiphysis
Explanation
The hallmark of DEH (Trevor's disease) is the asymmetric overgrowth of cartilage arising directly from the epiphysis. In contrast, the lesions in MHE (osteochondromas) arise from the metaphysis.
Question 6566
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A muscle biopsy is performed on a patient suspected of having dermatomyositis. Which of the following histopathological findings is classically associated with this condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Perifascicular atrophy and perivascular inflammation
Explanation
Dermatomyositis is characterized histologically by perifascicular atrophy and perivascular, septal inflammation. In contrast, polymyositis typically shows endomysial inflammation.
Question 6567
Topic: Bone Tumors
In adult patients presenting with new-onset dermatomyositis, the treating physician must have a high index of suspicion and screen for which of the following associated conditions?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Underlying malignancy
Explanation
Adult-onset dermatomyositis has a strong association with underlying occult malignancies (e.g., ovarian, lung, gastrointestinal). Age-appropriate cancer screening is mandatory.
Question 6568
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 12-year-old girl with a known autoimmune disorder presents with severe joint contractures and hard palpable masses. Radiographs are shown:
Surgical excision of these lesions is generally indicated for which of the following reasons?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Only when lesions cause severe mechanical block to joint motion, skin ulceration, or recurrent infections
Explanation
Surgical excision of calcinosis cutis in dermatomyositis is challenging and generally reserved for severe complications like mechanical block, painful ulceration, or recurrent infection due to the high risk of recurrence and poor wound healing.
Question 6569
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
In juvenile dermatomyositis, a muscle biopsy classically demonstrates which of the following histological findings?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Perifascicular atrophy and perivascular inflammation
Explanation
Juvenile dermatomyositis is primarily a microangiopathy affecting capillaries. Muscle biopsy classically reveals perivascular CD4+ T cell and macrophage infiltrates along with perifascicular atrophy.
Question 6570
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
An orthopedic oncologist is consulted for an aggressive thigh mass in a 60-year-old male. During evaluation, the patient is noted to have a classic heliotrope rash and proximal muscle weakness. What underlying relationship must be considered?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Adult-onset dermatomyositis has a strong association with underlying malignancies
Explanation
Up to 15-30% of adult patients with dermatomyositis have an underlying malignancy, such as ovarian, lung, GI, or lymphoma. This diagnosis necessitates a thorough, age-appropriate oncologic screening.
Question 6571
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A patient undergoing workup for suspected dermatomyositis has a muscle biopsy performed by an orthopedic surgeon. What is the characteristic histopathological finding that differentiates dermatomyositis from polymyositis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Perifascicular atrophy and perivascular CD4+ T cell infiltrates
Explanation
Dermatomyositis is characterized by perivascular and perifascicular inflammation (primarily CD4+ T cells and B cells) leading to perifascicular atrophy. Polymyositis, in contrast, involves endomysial inflammation driven by CD8+ T cells.
Question 6572
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 7-year-old girl is evaluated for worsening proximal muscle weakness and a distinctive violaceous rash over her knuckles and eyelids.
If a muscle biopsy were to be performed to confirm the underlying diagnosis, what is the pathognomonic histologic finding?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Perifascicular atrophy
Explanation
The patient has juvenile dermatomyositis, characterized by Gottron papules and proximal muscle weakness. Muscle biopsy characteristically shows perifascicular atrophy, which differentiates it from polymyositis (endomysial inflammation).
Question 6573
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 55-year-old woman presents to the clinic with profound proximal muscle weakness, an erythematous rash on her face and knuckles, and difficulty climbing stairs. She is diagnosed with adult-onset dermatomyositis. What mandatory screening must be performed in this patient?
Adult-onset dermatomyositis has a strong association with occult malignancies (15-30% of cases), including ovarian, lung, pancreatic, and gastric cancers. Comprehensive, age-appropriate malignancy screening is mandatory.
