Question 481
Topic: 10. Pathology and OncologyWhich of the following cell types is not typically found in giant cell tumors of tendon sheath:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Polymorphonuclear lymphocytes
Practice Set 25 of 351
This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 10. Pathology and Oncology. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Which of the following cell types is not typically found in giant cell tumors of tendon sheath:
. Polymorphonuclear lymphocytes
A 19-year-old male presents with severe, aching pain in his mid-tibia that classically worsens at night. He reports complete relief of symptoms within 30 minutes of taking aspirin. Radiographs reveal a cortical lucency surrounded by sclerosis. The central nidus of this lesion predominantly secretes high levels of which biochemical mediator?
. Prostaglandin E2
A 14-year-old boy presents with a destructive metaphyseal lesion of the distal femur with a sunburst periosteal reaction. Biopsy confirms conventional osteosarcoma. Following neoadjuvant chemotherapy, what is the most significant prognostic factor for long-term survival?
. Percentage of tumor necrosis found in the resected specimen
A 32-year-old woman presents with knee pain. Radiographs show an eccentric, lytic epiphyseal lesion in the distal femur. Biopsy reveals mononuclear cells and multinucleated giant cells.
What is the most appropriate definitive management?

. Extended intralesional curettage with local adjuvant and bone grafting/cementing
A 12-year-old boy presents with progressive knee pain and swelling. Radiographs show a destructive, permeative metaphyseal lesion in the distal femur with a "sunburst" periosteal reaction and Codman's triangle. Histological examination reveals malignant spindle cells producing osteoid matrix. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Osteosarcoma
A 60-year-old man presents with progressive deep pelvic pain. Radiographs reveal a large, lobulated lytic lesion in the ilium with "popcorn" stippled calcifications. Biopsy demonstrates a hyaline cartilage matrix with atypical chondrocytes. What is the mainstay of treatment for conventional low-grade chondrosarcoma of the pelvis?
. Wide surgical excision alone
The most common bone tumor of the upper extremity is:
. Osteochondroma
The most common benign bone tumor of the hand is:
. Enchondroma
. Diaphyseal achalasia
The risk of malignant transformation in patients with multiple hereditary exostoses is:
. 0.5% to 25%
Recurrence of osteochondroma is likely if:
. The cartilage cap is incompletely excised
Malignant transformation of osteochondroma commonly occurs to:
. Low-grade chondrosarcoma
All of the following suggest a possibility of malignant transformation in multiple hereditary exostoses except:
. C alcific stippling in the cap on radiograph
. Clavicle
. Carpal translocation
. Bone scan can differentiate
A 25-year-old male presents with knee pain. Radiographs show an eccentric, expansile, purely lytic lesion in the distal femoral epiphysis. Biopsy reveals multinucleated giant cells. Which genetic mutation is highly sensitive and specific for this tumor?
. H3F3A
Which of the following clinical or pathologic findings represents the most significant adverse prognostic factor for overall survival in a 16-year-old patient diagnosed with high-grade intramedullary osteosarcoma of the distal femur?
. Presence of macroscopic pulmonary metastases at presentation
Which of the following bone tumors is characterized histologically by a proliferation of mononuclear cells and multinucleated giant cells, frequently harboring an H3F3A gene mutation?
. Giant cell tumor of bone
A 30-year-old black woman presents with complaints of pain in the tip of her right index finger. The pain started approximately 6 months ago and becomes intense in cold weather. She also states that her nail on the index finger does not look as good as the others despite regular manicures. You notice a bluish discoloration and ridging of the nail. The nail is not split, but it appears clubbed. The patient does not have a history of respiratory or hemodynamic disease and appears healthy. The nail is exquisitely tender on pressure, but no mass is palpable. Two-point discrimination is intact and capillary refill is good. Radiographs do not reveal bony destruction, but you notice pressure indentation over the distal phalanx. The joint space is preserved, and the patient has full range of motion. The most likely diagnosis is:
. Glomus tumor