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Question 6161

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A neonate is diagnosed with Spondylothoracic Dysplasia (Jarcho-Levin syndrome). What is the primary cause of early mortality in patients with this specific condition?

. Cervicomedullary compression
. Thoracic insufficiency syndrome
. Aortic root dilation and rupture
. Atlantoaxial instability
. Malignant hyperthermia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Thoracic insufficiency syndrome


Explanation

Spondylothoracic dysplasia features severe rib fusions (crab-like chest) and multiple vertebral anomalies, leading to a markedly restricted thoracic volume. The resulting thoracic insufficiency syndrome is the primary cause of early respiratory failure and mortality in these patients.

Question 6162

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 45-year-old man presents with chronic knee pain and mechanical catching. Radiographs demonstrate multiple intra-articular calcifications of relatively uniform size.

Which of the following describes the underlying pathophysiology of this condition?

. Malignant proliferation of synovial chondrocytes
. Benign cartilaginous metaplasia of the synovial membrane
. Deposition of calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals
. Fragmentation and detachment of marginal osteophytes
. Hypertrophy of the synovium driven by CSF1 over-expression

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Benign cartilaginous metaplasia of the synovial membrane


Explanation

Primary synovial chondromatosis is a benign condition characterized by synovial metaplasia leading to the formation of multiple cartilaginous nodules. These nodules often ossify and form uniform loose bodies within the joint space.

Question 6163

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 24-year-old male presents with a painless, slow-growing nodule on the volar aspect of his distal forearm. Biopsy reveals a granuloma-like architecture with central necrosis and epithelioid cells. Immunohistochemistry shows a loss of INI-1 (SMARCB1) expression. Due to the high rate of a specific metastatic pathway, which of the following evaluations should be included in his staging?

. Routine bone marrow aspiration
. Sentinel lymph node biopsy or regional lymph node ultrasound
. Spine MRI to evaluate for skeletal metastases
. Brain MRI
. Gastric endoscopy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sentinel lymph node biopsy or regional lymph node ultrasound


Explanation

Epithelioid sarcoma classically presents as a superficial nodule in the distal extremities of young adults and shows loss of INI-1. It is notable among soft tissue sarcomas for having a high rate of regional lymph node metastasis, necessitating lymph node evaluation.

Question 6164

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 22-year-old female undergoes marginal excision of an incidentally found thigh mass. Pathology demonstrates alveolar soft-part sarcoma (ASPS). In addition to a chest CT, which of the following imaging modalities is uniquely indicated for staging this specific sarcoma?

. Positron Emission Tomography (PET) scan
. Whole-body bone scan
. MRI of the brain
. CT of the abdomen and pelvis
. MRI of the entire spine

Correct Answer & Explanation

. MRI of the brain


Explanation

Alveolar soft-part sarcoma (ASPS) has a unique propensity to metastasize to the brain, often even before pulmonary metastases are clinically apparent. Therefore, a brain MRI is a mandatory component of initial staging.

Question 6165

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 35-year-old male presents with a slow-growing, painful mass near his knee joint. Biopsy reveals a biphasic tumor with both epithelial and spindle cell components. Cytogenetic analysis is most likely to show which of the following translocations?

. t(11;22)(q24;q12)
. t(X;18)(p11;q11)
. t(12;16)(q13;p11)
. t(2;13)(q35;q14)
. t(9;22)(q22;q12)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(X;18)(p11;q11)


Explanation

This clinical and histological presentation describes a synovial sarcoma. The pathognomonic cytogenetic abnormality for synovial sarcoma is the t(X;18) translocation, resulting in the SYT-SSX fusion gene. This drives the proliferation of both spindle and epithelial elements.

Question 6166

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 42-year-old female presents with chronic knee pain, catching, and reduced range of motion. Radiographs demonstrate multiple stippled intra-articular loose bodies of relatively uniform size.

Which of the following describes the pathophysiology of this condition?

. Malignant degeneration of the synovium
. Microtrauma leading to cartilage fragmentation
. Metaplastic transformation of synovium into cartilage
. Deposition of calcium pyrophosphate crystals
. Overgrowth of vascular synovial fringes

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Metaplastic transformation of synovium into cartilage


Explanation

The image and presentation are characteristic of primary synovial chondromatosis. This condition is caused by the benign metaplastic transformation of the synovial membrane into cartilage, which can ossify and become loose bodies. Treatment often involves synovectomy and loose body removal.

Question 6167

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 40-year-old male undergoes excision of a deep thigh mass. Pathology reveals a myxoid background, proliferating lipoblasts, and a distinct arborizing "chicken-wire" capillary network. Which of the following is true regarding this tumor's staging and behavior?

. It typically metastasizes via lymphatic spread.
. It has a highly specific t(11;22) translocation.
. Routine staging should include whole-spine MRI due to a high risk of osseous metastases.
. It is entirely resistant to radiotherapy.
. The tumor is characterized by MDM2 gene amplification.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Routine staging should include whole-spine MRI due to a high risk of osseous metastases.


