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Question 5761

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

According to the Enneking surgical staging system for musculoskeletal tumors, what defines a Stage IIB sarcoma?

. Low-grade, intracompartmental
. Low-grade, extracompartmental
. High-grade, intracompartmental
. High-grade, extracompartmental
. Any grade with distant metastases

Correct Answer & Explanation

. High-grade, intracompartmental


Explanation

In the Enneking staging system, Stage II denotes a high-grade tumor. The letter 'A' stands for intracompartmental, while 'B' indicates an extracompartmental extension.

Question 5762

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

During an emergent open reduction and internal fixation, the patient develops sudden tachycardia, muscle rigidity, and a rapidly rising core body temperature. The anesthesia team administers a life-saving medication. What is the mechanism of this drug?

. Blocks voltage-gated sodium channels
. Inhibits acetylcholinesterase at the neuromuscular junction
. Binds to ryanodine receptors, inhibiting calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
. Acts as a competitive antagonist at non-depolarizing neuromuscular receptors
. Stimulates central alpha-2 adrenergic receptors

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Binds to ryanodine receptors, inhibiting calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum


Explanation

The patient is experiencing malignant hyperthermia. The specific antidote is dantrolene, which binds to the ryanodine receptor (RYR1) to block the massive release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

Question 5763

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 15-year-old male presents with night pain in his femur that is dramatically relieved by NSAIDs. A CT scan shows a small radiolucent nidus surrounded by dense reactive sclerosis. What is the primary mediator secreted by this lesion that causes the characteristic pain?

. Interleukin-1 (IL-1)
. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-a)
. Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2)
. Bradykinin
. Substance P

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2)


Explanation

The patient has an osteoid osteoma. The nidus secretes high levels of Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2), which mediates the severe nocturnal pain and makes the lesion uniquely responsive to cyclooxygenase inhibition.

Question 5764

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 14-year-old female is diagnosed with conventional high-grade osteosarcoma of the distal femur. Genetic analysis of the tumor is most likely to reveal a somatic mutation or inactivation in which of the following genes?

. EXT1
. BRCA1
. TP53
. GNAS
. COL1A1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. TP53


Explanation

Mutations in the TP53 (p53) and RB1 (retinoblastoma) tumor suppressor genes are the most common genetic alterations seen in sporadic osteosarcoma. GNAS is associated with fibrous dysplasia, and EXT1 with multiple hereditary exostoses.

Question 5765

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 15-year-old boy presents with pain and swelling around his distal femur. Radiographs reveal a sunburst periosteal reaction and a Codman triangle. Biopsy confirms osteosarcoma. Germline mutations in which of the following tumor suppressor genes are most classically associated with an increased risk for this malignancy?

. BRCA1 and BRCA2
. Rb1 and p53
. NF1 and NF2
. APC and MLH1
. VHL and RET

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Rb1 and p53


Explanation

Osteosarcoma is the most common primary malignant bone tumor in children. Germline mutations in the Rb1 gene (hereditary retinoblastoma) and the p53 gene (Li-Fraumeni syndrome) strongly predispose individuals to the development of osteosarcoma.

Question 5766

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 28-year-old male presents with a deep, slow-growing soft tissue mass in the popliteal fossa. Biopsy reveals a biphasic tumor with both spindle cells and epithelial cells. Which of the following chromosomal translocations is highly specific to this diagnosis?

. t(11;22)
. t(X;18)
. t(12;16)
. t(9;22)
. t(2;13)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(X;18)


Explanation

Synovial sarcoma classically presents in young adults as a deep soft tissue mass near a joint (often the knee). It is characterized by the t(X;18) translocation, resulting in the SYT-SSX fusion gene. t(11;22) is seen in Ewing sarcoma, t(12;16) in myxoid liposarcoma, and t(2;13) in alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma.

Question 5767

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 15-year-old boy presents with severe night pain in his proximal femur that is dramatically relieved by oral ibuprofen. Imaging confirms a cortically based lesion with a small radiolucent nidus. The symptomatic relief provided by NSAIDs is directly related to the inhibition of which of the following?

. Osteoclastic bone resorption mediated by RANKL
. Leukotriene synthesis via the lipoxygenase pathway
. Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) production by the nidus
. Apoptosis of neoplastic osteoblasts
. Tumor vascularity through VEGF inhibition

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) production by the nidus


Explanation

Osteoid osteomas secrete remarkably high levels of prostaglandins, particularly PGE2, from the nidus. This causes intense localized pain and vasodilation. NSAIDs act by inhibiting cyclooxygenase (COX), drastically reducing PGE2 synthesis and thereby relieving the pain.

