This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 10. Pathology and Oncology. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 6161
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A neonate is diagnosed with Spondylothoracic Dysplasia (Jarcho-Levin syndrome). What is the primary cause of early mortality in patients with this specific condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Thoracic insufficiency syndrome
Explanation
Spondylothoracic dysplasia features severe rib fusions (crab-like chest) and multiple vertebral anomalies, leading to a markedly restricted thoracic volume. The resulting thoracic insufficiency syndrome is the primary cause of early respiratory failure and mortality in these patients.
Question 6162
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 45-year-old man presents with chronic knee pain and mechanical catching. Radiographs demonstrate multiple intra-articular calcifications of relatively uniform size.
Which of the following describes the underlying pathophysiology of this condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Benign cartilaginous metaplasia of the synovial membrane
Explanation
Primary synovial chondromatosis is a benign condition characterized by synovial metaplasia leading to the formation of multiple cartilaginous nodules. These nodules often ossify and form uniform loose bodies within the joint space.
Question 6163
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 24-year-old male presents with a painless, slow-growing nodule on the volar aspect of his distal forearm. Biopsy reveals a granuloma-like architecture with central necrosis and epithelioid cells. Immunohistochemistry shows a loss of INI-1 (SMARCB1) expression. Due to the high rate of a specific metastatic pathway, which of the following evaluations should be included in his staging?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Sentinel lymph node biopsy or regional lymph node ultrasound
Explanation
Epithelioid sarcoma classically presents as a superficial nodule in the distal extremities of young adults and shows loss of INI-1. It is notable among soft tissue sarcomas for having a high rate of regional lymph node metastasis, necessitating lymph node evaluation.
Question 6164
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 22-year-old female undergoes marginal excision of an incidentally found thigh mass. Pathology demonstrates alveolar soft-part sarcoma (ASPS). In addition to a chest CT, which of the following imaging modalities is uniquely indicated for staging this specific sarcoma?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. MRI of the brain
Explanation
Alveolar soft-part sarcoma (ASPS) has a unique propensity to metastasize to the brain, often even before pulmonary metastases are clinically apparent. Therefore, a brain MRI is a mandatory component of initial staging.
Question 6165
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 35-year-old male presents with a slow-growing, painful mass near his knee joint. Biopsy reveals a biphasic tumor with both epithelial and spindle cell components. Cytogenetic analysis is most likely to show which of the following translocations?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. t(X;18)(p11;q11)
Explanation
This clinical and histological presentation describes a synovial sarcoma. The pathognomonic cytogenetic abnormality for synovial sarcoma is the t(X;18) translocation, resulting in the SYT-SSX fusion gene. This drives the proliferation of both spindle and epithelial elements.
Question 6166
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 42-year-old female presents with chronic knee pain, catching, and reduced range of motion. Radiographs demonstrate multiple stippled intra-articular loose bodies of relatively uniform size.
Which of the following describes the pathophysiology of this condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Metaplastic transformation of synovium into cartilage
Explanation
The image and presentation are characteristic of primary synovial chondromatosis. This condition is caused by the benign metaplastic transformation of the synovial membrane into cartilage, which can ossify and become loose bodies. Treatment often involves synovectomy and loose body removal.
Question 6167
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 40-year-old male undergoes excision of a deep thigh mass. Pathology reveals a myxoid background, proliferating lipoblasts, and a distinct arborizing "chicken-wire" capillary network. Which of the following is true regarding this tumor's staging and behavior?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Routine staging should include whole-spine MRI due to a high risk of osseous metastases.
Explanation
The histology describes myxoid liposarcoma, characterized by the t(12;16) FUS-DDIT3 translocation. Uniquely among soft tissue sarcomas, it has a high propensity for extrapulmonary metastasis, particularly to the spine, warranting whole-spine MRI during staging.
Question 6168
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 32-year-old male presents with a slowly enlarging, nodular skin lesion on his trunk that has been present for years. Biopsy reveals a storiform pattern of spindle cells that are CD34 positive. Which targeted therapy is FDA-approved for unresectable cases of this tumor?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Imatinib mesylate
Explanation
Dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans (DFSP) is characterized by a t(17;22) translocation leading to overexpression of Platelet-Derived Growth Factor B (PDGFB). Imatinib mesylate is a tyrosine kinase inhibitor that blocks the PDGF receptor and is highly effective for unresectable DFSP.
Question 6169
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 15-year-old boy presents with a rapidly growing, deep soft tissue mass in his forearm. Histology shows aggregates of small round blue cells with central loss of cellular cohesion, resembling pulmonary alveoli. Which cytogenetic abnormality is most characteristic of this diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. t(2;13)(q35;q14)
Explanation
Alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma is an aggressive small round blue cell tumor common in adolescents. It is defined by the t(2;13) translocation resulting in the PAX3-FOXO1 fusion protein, which carries a worse prognosis compared to embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma.
Question 6170
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 65-year-old female undergoes marginal excision of an unexpectedly malignant, deep 8 cm mass in her posterior thigh. Pathology demonstrates highly pleomorphic spindle cells with bizarre giant cells, frequent atypical mitoses, and no specific line of differentiation on immunohistochemistry. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Re-excision with wide margins followed by adjuvant radiotherapy
Explanation
The pathology describes Undifferentiated Pleomorphic Sarcoma (UPS), a high-grade soft tissue sarcoma. Because it was treated initially with a marginal excision (an "unplanned" excision), the standard of care is re-excision to obtain wide margins, typically combined with adjuvant radiation.