Question 6574
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 9-year-old girl is diagnosed with juvenile dermatomyositis. She presents with characteristic violaceous papules over her metacarpophalangeal joints.
Which of the following histopathological findings on muscle biopsy is most characteristic of this condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Perifascicular atrophy and perimysial inflammation
Explanation
Dermatomyositis is characterized by perifascicular atrophy and perimysial/perivascular inflammation mediated by CD4+ T cells and B cells. In contrast, polymyositis features endomysial inflammation mediated by CD8+ T cells.
Question 6575
Topic: Soft Tissue Tumors & Metastasis
A 45-year-old woman with a history of progressive proximal muscle weakness and a heliotrope rash is diagnosed with adult-onset dermatomyositis. What is the most critical screening evaluation required for this adult patient that is not routinely indicated for juvenile dermatomyositis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Malignancy screening
Explanation
Adult-onset dermatomyositis has a strong association with underlying malignancies, particularly ovarian, lung, gastrointestinal, and breast cancers. Comprehensive malignancy screening is mandatory in adult patients.
Question 6576
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 13-year-old boy presents with knee pain and is diagnosed with conventional osteosarcoma of the distal femur. Genetic testing reveals a germline mutation in the RB1 gene. This patient is at the highest risk for having a history of, or developing, which of the following secondary malignancies?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Retinoblastoma
Explanation
Correct Answer: RetinoblastomaPatients with a germline mutation in the RB1 gene (hereditary retinoblastoma) have a significantly increased risk of developing osteosarcoma. The RB1 gene is a tumor suppressor gene located on chromosome 13q14. Survivors of hereditary retinoblastoma frequently develop osteosarcoma as a secondary malignancy, often in adolescence.
Question 6577
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 65-year-old man presents with worsening back pain and fatigue. Laboratory studies show hypercalcemia, anemia, and elevated creatinine. Radiographs show multiple "punched-out" lytic lesions in the skull and vertebral bodies.
Which of the following is required to establish the definitive diagnosis of this patient's most likely condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Bone marrow biopsy showing >10% clonal plasma cells
Explanation
Multiple myeloma requires a bone marrow biopsy demonstrating >10% clonal plasma cells for definitive diagnosis, along with end-organ damage (CRAB criteria) or a myeloma-defining event. While serum and urine tests are supportive, tissue confirmation is essential.
Question 6578
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 65-year-old man presents with severe back pain and fatigue. Radiographs show multiple punched-out lytic lesions in the skull and spine.
Serum protein electrophoresis demonstrates a prominent M-spike. Which of the following is the most likely histological finding upon bone marrow biopsy?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Sheets of atypical plasma cells with eccentric nuclei
Explanation
Multiple myeloma is characterized by the neoplastic proliferation of plasma cells in the bone marrow. Histology typically reveals sheets of atypical plasma cells with eccentric nuclei and a perinuclear halo (clock-face chromatin).
Question 6579
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 70-year-old female is diagnosed with multiple myeloma after presenting with hypercalcemia and a pathologic femur fracture.
Which of the following imaging modalities is most appropriate for staging her overall skeletal tumor burden?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Whole-body low-dose CT or PET/CT
Explanation
Whole-body low-dose CT or PET/CT is the gold standard for staging skeletal lesions in multiple myeloma. Technetium-99m bone scans rely on osteoblastic activity and are often falsely negative in multiple myeloma due to its purely osteolytic nature.
Question 6580
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 14-year-old boy presents with right thigh pain and swelling. Radiographs reveal a destructive diaphyseal lesion in the femur with a prominent "onion-skin" periosteal reaction. Biopsy shows small round blue cells. Which chromosomal translocation is most characteristic of this tumor?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. t(11;22)(q24;q12)
Explanation
Ewing sarcoma typically presents as a diaphyseal lesion in children with an "onion-skin" periosteal reaction. The t(11;22)(q24;q12) translocation creates the EWS-FLI1 fusion protein and is found in the vast majority of cases.
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