Question 5768

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 14-year-old girl is diagnosed with osteosarcoma of the distal femur. Her family history is notable for her mother having premenopausal breast cancer and her brother having a soft tissue sarcoma. A germline mutation in which gene is the most likely underlying cause?

. Rb1
. EXT1
. TP53
. c-myc
. GNAS

Correct Answer & Explanation

. TP53


Explanation

This clinical picture is classic for Li-Fraumeni syndrome, an autosomal dominant disorder caused by a germline mutation in the TP53 tumor suppressor gene. It greatly increases the risk of osteosarcoma, breast cancer, brain tumors, and soft tissue sarcomas.

Question 5769

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

Which of the following chromosomal translocations is classically associated with Ewing sarcoma, leading to the formation of a chimeric transcription factor?

. t(11;22)
. t(9;22)
. t(X;18)
. t(12;16)
. t(2;13)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(11;22)


Explanation

Ewing sarcoma is classically associated with the t(11;22) translocation, resulting in the characteristic EWS-FLI1 fusion protein. Other translocations include t(X;18) for synovial sarcoma and t(9;22) for myxoid chondrosarcoma.

Question 5770

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 14-year-old boy presents with progressive knee pain and swelling. Radiographs show a permeative, destructive diaphyseal lesion of the femur with a large soft tissue mass and an 'onion skin' periosteal reaction. Biopsy reveals small round blue cells. Which chromosomal translocation is the diagnostic hallmark of this tumor?

. t(9;22)
. t(11;22)
. t(X;18)
. t(2;13)
. t(12;16)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(11;22)


Explanation

The clinical and radiographic presentation is classic for Ewing sarcoma. Ewing sarcoma is characterized by the t(11;22)(q24;q12) chromosomal translocation in approximately 85-90% of cases, which results in the EWS-FLI1 fusion protein. Other options correspond to different tumors: t(9;22) is Philadelphia chromosome (CML/ALL); t(X;18) is synovial sarcoma; t(2;13) is alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma; t(12;16) is myxoid liposarcoma.

Question 5771

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 19-year-old male reports persistent nocturnal diaphyseal tibial pain that is dramatically relieved by aspirin. Radiographs reveal a cortically based sclerotic lesion with a central radiolucent nidus measuring 8 mm. What is the primary biochemical mediator produced in high quantities by the nidus responsible for the patient's specific pain pattern?

. Interleukin-1
. Interleukin-6
. Prostaglandin E2
. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha
. Transforming growth factor-beta

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Prostaglandin E2


Explanation

The clinical and radiographic presentation is classic for an osteoid osteoma. The central nidus contains osteoblasts that produce high levels of Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) and cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2). PGE2 mediates profound perilesional vasodilation and directly stimulates sensory nerve fibers, causing severe pain (characteristically worse at night). Because NSAIDs and aspirin potently inhibit COX enzymes and thus PGE2 synthesis, they dramatically relieve the pain.

Question 5772

Topic: Soft Tissue Tumors & Metastasis

A 55-year-old male with a history of renal cell carcinoma presents with a large, solitary, highly destructive lytic lesion in the proximal diaphyseal femur with an impending pathologic fracture. What is the most critical step prior to proceeding with prophylactic intramedullary stabilization?

. Immediate intramedullary nailing within 24 hours
. Initiation of systemic chemotherapy prior to surgery
. Preoperative angiographic embolization of the lesion
. Neoadjuvant external beam radiation therapy
. Wide local excision and massive endoprosthetic reconstruction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Preoperative angiographic embolization of the lesion


Explanation

Renal cell carcinoma metastases to bone are highly vascular and prone to massive intraoperative hemorrhage. Preoperative angiographic embolization is strictly recommended within 24-48 hours prior to surgical stabilization to reduce life-threatening blood loss.

Question 5773

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 14-year-old boy presents with a painful, swollen mass on his left diaphyseal femur. Radiographs reveal a permeative, destructive lesion with an "onion-skin" periosteal reaction. Biopsy confirms small round blue cells. Immunohistochemistry is most likely to be strongly positive for which of the following markers?

. S-100
. CD99
. Cytokeratin
. Vimentin
. Desmin

Correct Answer & Explanation

. CD99


Explanation

The clinical and radiographic presentation is classic for Ewing sarcoma, a small round blue cell tumor. Ewing sarcoma is characterized by the t(11;22) translocation and strongly expresses the cell surface marker CD99 (MIC2).

Question 5774

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 15-year-old boy presents with a destructive diaphyseal lesion of the femur with a large soft tissue mass. Biopsy reveals small round blue cells. Which of the following chromosomal translocations is most pathognomonic for this tumor?