Question 6171
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 24-year-old male presents with a firm, painless subcutaneous nodule on his volar forearm that he noticed 6 months ago. It is slowly enlarging and now has secondary proximal nodular lesions along the arm. Biopsy shows nodular aggregates of epithelioid cells with central necrosis. Immunohistochemistry will most likely demonstrate a loss of which of the following?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. SMARCB1 (INI1)
Explanation
Epithelioid sarcoma typically affects young adults, presents as firm distal extremity nodules, and has a high propensity for proximal lymphatic spread. The hallmark immunohistochemical finding is the loss of INI1 (SMARCB1) expression.
Question 6172
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 30-year-old female complains of recurrent knee effusions and pain. MRI shows a massive joint effusion with extensive synovial proliferation that exhibits low signal on both T1 and T2-weighted images due to hemosiderin. The pathogenesis of this condition is primarily driven by the overexpression of which of the following?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Colony-stimulating factor 1 (CSF1)
Explanation
Pigmented Villonodular Synovitis (PVNS), now called Tenosynovial Giant Cell Tumor (TGCT), is characterized by a t(1;2) translocation. This fusion causes an overexpression of CSF1, which recruits extensive numbers of non-neoplastic macrophages to form the tumor mass.
Question 6173
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 50-year-old male is newly diagnosed with a high-grade pleomorphic liposarcoma of the posterior thigh measuring 12 cm. What is the most critical staging study required prior to definitive surgical intervention to assess for systemic disease?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Computed tomography (CT) scan of the chest without contrast
Explanation
The most common site of metastasis for most high-grade soft tissue sarcomas of the extremity is the lungs. Therefore, a non-contrast CT scan of the chest is the standard and most critical imaging modality for systemic staging.
Question 6174
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 25-year-old male presents with a rapidly growing, slightly tender, 2 cm mass on his volar forearm that appeared 3 weeks ago. He reports a minor contusion to the area 1 month ago. Excisional biopsy demonstrates a poorly circumscribed lesion with plump, rapidly proliferating fibroblasts in a myxoid stroma with extravasated red blood cells. There is brisk mitotic activity but no atypical mitoses. What is the most appropriate management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Reassurance and observation as it may spontaneously regress
Explanation
This presentation and histology describe nodular fasciitis, a benign, rapid proliferation of fibroblasts often mimicking sarcoma and linked to MYH9-USP6 fusions. It is often self-limiting and can spontaneously resolve; if completely excised via marginal biopsy, no further aggressive treatment is needed.
Question 6175
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 45-year-old male presents with chronic knee pain and mechanical symptoms. Radiographs show multiple loose bodies of uniform size. An MRI shows a joint effusion with multiple cartilaginous nodules.
Which of the following is true regarding this condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Pathology typically demonstrates synovial metaplasia with clustered chondrocytes
Explanation
Primary synovial chondromatosis is a benign neoplastic process characterized by synovial metaplasia and clustered chondrocytes. Malignant transformation to chondrosarcoma is rare (less than 5%).
Question 6176
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 55-year-old presents with a painless, rapidly enlarging thigh mass. An MRI demonstrates a deep 8 cm heterogeneous mass.
When planning a core needle biopsy, which principle must be strictly adhered to?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The biopsy tract must be planned so it can be excised during the definitive surgery
Explanation
The biopsy tract must be placed longitudinally and carefully planned so it can be excised en bloc with the tumor during definitive resection. Violating multiple compartments or using transverse incisions increases the risk of tumor seeding and complicates limb salvage.
Question 6177
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 28-year-old male presents with a slowly growing, painful mass near his knee. Radiographs reveal a soft tissue mass with stippled calcifications. Biopsy demonstrates a biphasic pattern of spindle and epithelial cells. What is the characteristic cytogenetic abnormality associated with this tumor?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. t(X;18) SYT-SSX
Explanation
Synovial sarcoma is characterized by the t(X;18) translocation involving the SYT and SSX genes. It commonly presents in young adults as a calcified periarticular mass and may exhibit a biphasic histologic pattern.
Question 6178
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
An older adult presents with a massive, deep intramuscular mass in the posterior thigh. Biopsy shows mature adipocytes interspersed with atypical spindle cells and hyperchromatic stromal cells. Cytogenetic analysis reveals amplification of the MDM2 gene. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Well-differentiated liposarcoma (atypical lipomatous tumor) is characterized by MDM2 and CDK4 gene amplifications on chromosome 12q. This distinguishes it from benign lipomas.
Question 6179
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 40-year-old male is diagnosed with a large myxoid liposarcoma of the thigh.
During staging, which imaging study is specifically indicated for this histologic subtype, unlike most other soft tissue sarcomas?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. MRI of the total spine
Explanation
Myxoid liposarcoma has a unique propensity to metastasize to extrapulmonary soft tissues and bones, particularly the spine. Therefore, a whole spine MRI is recommended as part of the staging workup.
Question 6180
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 65-year-old female undergoes marginal excision of a presumed benign subcutaneous cyst in her thigh at an outside facility. Final pathology reveals an undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma with positive margins. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Wide local excision of the tumor bed
Explanation
Unplanned excisions ("whoops" procedures) of soft tissue sarcomas require subsequent wide local excision of the entire surgical bed to achieve negative oncologic margins. Radiotherapy is often utilized as an adjunct to improve local control.
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