Explanation

The histology describes myxoid liposarcoma, characterized by the t(12;16) FUS-DDIT3 translocation. Uniquely among soft tissue sarcomas, it has a high propensity for extrapulmonary metastasis, particularly to the spine, warranting whole-spine MRI during staging.

Question 6168

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 32-year-old male presents with a slowly enlarging, nodular skin lesion on his trunk that has been present for years. Biopsy reveals a storiform pattern of spindle cells that are CD34 positive. Which targeted therapy is FDA-approved for unresectable cases of this tumor?

. Doxorubicin
. Imatinib mesylate
. Denosumab
. Methotrexate
. Pazopanib

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Imatinib mesylate


Explanation

Dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans (DFSP) is characterized by a t(17;22) translocation leading to overexpression of Platelet-Derived Growth Factor B (PDGFB). Imatinib mesylate is a tyrosine kinase inhibitor that blocks the PDGF receptor and is highly effective for unresectable DFSP.

Question 6169

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 15-year-old boy presents with a rapidly growing, deep soft tissue mass in his forearm. Histology shows aggregates of small round blue cells with central loss of cellular cohesion, resembling pulmonary alveoli. Which cytogenetic abnormality is most characteristic of this diagnosis?

. t(11;22)(q24;q12)
. t(X;18)(p11;q11)
. t(12;16)(q13;p11)
. t(2;13)(q35;q14)
. t(9;22)(q22;q12)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(2;13)(q35;q14)


Explanation

Alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma is an aggressive small round blue cell tumor common in adolescents. It is defined by the t(2;13) translocation resulting in the PAX3-FOXO1 fusion protein, which carries a worse prognosis compared to embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma.

Question 6170

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 65-year-old female undergoes marginal excision of an unexpectedly malignant, deep 8 cm mass in her posterior thigh. Pathology demonstrates highly pleomorphic spindle cells with bizarre giant cells, frequent atypical mitoses, and no specific line of differentiation on immunohistochemistry. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Observation with serial MRI every 3 months
. Re-excision with wide margins followed by adjuvant radiotherapy
. Chemotherapy alone with doxorubicin and ifosfamide
. Amputation at the hip joint
. Sentinel lymph node biopsy followed by targeted immunotherapy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Re-excision with wide margins followed by adjuvant radiotherapy


Explanation

The pathology describes Undifferentiated Pleomorphic Sarcoma (UPS), a high-grade soft tissue sarcoma. Because it was treated initially with a marginal excision (an "unplanned" excision), the standard of care is re-excision to obtain wide margins, typically combined with adjuvant radiation.

Question 6171

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 24-year-old male presents with a firm, painless subcutaneous nodule on his volar forearm that he noticed 6 months ago. It is slowly enlarging and now has secondary proximal nodular lesions along the arm. Biopsy shows nodular aggregates of epithelioid cells with central necrosis. Immunohistochemistry will most likely demonstrate a loss of which of the following?

. SMARCB1 (INI1)
. MDM2
. S-100
. CD34
. Desmin

Correct Answer & Explanation

. SMARCB1 (INI1)


Explanation

Epithelioid sarcoma typically affects young adults, presents as firm distal extremity nodules, and has a high propensity for proximal lymphatic spread. The hallmark immunohistochemical finding is the loss of INI1 (SMARCB1) expression.

Question 6172

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 30-year-old female complains of recurrent knee effusions and pain. MRI shows a massive joint effusion with extensive synovial proliferation that exhibits low signal on both T1 and T2-weighted images due to hemosiderin. The pathogenesis of this condition is primarily driven by the overexpression of which of the following?

. Vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)
. Platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF)
. Colony-stimulating factor 1 (CSF1)
. Tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-alpha)
. Fibroblast growth factor 23 (FGF23)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Colony-stimulating factor 1 (CSF1)


Explanation

Pigmented Villonodular Synovitis (PVNS), now called Tenosynovial Giant Cell Tumor (TGCT), is characterized by a t(1;2) translocation. This fusion causes an overexpression of CSF1, which recruits extensive numbers of non-neoplastic macrophages to form the tumor mass.

Question 6173

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 50-year-old male is newly diagnosed with a high-grade pleomorphic liposarcoma of the posterior thigh measuring 12 cm. What is the most critical staging study required prior to definitive surgical intervention to assess for systemic disease?

. Positron emission tomography (PET) scan from skull base to mid-thigh
. Computed tomography (CT) scan of the chest without contrast
. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the spine with contrast
. Bone scan with Technetium-99m
. Ultrasound of the regional inguinal lymph nodes

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Computed tomography (CT) scan of the chest without contrast


Explanation

The most common site of metastasis for most high-grade soft tissue sarcomas of the extremity is the lungs. Therefore, a non-contrast CT scan of the chest is the standard and most critical imaging modality for systemic staging.

Question 6174

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 25-year-old male presents with a rapidly growing, slightly tender, 2 cm mass on his volar forearm that appeared 3 weeks ago. He reports a minor contusion to the area 1 month ago. Excisional biopsy demonstrates a poorly circumscribed lesion with plump, rapidly proliferating fibroblasts in a myxoid stroma with extravasated red blood cells. There is brisk mitotic activity but no atypical mitoses. What is the most appropriate management?