. t(11;22)(q24;q12)
. t(X;18)(p11;q11)
. t(12;16)(q13;p11)
. t(2;13)(q35;q14)
. t(9;22)(q22;q12)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(11;22)(q24;q12)


Explanation

The patient has Ewing sarcoma, characterized by the t(11;22)(q24;q12) translocation resulting in the EWS-FLI1 fusion protein. t(X;18) is seen in synovial sarcoma, and t(12;16) is associated with myxoid liposarcoma.

Question 5775

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 60-year-old female with a history of breast cancer presents with severe thigh pain. Radiographs reveal a 3 cm lytic lesion in the peritrochanteric region of the femur involving 50% of the cortical diameter. What is her Mirels' score, and what is the recommended treatment?

. Score 7; localized radiation therapy
. Score 8; localized radiation therapy
. Score 9; prophylactic internal fixation
. Score 10; prophylactic internal fixation
. Score 11; prophylactic internal fixation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Score 10; prophylactic internal fixation


Explanation

Her Mirels' criteria score is 10: Lower limb (2), Severe pain (3), Lytic lesion (3), and Size 1/3-2/3 of cortex (2). A score of 9 or greater indicates a high risk of impending fracture and strongly warrants prophylactic internal fixation.

Question 5776

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 14-year-old boy presents with a diaphyseal femur lesion with an "onion skin" periosteal reaction. Biopsy reveals small round blue cells. Which of the following chromosomal translocations is most pathognomonic for this tumor?

. t(11;22)
. t(9;22)
. t(X;18)
. t(12;16)
. t(2;13)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(11;22)


Explanation

Ewing sarcoma is a small round blue cell tumor commonly affecting the diaphysis of long bones. It is classically characterized by the t(11;22) chromosomal translocation, resulting in the EWS-FLI1 fusion protein.

Question 5777

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 45-year-old female with a history of breast cancer presents with progressively worsening proximal femur pain. Radiographs demonstrate a large lytic lesion. You calculate a Mirels score to determine the need for prophylactic fixation. Which of the following is NOT a parameter used in the Mirels scoring system?

. Site of the lesion
. Size of the lesion
. Nature of the lesion (lytic vs. blastic)
. Degree of pain
. Primary tumor histology

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Primary tumor histology


Explanation

The Mirels score determines the risk of pathologic fracture and guides the need for prophylactic fixation based on four parameters: site, size, nature of the lesion, and pain. Primary tumor histology is not a component of the score.

Question 5778

Topic: Bone Tumors
A 15-year-old male complains of a dull aching pain in his mid-thigh that is typically worse at night but dramatically relieved by ibuprofen. Radiographs demonstrate a small (<1.5 cm) radiolucent nidus surrounded by intense reactive cortical sclerosis in the femoral diaphysis. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Osteoblastoma
. Osteoid osteoma
. Osteosarcoma
. Chondroblastoma
. Ewing sarcoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Osteoid osteoma


Explanation

Osteoid osteoma classically presents in adolescents with severe night pain completely relieved by NSAIDs. Imaging typically shows a radiolucent nidus smaller than 1.5 cm surrounded by thickened, sclerotic reactive bone.

Question 5779

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 14-year-old boy presents with a painful, swollen thigh. Radiographs reveal a permeative, diaphyseal lesion with an 'onion-skin' periosteal reaction. A biopsy is planned. Which of the following chromosomal translocations is most pathognomonic for the suspected diagnosis?

. t(11;22)
. t(X;18)
. t(12;16)
. t(2;13)
. t(9;22)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(11;22)


Explanation

The clinical and radiographic picture strongly suggests Ewing sarcoma. The classic chromosomal translocation associated with Ewing sarcoma is t(11;22)(q24;q12), which results in the EWS-FLI1 fusion protein. Synovial sarcoma is associated with t(X;18), myxoid liposarcoma with t(12;16), alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma with t(2;13), and CML/chondrosarcoma variants with t(9;22).

Question 5780

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 19-year-old male complains of severe, aching pain in his proximal femur that is notably worse at night and dramatically relieved by ibuprofen. Radiographs demonstrate a 1-cm radiolucent nidus surrounded by dense reactive sclerosis. What is the most appropriate initial management?

. Immediate wide surgical excision
. Percutaneous radiofrequency ablation
. Observation and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by limb salvage
. Radiation therapy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Observation and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)


Explanation

The classic presentation of nocturnal pain relieved by NSAIDs with a small radiolucent nidus (<1.5 cm) surrounded by sclerosis is highly characteristic of an osteoid osteoma. First-line treatment for osteoid osteoma is a trial of NSAIDs, which can lead to spontaneous resolution over time. If medical management fails, percutaneous radiofrequency ablation is the surgical treatment of choice.