. Wide local excision with 2 cm margins
. Preoperative radiation followed by marginal excision
. Reassurance and observation as it may spontaneously regress
. Systemic chemotherapy
. Amputation proximal to the lesion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Reassurance and observation as it may spontaneously regress


Explanation

This presentation and histology describe nodular fasciitis, a benign, rapid proliferation of fibroblasts often mimicking sarcoma and linked to MYH9-USP6 fusions. It is often self-limiting and can spontaneously resolve; if completely excised via marginal biopsy, no further aggressive treatment is needed.

Question 6175

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 45-year-old male presents with chronic knee pain and mechanical symptoms. Radiographs show multiple loose bodies of uniform size. An MRI shows a joint effusion with multiple cartilaginous nodules.

Which of the following is true regarding this condition?

. It is caused by an underlying defect in type I collagen
. Malignant transformation to secondary chondrosarcoma occurs in 50% of cases
. Pathology typically demonstrates synovial metaplasia with clustered chondrocytes
. Non-operative management is the gold standard for symptomatic patients
. The disease typically affects multiple joints simultaneously

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pathology typically demonstrates synovial metaplasia with clustered chondrocytes


Explanation

Primary synovial chondromatosis is a benign neoplastic process characterized by synovial metaplasia and clustered chondrocytes. Malignant transformation to chondrosarcoma is rare (less than 5%).

Question 6176

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 55-year-old presents with a painless, rapidly enlarging thigh mass. An MRI demonstrates a deep 8 cm heterogeneous mass.

When planning a core needle biopsy, which principle must be strictly adhered to?

. The biopsy tract should be placed transversely across the extremity
. The tract should cross multiple anatomic compartments to ensure adequate sampling
. The biopsy tract must be planned so it can be excised during the definitive surgery
. Local anesthetic should be injected directly into the tumor to minimize pain
. An excisional biopsy is preferred over core needle biopsy for masses >5 cm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The biopsy tract must be planned so it can be excised during the definitive surgery


Explanation

The biopsy tract must be placed longitudinally and carefully planned so it can be excised en bloc with the tumor during definitive resection. Violating multiple compartments or using transverse incisions increases the risk of tumor seeding and complicates limb salvage.

Question 6177

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 28-year-old male presents with a slowly growing, painful mass near his knee. Radiographs reveal a soft tissue mass with stippled calcifications. Biopsy demonstrates a biphasic pattern of spindle and epithelial cells. What is the characteristic cytogenetic abnormality associated with this tumor?

. t(11;22) EWS-FLI1
. t(12;16) FUS-DDIT3
. t(X;18) SYT-SSX
. t(2;13) PAX3-FOXO1
. t(9;22) BCR-ABL

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(X;18) SYT-SSX


Explanation

Synovial sarcoma is characterized by the t(X;18) translocation involving the SYT and SSX genes. It commonly presents in young adults as a calcified periarticular mass and may exhibit a biphasic histologic pattern.

Question 6178

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

An older adult presents with a massive, deep intramuscular mass in the posterior thigh. Biopsy shows mature adipocytes interspersed with atypical spindle cells and hyperchromatic stromal cells. Cytogenetic analysis reveals amplification of the MDM2 gene. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

. Myxoid liposarcoma
. Pleomorphic liposarcoma
. Atypical lipomatous tumor / Well-differentiated liposarcoma
. Spindle cell lipoma
. Angiolipoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Atypical lipomatous tumor / Well-differentiated liposarcoma


Explanation

Well-differentiated liposarcoma (atypical lipomatous tumor) is characterized by MDM2 and CDK4 gene amplifications on chromosome 12q. This distinguishes it from benign lipomas.

Question 6179

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 40-year-old male is diagnosed with a large myxoid liposarcoma of the thigh.

During staging, which imaging study is specifically indicated for this histologic subtype, unlike most other soft tissue sarcomas?

. Brain MRI
. MRI of the total spine
. Ultrasound of the regional lymph nodes
. Bone scan of the appendicular skeleton
. Plain radiographs of the contralateral limb

Correct Answer & Explanation

. MRI of the total spine


Explanation

Myxoid liposarcoma has a unique propensity to metastasize to extrapulmonary soft tissues and bones, particularly the spine. Therefore, a whole spine MRI is recommended as part of the staging workup.

Question 6180

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 65-year-old female undergoes marginal excision of a presumed benign subcutaneous cyst in her thigh at an outside facility. Final pathology reveals an undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma with positive margins. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Immediate systemic chemotherapy
. Wide local excision of the tumor bed
. Observation with serial MRIs
. Amputation of the affected limb
. Isolated limb perfusion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Wide local excision of the tumor bed


Explanation

Unplanned excisions ("whoops" procedures) of soft tissue sarcomas require subsequent wide local excision of the entire surgical bed to achieve negative oncologic margins. Radiotherapy is often utilized as an adjunct to improve local control.